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Financial Risk Manager
Handbook Second Edition
Founded in 1807, John Wiley & Sons is the oldest independ...

Author:
Philippe Jorion

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TE AM FL Y

Financial Risk Manager

Handbook Second Edition

Founded in 1807, John Wiley & Sons is the oldest independent publishing company in the United States. With ofﬁces in North America, Europe, Australia, and Asia, Wiley is globally committed to developing and marketing print and electronic products and services for our customers’ professional and personal knowledge and understanding. The Wiley Finance series contains books written speciﬁcally for ﬁnance and investment professionals, as well as sophisticated individual investors and their ﬁnancial advisors. Book topics range from portfolio management to e-commerce, risk management, ﬁnancial engineering, valuation, and ﬁnancial instrument analysis, as well as much more.

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Financial Risk Manager

Handbook Second Edition Philippe Jorion

GARP

Wiley John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Copyright 䊚 2003 by Philippe Jorion, except for FRM sample questions, which are copyright 1997–2001 by GARP. The FRM designation is a GARP trademark. All rights reserved. Published by John Wiley & Sons, Inc., Hoboken, New Jersey Published simultaneously in Canada No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, or otherwise, except as permitted under Section 107 or 108 of the 1976 United States Copyright Act, without either the prior written permission of the Publisher, or authorization through payment of the appropriate per-copy fee to the Copyright Clearance Center, Inc., 222 Rosewood Drive, Danvers, MA 01923, 978-750-8400, fax 978-750-4470, or on the web at www.copyright.com. Requests to the Publisher for permission should be addressed to the Permissions Department, John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 111 River Street, Hoboken, NJ 07030, 201-748-6011, fax 201-748-6008, e-mail: permcoordinator§wiley.com. Limit of Liability/Disclaimer of Warranty: While the publisher and author have used their best efforts in preparing this book, they make no representations or warranties with respect to the accuracy or completeness of the contents of this book and speciﬁcally disclaim any implied warranties of merchantability or ﬁtness for a particular purpose. No warranty may be created or extended by sales representatives or written sales materials. The advice and strategies contained herein may not be suitable for your situation. You should consult with a professional where appropriate. Neither the publisher nor author shall be liable for any loss of proﬁt or any other commercial damages, including but not limited to special, incidental, consequential, or other damages. For general information on our other products and services, or technical support, please contact our Customer Care Department within the United States at 800-762-2974, outside the United States at 317-572-3993 or fax 317-572-4002. Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication Data: ISBN 0-471-43003-X Printed in the United States of America. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

About the Author Philippe Jorion is Professor of Finance at the Graduate School of Management at the University of California at Irvine. He has also taught at Columbia University, Northwestern University, the University of Chicago, and the University of British Columbia. He holds an M.B.A. and a Ph.D. from the University of Chicago and a degree in engineering from the University of Brussels. Dr. Jorion has authored more than seventy publications directed to academics and practitioners on the topics of risk management and international ﬁnance. Dr. Jorion has written a number of books, including Big Bets Gone Bad: Derivatives and Bankruptcy in Orange County, the ﬁrst account of the largest municipal failure in U.S. history, and Value at Risk: The New Benchmark for Managing Financial Risk, which is aimed at ﬁnance practitioners and has become an “industry standard.” Philippe Jorion is a frequent speaker at academic and professional conferences. He is on the editorial board of a number of ﬁnance journals and is editor in chief of the Journal of Risk.

About GARP The Global Association of Risk Professionals (GARP), established in 1996, is a notfor-proﬁt independent association of risk management practitioners and researchers. Its members represent banks, investment management ﬁrms, governmental bodies, academic institutions, corporations, and other ﬁnancial organizations from all over the world. GARP’s mission, as adopted by its Board of Trustees in a statement issued in February 2003, is to be the leading professional association for risk managers, managed by and for its members dedicated to the advancement of the risk profession through education, training and the promotion of best practices globally. In just seven years the Association’s membership has grown to over 27,000 individuals from around the world. In the just six years since its inception in 1997, the FRM program has become the world’s most prestigious ﬁnancial risk management certiﬁcation program. Professional risk managers having earned the FRM credential are globally recognized as having achieved a minimum level of professional competency along with a demonstrated ability to dynamically measure and manage ﬁnancial risk in a real-world setting in accord with global standards. Further information about GARP, the FRM Exam, and FRM readings are available at www.garp.com.

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Contents Preface

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Introduction

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Part I: Quantitative Analysis Ch. 1

Ch. 2

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Bond Fundamentals 1.1 Discounting, Present, and Future Value . . 1.2 Price-Yield Relationship . . . . . . . . . . 1.2.1 Valuation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.2.2 Taylor Expansion . . . . . . . . . . 1.2.3 Bond Price Derivatives . . . . . . . 1.2.4 Interpreting Duration and Convexity 1.2.5 Portfolio Duration and Convexity . . 1.3 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . .

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Fundamentals of Probability 2.1 Characterizing Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.1.1 Univariate Distribution Functions . . . . . . . . . . . 2.1.2 Moments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.2 Multivariate Distribution Functions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3 Functions of Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3.1 Linear Transformation of Random Variables . . . . . . 2.3.2 Sum of Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3.3 Portfolios of Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3.4 Product of Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3.5 Distributions of Transformations of Random Variables 2.4 Important Distribution Functions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.1 Uniform Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.2 Normal Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.3 Lognormal Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.4 Student’s t Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.5 Binomial Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

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Ch. 4

CONTENTS Fundamentals of Statistics 3.1 Real Data . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.1.1 Measuring Returns . . . 3.1.2 Time Aggregation . . . . 3.1.3 Portfolio Aggregation . . 3.2 Parameter Estimation . . . . . . 3.3 Regression Analysis . . . . . . 3.3.1 Bivariate Regression . . 3.3.2 Autoregression . . . . . 3.3.3 Multivariate Regression . 3.3.4 Example . . . . . . . . . 3.3.5 Pitfalls with Regressions 3.4 Answers to Chapter Examples .

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Monte Carlo Methods 4.1 Simulations with One Random Variable 4.1.1 Simulating Markov Processes . . 4.1.2 The Geometric Brownian Motion 4.1.3 Simulating Yields . . . . . . . . 4.1.4 Binomial Trees . . . . . . . . . 4.2 Implementing Simulations . . . . . . . 4.2.1 Simulation for VAR . . . . . . . 4.2.2 Simulation for Derivatives . . . 4.2.3 Accuracy . . . . . . . . . . . . 4.3 Multiple Sources of Risk . . . . . . . . 4.3.1 The Cholesky Factorization . . . 4.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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Part II: Capital Markets

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105 105 107 107 110 112 113 117 117 119 119 120

Introduction to Derivatives 5.1 Overview of Derivatives Markets . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.2 Forward Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.2.1 Deﬁnition . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.2.2 Valuing Forward Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.2.3 Valuing an Off-Market Forward Contract . . . . . . 5.2.4 Valuing Forward Contracts with Income Payments . 5.3 Futures Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.3.1 Deﬁnitions of Futures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.3.2 Valuing Futures Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.4 Swap Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

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CONTENTS Ch. 6

Ch. 7

Ch. 8

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Options 6.1 Option Payoffs . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6.1.1 Basic Options . . . . . . . . . . 6.1.2 Put-Call Parity . . . . . . . . . . 6.1.3 Combination of Options . . . . 6.2 Valuing Options . . . . . . . . . . . . 6.2.1 Option Premiums . . . . . . . . 6.2.2 Early Exercise of Options . . . . 6.2.3 Black-Scholes Valuation . . . . . 6.2.4 Market vs. Model Prices . . . . . 6.3 Other Option Contracts . . . . . . . . . 6.4 Valuing Options by Numerical Methods 6.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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123 123 123 126 128 132 132 134 136 142 143 146 149

Fixed-Income Securities 7.1 Overview of Debt Markets . . . . . . . 7.2 Fixed-Income Securities . . . . . . . . . 7.2.1 Instrument Types . . . . . . . . 7.2.2 Methods of Quotation . . . . . . 7.3 Analysis of Fixed-Income Securities . . 7.3.1 The NPV Approach . . . . . . . 7.3.2 Duration . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7.4 Spot and Forward Rates . . . . . . . . 7.5 Mortgage-Backed Securities . . . . . . . 7.5.1 Description . . . . . . . . . . . 7.5.2 Prepayment Risk . . . . . . . . 7.5.3 Financial Engineering and CMOs 7.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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153 153 156 156 158 160 160 163 165 170 170 174 177 183

Fixed-Income Derivatives 8.1 Forward Contracts . . . . . . . . 8.2 Futures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.2.1 Eurodollar Futures . . . . 8.2.2 T-bond Futures . . . . . . 8.3 Swaps . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.3.1 Deﬁnitions . . . . . . . . 8.3.2 Quotations . . . . . . . . 8.3.3 Pricing . . . . . . . . . . . 8.4 Options . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.4.1 Caps and Floors . . . . . . 8.4.2 Swaptions . . . . . . . . . 8.4.3 Exchange-Traded Options . 8.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . .

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Currencies and Commodities Markets 10.1 Currency Markets . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.2 Currency Swaps . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.2.1 Deﬁnitions . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.2.2 Pricing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.3 Commodities . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.3.1 Products . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.3.2 Pricing of Futures . . . . . . . . . 10.3.3 Futures and Expected Spot Prices . 10.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . .

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Equity Markets 9.1 Equities . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9.1.1 Overview . . . . . . . . 9.1.2 Valuation . . . . . . . . 9.1.3 Equity Indices . . . . . . 9.2 Convertible Bonds and Warrants 9.2.1 Deﬁnitions . . . . . . . 9.2.2 Valuation . . . . . . . . 9.3 Equity Derivatives . . . . . . . 9.3.1 Stock Index Futures . . . 9.3.2 Single Stock Futures . . 9.3.3 Equity Options . . . . . 9.3.4 Equity Swaps . . . . . . 9.4 Answers to Chapter Examples .

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Ch. 9

CONTENTS

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Part III: Market Risk Management

241

Ch. 11

243 243 246 246 249 249 252 252 253 255 256 257 257 257

Introduction to Market Risk Measurement 11.1 Introduction to Financial Market Risks . 11.2 VAR as Downside Risk . . . . . . . . . 11.2.1 VAR: Deﬁnition . . . . . . . . . 11.2.2 VAR: Caveats . . . . . . . . . . 11.2.3 Alternative Measures of Risk . . 11.3 VAR: Parameters . . . . . . . . . . . . 11.3.1 Conﬁdence Level . . . . . . . . 11.3.2 Horizon . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11.3.3 Application: The Basel Rules . . 11.4 Elements of VAR Systems . . . . . . . 11.4.1 Portfolio Positions . . . . . . . 11.4.2 Risk Factors . . . . . . . . . . . 11.4.3 VAR Methods . . . . . . . . . .

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CONTENTS

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11.5 Stress-Testing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 258 11.6 Cash Flow at Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 260 11.7 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 261 Ch. 12

Ch. 13

Identiﬁcation of Risk Factors 12.1 Market Risks . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12.1.1 Absolute and Relative Risk . . 12.1.2 Directional and Nondirectional 12.1.3 Market vs. Credit Risk . . . . . 12.1.4 Risk Interaction . . . . . . . . 12.2 Sources of Loss: A Decomposition . . 12.2.1 Exposure and Uncertainty . . 12.2.2 Speciﬁc Risk . . . . . . . . . . 12.3 Discontinuity and Event Risk . . . . . 12.3.1 Continuous Processes . . . . . 12.3.2 Jump Process . . . . . . . . . 12.3.3 Event Risk . . . . . . . . . . . 12.4 Liquidity Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . Sources of Risk 13.1 Currency Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13.1.1 Currency Volatility . . . . . . 13.1.2 Correlations . . . . . . . . . . 13.1.3 Devaluation Risk . . . . . . . 13.1.4 Cross-Rate Volatility . . . . . 13.2 Fixed-Income Risk . . . . . . . . . . 13.2.1 Factors Affecting Yields . . . . 13.2.2 Bond Price and Yield Volatility 13.2.3 Correlations . . . . . . . . . . 13.2.4 Global Interest Rate Risk . . . 13.2.5 Real Yield Risk . . . . . . . . 13.2.6 Credit Spread Risk . . . . . . 13.2.7 Prepayment Risk . . . . . . . 13.3 Equity Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13.3.1 Stock Market Volatility . . . . 13.3.2 Forwards and Futures . . . . . 13.4 Commodity Risk . . . . . . . . . . . 13.4.1 Commodity Volatility Risk . . 13.4.2 Forwards and Futures . . . . . 13.4.3 Delivery and Liquidity Risk . .

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CONTENTS 13.5 Risk Simpliﬁcation . . . . . . . . . 13.5.1 Diagonal Model . . . . . . . 13.5.2 Factor Models . . . . . . . . 13.5.3 Fixed-Income Portfolio Risk . 13.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . .

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Hedging Linear Risk 14.1 Introduction to Futures Hedging . . . 14.1.1 Unitary Hedging . . . . . . . . 14.1.2 Basis Risk . . . . . . . . . . . 14.2 Optimal Hedging . . . . . . . . . . . 14.2.1 The Optimal Hedge Ratio . . . 14.2.2 The Hedge Ratio as Regression 14.2.3 Example . . . . . . . . . . . . 14.2.4 Liquidity Issues . . . . . . . . 14.3 Applications of Optimal Hedging . . 14.3.1 Duration Hedging . . . . . . . 14.3.2 Beta Hedging . . . . . . . . . 14.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . .

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Nonlinear Risk: Options 15.1 Evaluating Options . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.1.1 Deﬁnitions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.1.2 Taylor Expansion . . . . . . . . . . . 15.1.3 Option Pricing . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.2 Option “Greeks” . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.2.1 Option Sensitivities: Delta and Gamma 15.2.2 Option Sensitivities: Vega . . . . . . . 15.2.3 Option Sensitivities: Rho . . . . . . . 15.2.4 Option Sensitivities: Theta . . . . . . 15.2.5 Option Pricing and the “Greeks” . . . 15.2.6 Option Sensitivities: Summary . . . . 15.3 Dynamic Hedging . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.3.1 Delta and Dynamic Hedging . . . . . 15.3.2 Implications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.3.3 Distribution of Option Payoffs . . . . 15.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . .

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Modeling Risk Factors 355 16.1 The Normal Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 355 16.1.1 Why the Normal? . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 355

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16.1.2 Computing Returns . . 16.1.3 Time Aggregation . . . 16.2 Fat Tails . . . . . . . . . . . . 16.3 Time-Variation in Risk . . . . 16.3.1 GARCH . . . . . . . . 16.3.2 EWMA . . . . . . . . . 16.3.3 Option Data . . . . . . 16.3.4 Implied Distributions . 16.4 Answers to Chapter Examples Ch. 17

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VAR Methods 17.1 VAR: Local vs. Full Valuation . . . . . . 17.1.1 Local Valuation . . . . . . . . . 17.1.2 Full Valuation . . . . . . . . . . 17.1.3 Delta-Gamma Method . . . . . . 17.2 VAR Methods: Overview . . . . . . . . 17.2.1 Mapping . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17.2.2 Delta-Normal Method . . . . . . 17.2.3 Historical Simulation Method . . 17.2.4 Monte Carlo Simulation Method 17.2.5 Comparison of Methods . . . . 17.3 Example . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17.3.1 Mark-to-Market . . . . . . . . . 17.3.2 Risk Factors . . . . . . . . . . . 17.3.3 VAR: Historical Simulation . . . 17.3.4 VAR: Delta-Normal Method . . . 17.4 Risk Budgeting . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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371 372 372 373 374 376 376 377 377 378 379 381 381 382 384 386 388 389

Part IV: Credit Risk Management Ch. 18

Introduction to Credit Risk 18.1 Settlement Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18.1.1 Presettlement vs. Settlement Risk 18.1.2 Handling Settlement Risk . . . . . 18.2 Overview of Credit Risk . . . . . . . . . 18.2.1 Drivers of Credit Risk . . . . . . . 18.2.2 Measurement of Credit Risk . . . 18.2.3 Credit Risk vs. Market Risk . . . . 18.3 Measuring Credit Risk . . . . . . . . . . 18.3.1 Credit Losses . . . . . . . . . . . 18.3.2 Joint Events . . . . . . . . . . . .

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CONTENTS 18.3.3 An Example . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 401 18.4 Credit Risk Diversiﬁcation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 404 18.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 409

Ch. 19

Ch. 20

Ch. 21

Measuring Actuarial Default Risk 19.1 Credit Event . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.2 Default Rates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.2.1 Credit Ratings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.2.2 Historical Default Rates . . . . . . . . . 19.2.3 Cumulative and Marginal Default Rates 19.2.4 Transition Probabilities . . . . . . . . . 19.2.5 Predicting Default Probabilities . . . . . 19.3 Recovery Rates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.3.1 The Bankruptcy Process . . . . . . . . 19.3.2 Estimates of Recovery Rates . . . . . . 19.4 Application to Portfolio Rating . . . . . . . . . 19.5 Assessing Corporate and Sovereign Rating . . 19.5.1 Corporate Default . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.5.2 Sovereign Default . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . Measuring Default Risk from Market Prices 20.1 Corporate Bond Prices . . . . . . . . . . 20.1.1 Spreads and Default Risk . . . . . 20.1.2 Risk Premium . . . . . . . . . . . 20.1.3 The Cross-Section of Yield Spreads 20.1.4 The Time-Series of Yield Spreads . 20.2 Equity Prices . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20.2.1 The Merton Model . . . . . . . . . 20.2.2 Pricing Equity and Debt . . . . . . 20.2.3 Applying the Merton Model . . . . 20.2.4 Example . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20.3 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . .

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411 412 414 414 417 419 424 426 427 427 428 430 433 433 433 437

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441 441 442 443 446 448 448 449 450 453 455 457

Credit Exposure 21.1 Credit Exposure by Instrument . . . . . . . . . 21.2 Distribution of Credit Exposure . . . . . . . . 21.2.1 Expected and Worst Exposure . . . . . 21.2.2 Time Proﬁle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.2.3 Exposure Proﬁle for Interest-Rate Swaps 21.2.4 Exposure Proﬁle for Currency Swaps . .

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21.2.5 Exposure Proﬁle for Different Coupons 21.3 Exposure Modiﬁers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3.1 Marking to Market . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3.2 Exposure Limits . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3.3 Recouponing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3.4 Netting Arrangements . . . . . . . . . 21.4 Credit Risk Modiﬁers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.4.1 Credit Triggers . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.4.2 Time Puts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . Ch. 22

Ch. 23

Credit Derivatives 22.1 Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22.2 Types of Credit Derivatives . . . . . . . . . 22.2.1 Credit Default Swaps . . . . . . . . 22.2.2 Total Return Swaps . . . . . . . . . 22.2.3 Credit Spread Forward and Options 22.2.4 Credit-Linked Notes . . . . . . . . . 22.3 Pricing and Hedging Credit Derivatives . . 22.3.1 Methods . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22.3.2 Example: Credit Default Swap . . . 22.4 Pros and Cons of Credit Derivatives . . . . 22.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . .

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Managing Credit Risk 23.1 Measuring the Distribution of Credit Losses . . . . 23.2 Measuring Expected Credit Loss . . . . . . . . . . 23.2.1 Expected Loss over a Target Horizon . . . . 23.2.2 The Time Proﬁle of Expected Loss . . . . . 23.3 Measuring Credit VAR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4 Portfolio Credit Risk Models . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.1 Approaches to Portfolio Credit Risk Models 23.4.2 CreditMetrics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.3 CreditRisk+ . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.4 Moody’s KMV . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.5 Credit Portfolio View . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.6 Comparison . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . .

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474 479 479 481 481 482 486 486 487 487

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491 491 492 493 496 497 498 501 502 502 505 506

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509 510 513 513 514 516 518 518 519 522 523 524 524 527

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CONTENTS

Part V: Operational and Integrated Risk Management Ch. 24

Ch. 25

Ch. 26

Ch. 27

531

Operational Risk 24.1 The Importance of Operational Risk . . 24.1.1 Case Histories . . . . . . . . . . 24.1.2 Business Lines . . . . . . . . . . 24.2 Identifying Operational Risk . . . . . . 24.3 Assessing Operational Risk . . . . . . . 24.3.1 Comparison of Approaches . . . 24.3.2 Acturial Models . . . . . . . . . 24.4 Managing Operational Risk . . . . . . . 24.4.1 Capital Allocation and Insurance 24.4.2 Mitigating Operational Risk . . . 24.5 Conceptual Issues . . . . . . . . . . . 24.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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533 534 534 535 537 540 540 542 545 545 547 549 550

Risk Capital and RAROC 25.1 RAROC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25.1.1 Risk Capital . . . . . . . . . . 25.1.2 RAROC Methodology . . . . . 25.1.3 Application to Compensation . 25.2 Performance Evaluation and Pricing . 25.3 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . .

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573 574 575 575 576 576 577 581 581 582 585

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Best Practices Reports 26.1 The G-30 Report . . . . . . . . . . . . 26.2 The Bank of England Report on Barings 26.3 The CRMPG Report on LTCM . . . . . . 26.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . Firmwide Risk Management 27.1 Types of Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . 27.2 Three-Pillar Framework . . . . . . . 27.2.1 Best-Practice Policies . . . . 27.2.2 Best-Practice Methodologies 27.2.3 Best-Practice Infrastructure . 27.3 Organizational Structure . . . . . . 27.4 Controlling Traders . . . . . . . . . 27.4.1 Trader Compensation . . . . 27.4.2 Trader Limits . . . . . . . . 27.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . .

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Part VI: Legal, Accounting, and Tax Risk Management

587

Ch. 28

Ch. 29

Legal Issues 28.1 Legal Risks with Derivatives . . . . . . 28.2 Netting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28.2.1 G-30 Recommendations . . . . . 28.2.2 Netting under the Basel Accord . 28.2.3 Walk-Away Clauses . . . . . . . 28.2.4 Netting and Exchange Margins . 28.3 ISDA Master Netting Agreement . . . . 28.4 The 2002 Sarbanes-Oxley Act . . . . . 28.5 Glossary . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28.5.1 General Legal Terms . . . . . . 28.5.2 Bankruptcy Terms . . . . . . . 28.5.3 Contract Terms . . . . . . . . . 28.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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Accounting and Tax Issues 29.1 Internal Reporting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.1.1 Purpose of Internal Reporting . . . . . . 29.1.2 Comparison of Methods . . . . . . . . . 29.1.3 Historical Cost versus Marking-to-Market 29.2 External Reporting: FASB . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.1 FAS 133 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.2 Deﬁnition of Derivative . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.3 Embedded Derivative . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.4 Disclosure Rules . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.5 Hedge Effectiveness . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.6 General Evaluation of FAS 133 . . . . . . 29.2.7 Accounting Treatment of SPEs . . . . . . 29.3 External Reporting: IASB . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.3.1 IAS 37 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.3.2 IAS 39 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.4 Tax Considerations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . .

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589 590 593 593 594 595 596 596 600 601 601 602 602 603

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605 606 606 607 610 612 612 613 614 615 616 617 617 620 620 621 622 623

Part VII: Regulation and Compliance

627

Ch. 30

629 629 631 632

Regulation of Financial Institutions 30.1 Deﬁnition of Financial Institutions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30.2 Systemic Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30.3 Regulation of Commercial Banks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

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CONTENTS 30.4 Regulation of Securities Houses . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 635 30.5 Tools and Objectives of Regulation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 637 30.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 639

Ch. 31

Ch. 32

The Basel Accord 31.1 Steps in The Basel Accord . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.1.1 The 1988 Accord . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.1.2 The 1996 Amendment . . . . . . . . . . . 31.1.3 The New Basel Accord . . . . . . . . . . . 31.2 The 1988 Basel Accord . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.2.1 Risk Capital . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.2.2 On-Balance-Sheet Risk Charges . . . . . . . 31.2.3 Off-Balance-Sheet Risk Charges . . . . . . . 31.2.4 Total Risk Charge . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.3 Illustration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.4 The New Basel Accord . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.4.1 Issues with the 1988 Basel Accord . . . . . 31.4.2 The New Basel Accord: Credit Risk Charges 31.4.3 Securitization and Credit Risk Mitigation . . 31.4.4 The Basel Operational Risk Charge . . . . . 31.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . 31.6 Further Information . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . The Basel Market Risk Charges 32.1 The Standardized Method . . . . . 32.2 The Internal Models Approach . . . 32.2.1 Qualitative Requirements . . 32.2.2 The Market Risk Charge . . . 32.2.3 Combination of Approaches 32.3 Stress-Testing . . . . . . . . . . . . 32.4 Backtesting . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32.4.1 Measuring Exceptions . . . . 32.4.2 Statistical Decision Rules . . 32.4.3 The Penalty Zones . . . . . . 32.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . .

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Index

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641 641 641 642 642 645 645 647 648 652 654 656 657 658 660 661 663 665

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669 669 671 671 672 674 677 679 680 680 681 684 695

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Preface The FRM Handbook provides the core body of knowledge for ﬁnancial risk managers. Risk management has rapidly evolved over the last decade and has become an indispensable function in many institutions. This Handbook was originally written to provide support for candidates taking the FRM examination administered by GARP. As such, it reviews a wide variety of practical topics in a consistent and systematic fashion. It covers quantitative methods, capital markets, as well as market, credit, operational, and integrated risk management. It also discusses the latest regulatory, legal, and accounting issues essential to risk professionals. Modern risk management systems cut across the entire organization. This breadth is reﬂected in the subjects covered in this Handbook. This Handbook was designed to be self-contained, but only for readers who already have some exposure to ﬁnancial markets. To reap maximum beneﬁt from this book, readers should have taken the equivalent of an MBA-level class on investments. Finally, I wanted to acknowledge the help received in the writing of this second edition. In particular, I would like to thank the numerous readers who shared comments on the previous edition. Any comment and suggestion for improvement will be welcome. This feedback will help us to maintain the high quality of the FRM designation. Philippe Jorion April 2003

xix

AM FL Y TE Team-Fly®

Introduction The Financial Risk Manager Handbook was ﬁrst created in 2000 as a study support manual for candidates preparing for GARP’s annual FRM exam and as a general guide to assessing and controlling ﬁnancial risk in today’s rapidly changing environment. But the growth in the number of risk professionals, the now commonly held view that risk management is an integral and indispensable part of any organization’s management culture, and the ever increasing complexity of the ﬁeld of risk management have changed our goal for the Handbook. This dramatically enhanced second edition of the Handbook reﬂects our belief that a dynamically changing business environment requires a comprehensive text that provides an in-depth overview of the various disciplines associated with ﬁnancial risk management. The Handbook has now evolved into the essential reference text for any risk professional, whether they are seeking FRM Certiﬁcation or whether they simply have a desire to remain current on the subject of ﬁnancial risk. For those using the FRM Handbook as a guide for the FRM Exam, each chapter includes questions from previous FRM exams. The questions are selected to provide systematic coverage of advanced FRM topics. The answers to the questions are explained by comprehensive tutorials. The FRM examination is designed to test risk professionals on a combination of basic analytical skills, general knowledge, and intuitive capability acquired through experience in capital markets. Its focus is on the core body of knowledge required for independent risk management analysis and decision-making. The exam has been administered every autumn since 1997 and has now expanded to 43 international testing sites.

xxi

xxii

INTRODUCTION

The FRM exam is recognized at the world’s most prestigious global certiﬁcation program for risk management professionals. As of 2002, 3,265 risk management professionals have earned the FRM designation. They represent over 1,450 different companies, ﬁnancial institutions, regulatory bodies, brokerages, asset management ﬁrms, banks, exchanges, universities, and other ﬁrms from all over the world. GARP is very proud, through its alliance with John Wiley & Sons, to make this ﬂagship book available not only to FRM candidates, but to risk professionals, professors, and their students everywhere. Philippe Jorion, preeminent in his ﬁeld, has once again prepared and updated the Handbook so that it remains an essential reference for risk professionals. Any queries, comments or suggestions about the Handbook may be directed to frmhandbook噝garp.com. Corrections to this edition, if any, will be posted on GARP’s Web site. Whether preparing for the FRM examination, furthering your knowledge of risk management, or just wanting a comprehensive reference manual to refer to in a time of need, any ﬁnancial services professional will ﬁnd the FRM Handbook an indispensable asset. Global Association of Risk Professionals April 2003

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Financial Risk Manager

Handbook Second Edition

PART

one

Quantitative Analysis

Chapter 1 Bond Fundamentals Risk management starts with the pricing of assets. The simplest assets to study are ﬁxed-coupon bonds, for which cash ﬂows are predetermined. As a result, we can translate the stream of cash ﬂows into a present value by discounting at a ﬁxed yield. Thus the valuation of bonds involves understanding compounded interest, discounting, as well as the relationship between present values and interest rates. Risk management goes one step further than pricing, however. It examines potential changes in the value of assets as the interest rate changes. In this chapter, we assume that there is a single interest rate that is used to discount to all bonds. This will be our fundamental risk factor. Even for as simple an instrument as a bond, the relationship between the price and the risk factor can be complex. This is why the industry has developed a number of tools that summarize the risk proﬁle of ﬁxed-income portfolios. This chapter starts our coverage of quantitative analysis by discussing bond fundamentals. Section 1.1 reviews the concepts of discounting, present values, and future values. Section 1.2 then plunges into the price-yield relationship. It shows how the Taylor expansion rule can be used to measure price movements. These concepts are presented ﬁrst because they are so central to the measurement of ﬁnancial risk. The section then discusses the economic interpretation of duration and convexity.

1.1

Discounting, Present, and Future Value

An investor considers a zero-coupon bond that pays $100 in 10 years. Say that the investment is guaranteed by the U.S. government and has no default risk. Because the payment occurs at a future date, the investment is surely less valuable than an up-front payment of $100. To value the payment, we need a discounting factor. This is also the interest rate, or more simply the yield. Deﬁne Ct as the cash ﬂow at time t ⳱ T and the discounting

3

4

PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

factor as y . Here, T is the number of periods until maturity, e.g. number of years, also known as tenor. The present value (P V ) of the bond can be computed as PV ⳱

CT (1 Ⳮ y )T

(1.1)

For instance, a payment of CT ⳱ $100 in 10 years discounted at 6 percent is only worth $55.84. This explains why the market value of zero-coupon bonds decreases with longer maturities. Also, keeping T ﬁxed, the value of the bond decreases as the yield increases. Conversely, we can compute the future value of the bond as FV ⳱ P V ⫻ (1 Ⳮ y )T

(1.2)

For instance, an investment now worth P V ⳱ $100 growing at 6 percent will have a future value of F V ⳱ $179.08 in 10 years. Here, the yield has a useful interpretation, which is that of an internal rate of return on the bond, or annual growth rate. It is easier to deal with rates of returns than with dollar values. Rates of return, when expressed in percentage terms and on an annual basis, are directly comparable across assets. An annualized yield is sometimes deﬁned as the effective annual rate (EAR). It is important to note that the interest rate should be stated along with the method used for compounding. Equation (1.1) uses annual compounding, which is frequently the norm. Other conventions exist, however. For instance, the U.S. Treasury market uses semiannual compounding. If so, the interest rate y S is derived from PV ⳱

CT (1 Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2T

(1.3)

where T is the number of periods, or semesters in this case. Continuous compounding is often used when modeling derivatives. If so, the interest rate y C is derived from P V ⳱ CT ⫻ e ⫺ y

CT

(1.4)

where e(⭈) , sometimes noted as exp(⭈), represents the exponential function. These are merely deﬁnitions and are all consistent with the same initial and ﬁnal values. One has to be careful, however, about using each in the appropriate formula.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

CHAPTER 1.

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Example: Using different discounting methods Consider a bond that pays $100 in 10 years and has a present value of $55.8395. This corresponds to an annually compounded rate of 6.00% using P V ⳱ CT 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )10 , or (1 Ⳮ y ) ⳱ CT 冫 P V 1冫 10 . This rate can be easily transformed into a semiannual compounded rate, using (1Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ), or y S ⳱ ((1 Ⳮ 0.06)(1冫 2) ⫺ 1) ⫻ 2 ⳱ 0.0591. It can be also transformed into a continuously compounded rate, using exp(y C ) ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ), or y C ⳱ ln(1 Ⳮ 0.06) ⳱ 0.0583. Note that as we increase the frequency of the compounding, the resulting rate decreases. Intuitively, because our money works harder with more frequent compounding, a lower investment rate will achieve the same payoff.

Key concept: For ﬁxed present and ﬁnal values, increasing the frequency of the compounding will decrease the associated yield.

Example 1-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 17/Quant. Analysis 1-1. Assume a semiannual compounded rate of 8% per annum. What is the equivalent annually compounded rate? a) 9.20% b) 8.16% c) 7.45% d) 8.00%

Example 1-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 28/Quant. Analysis 1-2. Assume a continuously compounded interest rate is 10% per annum. The equivalent semiannual compounded rate is a) 10.25% per annum b) 9.88% per annum c) 9.76% per annum d) 10.52% per annum

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1.2

Price-Yield Relationship

1.2.1

Valuation

The fundamental discounting relationship from Equation (1.1) can be extended to any bond with a ﬁxed cash-ﬂow pattern. We can write the present value of a bond P as the discounted value of future cash ﬂows: T

P⳱

C

冱 (1 Ⳮty )t

(1.5)

t ⳱1

where: Ct ⳱ the cash ﬂow (coupon or principal) in period t

AM FL Y

t ⳱ the number of periods (e.g. half-years) to each payment T ⳱ the number of periods to ﬁnal maturity y ⳱ the discounting factor

A typical cash-ﬂow pattern consists of a regular coupon payment plus the repayment of the principal, or face value at expiration. Deﬁne c as the coupon rate and

TE

F as the face value. We have Ct ⳱ cF prior to expiration, and at expiration, we have CT ⳱ cF Ⳮ F . The appendix reviews useful formulas that provide closed-form solutions for such bonds.

When the coupon rate c precisely matches the yield y , using the same compounding frequency, the present value of the bond must be equal to the face value. The bond is said to be a par bond. Equation (1.5) describes the relationship between the yield y and the value of the bond P , given its cash-ﬂow characteristics. In other words, the value P can also be written as a nonlinear function of the yield y : P ⳱ f (y )

(1.6)

Conversely, we can deﬁne P as the current market price of the bond, including any accrued interest. From this, we can compute the “implied” yield that will solve Equation (1.6). There is a particularly simple relationship for consols, or perpetual bonds, which are bonds making regular coupon payments but with no redemption date. For a

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consol, the maturity is inﬁnite and the cash ﬂows are all equal to a ﬁxed percentage of the face value, Ct ⳱ C ⳱ cF . As a result, the price can be simpliﬁed from Equation (1.5) to P ⳱ cF

冋

册

c 1 1 1 Ⳮ Ⳮ Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ ⳱ F y (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )2 (1 Ⳮ y )3

(1.7)

as shown in the appendix. In this case, the price is simply proportional to the inverse of the yield. Higher yields lead to lower bond prices, and vice versa.

Example: Valuing a bond Consider a bond that pays $100 in 10 years and a 6% annual coupon. Assume that the next coupon payment is in exactly one year. What is the market value if the yield is 6%? If it falls to 5%? The bond cash ﬂows are C1 ⳱ $6, C2 ⳱ $6, . . . , C10 ⳱ $106. Using Equation (1.5) and discounting at 6%, this gives the present value of cash ﬂows of $5.66, $10.68, . . ., $59.19, for a total of $100.00. The bond is selling at par. This is logical because the coupon is equal to the yield, which is also annually compounded. Alternatively, discounting at 5% leads to a price appreciation to $107.72.

Example 1-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 12/Quant. Analysis 1-3. A ﬁxed-rate bond, currently priced at 102.9, has one year remaining to maturity and is paying an 8% coupon. Assuming the coupon is paid semiannually, what is the yield of the bond? a) 8% b) 7% c) 6% d) 5%

1.2.2

Taylor Expansion

Let us say that we want to see what happens to the price if the yield changes from its initial value, called y0 , to a new value, y1 ⳱ y0 Ⳮ ⌬y . Risk management is all about assessing the effect of changes in risk factors such as yields on asset values. Are there shortcuts to help us with this?

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS We could recompute the new value of the bond as P1 ⳱ f (y1 ). If the change is not

too large, however, we can apply a very useful shortcut. The nonlinear relationship can be approximated by a Taylor expansion around its initial value1 1 P1 ⳱ P0 Ⳮ f ⬘(y0 )⌬y Ⳮ f ⬘⬘(y0 )(⌬y )2 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ 2 where f ⬘(⭈) ⳱

dP dy

is the ﬁrst derivative and f ⬘⬘(⭈) ⳱

d2P dy 2

(1.8)

is the second derivative of the

function f (⭈) valued at the starting point.2 This expansion can be generalized to situations where the function depends on two or more variables. Equation (1.8) represents an inﬁnite expansion with increasing powers of ⌬y . Only the ﬁrst two terms (linear and quadratic) are ever used by ﬁnance practitioners. This is because they provide a good approximation to changes in prices relative to other assumptions we have to make about pricing assets. If the increment is very small, even the quadratic term will be negligible. Equation (1.8) is fundamental for risk management. It is used, sometimes in different guises, across a variety of ﬁnancial markets. We will see later that this Taylor expansion is also used to approximate the movement in the value of a derivatives contract, such as an option on a stock. In this case, Equation (1.8) is 1 ⌬P ⳱ f ⬘(S )⌬S Ⳮ f ⬘⬘(S )(⌬S )2 Ⳮ . . . 2

(1.9)

where S is now the price of the underlying asset, such as the stock. Here, the ﬁrst derivative f ⬘(S ) is called delta, and the second f ⬘⬘(S ), gamma. The Taylor expansion allows easy aggregation across ﬁnancial instruments. If we have xi units (numbers) of bond i and a total of N different bonds in the portfolio, the portfolio derivatives are given by f ⬘(y ) ⳱

N

冱 xi fi⬘(y )

(1.10)

i ⳱1

We will illustrate this point later for a 3-bond portfolio. 1

This is named after the English mathematician Brook Taylor (1685–1731), who published this result in 1715. The full recognition of the importance of this result only came in 1755 when Euler applied it to differential calculus. 2 This ﬁrst assumes that the function can be written in polynomial form as P (y Ⳮ ⌬y ) ⳱ a0 Ⳮ a1 ⌬y Ⳮ a2 (⌬y )2 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈, with unknown coefﬁcients a0 , a1 , a2 . To solve for the ﬁrst, we set ⌬y ⳱ 0. This gives a0 ⳱ P0 . Next, we take the derivative of both sides and set ⌬y ⳱ 0. This gives a1 ⳱ f ⬘(y0 ). The next step gives 2a2 ⳱ f ⬘⬘(y0 ). Note that these are the conventional mathematical derivatives and have nothing to do with derivatives products such as options.

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BOND FUNDAMENTALS

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Bond Price Derivatives

For ﬁxed-income instruments, the derivatives are so important that they have been given a special name.3 The negative of the ﬁrst derivative is the dollar duration (DD): f ⬘(y0 ) ⳱

dP ⳱ ⫺D ⴱ ⫻ P0 dy

(1.11)

where D ⴱ is called the modiﬁed duration. Thus, dollar duration is DD ⳱ D ⴱ ⫻ P0

(1.12)

where the price P0 represent the market price, including any accrued interest. Sometimes, risk is measured as the dollar value of a basis point (DVBP), DVBP ⳱ [D ⴱ ⫻ P0 ] ⫻ 0.0001

(1.13)

with 0.0001 representing one hundredth of a percent. The DVBP, sometimes called the DV01, measures can be more easily added up across the portfolio. The second derivative is the dollar convexity (DC): f ⬘⬘(y0 ) ⳱

d2P ⳱ C ⫻ P0 dy 2

(1.14)

where C is called the convexity. For ﬁxed-income instruments with known cash ﬂows, the price-yield function is known, and we can compute analytical ﬁrst and second derivatives. Consider, for example, our simple zero-coupon bond in Equation (1.1) where the only payment is the face value, CT ⳱ F . We take the ﬁrst derivative, which is dP F T P ⳱ (⫺ T ) ⳱⫺ 1 Ⳮ T dy (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )

(1.15)

Comparing with Equation (1.11), we see that the modiﬁed duration must be given by D ⴱ ⳱ T 冫 (1 Ⳮ y ). The conventional measure of duration is D ⳱ T , which does not 3 Note that this chapter does not present duration in the traditional textbook order. In line with the advanced focus on risk management, we ﬁrst analyze the properties of duration as a sensitivity measure. This applies to any type of ﬁxed-income instrument. Later, we will illustrate the usual deﬁnition of duration as a weighted average maturity, which applies for ﬁxed-coupon bonds only.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

include division by (1 Ⳮ y ) in the denominator. This is also called Macaulay duration. Note that duration is expressed in periods, like T . With annual compounding, duration is in years. With semiannual compounding, duration is in semesters and has to be divided by two for conversion to years. Modiﬁed duration is the appropriate measure of interest-rate exposure. The quantity (1 Ⳮ y ) appears in the denominator because we took the derivative of the present value term with discrete compounding. If we use continuous compounding, modiﬁed duration is identical to the conventional duration measure. In practice, the difference between Macaulay and modiﬁed duration is often small. With a 6% yield and semiannual compounding, for instance, the adjustment is only a factor of 3%. Let us now go back to Equation (1.15) and consider the second derivative, which is d2P F (T Ⳮ 1)T ⫻P ⳱ ⫺(T Ⳮ 1)(⫺T ) ⳱ T Ⳮ 2 2 dy (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )2

(1.16)

Comparing with Equation (1.14), we see that the convexity is C ⳱ (T Ⳮ 1)T 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )2 . Note that its dimension is expressed in period squared. With semiannual compounding, convexity is measured in semesters squared and has to be divided by four for conversion to years squared.4 Putting together all these equations, we get the Taylor expansion for the change in the price of a bond, which is 1 ⌬P ⳱ ⫺[D ⴱ ⫻ P ](⌬y ) Ⳮ [C ⫻ P ](⌬y )2 . . . 2

(1.17)

Therefore duration measures the ﬁrst-order (linear) effect of changes in yield and convexity the second-order (quadratic) term.

Example: Computing the price approximation Consider a 10-year zero-coupon bond with a yield of 6 percent and present value of $55.368. This is obtained as P ⳱ 100冫 (1 Ⳮ 6冫 200)20 ⳱ 55.368. As is the practice in the Treasury market, yields are semiannually compounded. Thus all computations should be carried out using semesters, after which ﬁnal results can be converted into annual units. 4

This is because the conversion to annual terms is obtained by multiplying the semiannual yield ⌬y by two. As a result, the duration term must be divided by 2 and the convexity term by 22 , or 4, for conversion to annual units.

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Here, Macaulay duration is exactly 10 years, as D ⳱ T for a zero-coupon bond. Its modiﬁed duration is D ⴱ ⳱ 20冫 (1 Ⳮ 6冫 200) ⳱ 19.42 semesters, which is 9.71 years. Its convexity is C ⳱ 21 ⫻ 20冫 (1 Ⳮ 6冫 200)2 ⳱ 395.89 semesters squared, which is 98.97 in years squared. Dollar duration is DD ⳱ D ⴱ ⫻ P ⳱ 9.71 ⫻ $55.37 ⳱ $537.55. The DVBP is DVBP ⳱ DD ⫻ 0.0001 ⳱ $0.0538. We want to approximate the change in the value of the bond if the yield goes to 7%. Using Equation (1.17), we have ⌬P ⳱ ⫺[9.71⫻$55.37](0.01)Ⳮ0.5[98.97⫻$55.37](0.01)2 ⳱ ⫺$5.375 Ⳮ $0.274 ⳱ ⫺$5.101. Using the ﬁrst term only, the new price is $55.368 ⫺ $5.375 ⳱ $49.992. Using the two terms in the expansion, the predicted price is slightly different, at $55.368 ⫺ $5.101 ⳱ $50.266. These numbers can be compared with the exact value, which is $50.257. Thus the linear approximation has a pricing error of ⫺0.53%, which is not bad given the large change in yield. Adding the second term reduces this to an error of 0.02% only, which is minuscule given typical bid-ask spreads. More generally, Figure 1-1 compares the quality of the Taylor series approximation. We consider a 10-year bond paying a 6 percent coupon semiannually. Initially, the yield is also at 6 percent and, as a result the price of the bond is at par, at $100. The graph compares, for various values of the yield y : 1. The actual, exact price

P ⳱ f (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y )

2. The duration estimate

P ⳱ P0 ⫺ D ⴱ P0 ⌬y

3. The duration and convexity estimate

P ⳱ P0 ⫺ D ⴱ P0 ⌬y Ⳮ (1冫 2)CP0 (⌬y )2

FIGURE 1-1 Price Approximation 150

Bond price

10-year, 6% coupon bond

Actual price

100

50

Duration+ convexity estimate Duration estimate 0

2

4

6

8 Yield

10

12

14

16

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS The actual price curve shows an increase in the bond price if the yield falls and,

conversely, a depreciation if the yield increases. This effect is captured by the tangent to the true price curve, which represents the linear approximation based on duration. For small movements in the yield, this linear approximation provides a reasonable ﬁt to the exact price. Key concept: Dollar duration measures the (negative) slope of the tangent to the price-yield curve at the starting point. For large movements in price, however, the price-yield function becomes more curved and the linear ﬁt deteriorates. Under these conditions, the quadratic approximation is noticeably better. We should also note that the curvature is away from the origin, which explains the term convexity (as opposed to concavity). Figure 1-2 compares curves with different values for convexity. This curvature is beneﬁcial since the second-order effect 0.5[C ⫻ P ](⌬y )2 must be positive when convexity is positive. FIGURE 1-2 Effect of Convexity Bond price

Lower convexity Higher convexity Value increases more than duration model

Value drops less than duration model Yield

As Figure 1-2 shows, when the yield rises, the price drops but less than predicted by the tangent. Conversely, if the yield falls, the price increases faster than the duration model. In other words, the quadratic term is always beneﬁcial.

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Key concept: Convexity is always positive for coupon-paying bonds. Greater convexity is beneﬁcial both for falling and rising yields. The bond’s modiﬁed duration and convexity can also be computed directly from numerical derivatives. Duration and convexity cannot be computed directly for some bonds, such as mortgage-backed securities, because their cash ﬂows are uncertain. Instead, the portfolio manager has access to pricing models that can be used to reprice the securities under various yield environments. We choose a change in the yield, ⌬y , and reprice the bond under an upmove scenario, PⳭ ⳱ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ), and downmove scenario, P⫺ ⳱ P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ). Effective duration is measured by the numerical derivative. Using D ⴱ ⳱ ⫺(1冫 P )dP 冫 dy , it is estimated as DE ⳱

P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ) ⫺ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ) [P⫺ ⫺ PⳭ] ⳱ (2P0 ⌬y ) (2⌬y )P0

Using C ⳱ (1冫 P )d 2 P 冫 dy 2 , effective convexity is estimated as C E ⳱ [D⫺ ⫺ DⳭ]冫 ⌬y ⳱

冋

(1.18)

册

P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ) ⫺ P0 P ⫺ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ) ⫺ 0 冫 ⌬y (P0 ⌬y ) (P0 ⌬y )

(1.19)

These computations are illustrated in Table 1-1 and in Figure 1-3. TABLE 1-1 Effective Duration and Convexity State Initial y0 Up y0 Ⳮ ⌬y Down y0 ⫺ ⌬y Difference in values Difference in yields Effective measure Exact measure

Yield (%) 6.00 7.00 5.00

Bond Value 16.9733 12.6934 22.7284

Duration Computation

Convexity Computation

⫺10.0349 0.02 29.56 29.13

Duration up: 25.22 Duration down: 33.91 8.69 0.01 869.11 862.48

As a benchmark case, consider a 30-year zero-coupon bond with a yield of 6 percent. With semiannual compounding, the initial price is $16.9733. We then revalue the bond at 5 percent and 7 percent. The effective duration in Equation (1.18) uses the two extreme points. The effective convexity in Equation (1.19) uses the difference between the dollar durations for the upmove and downmove. Note that convexity is positive if duration increases as yields fall, or if D⫺ ⬎ DⳭ. The computations are detailed in Table 1-1, where the effective duration is measured at 29.56. This is very close to the true value of 29.13, and would be even closer if the step ⌬y was smaller. Similarly, the effective convexity is 869.11, which is close

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

FIGURE 1-3 Effective Duration and Convexity

30-year, zero-coupon bond

Price

P–

±(D–*P)

P0

±(D+*P)

P+ y0±Dy

y0

y0+Dy

Yield to the true value of 862.48. In general, however, effective duration is a by-product of the pricing model. Inaccuracies in the model will distort the duration estimate. Finally, this numerical approach can be applied to get an estimate of the duration of a bond by considering bonds with the same maturity but different coupons. If interest rates decrease by 100 basis points (bp), the market price of a 6% 30-year bond should go up, close to that of a 7% 30-year bond. Thus we replace a drop in yield of ⌬y by an increase in coupon ⌬c and use the effective duration method to ﬁnd the coupon curve duration D CC ⳱

[PⳭ ⫺ P⫺ ] P (y0 ; c Ⳮ ⌬c ) ⫺ P (y0 ; c ⫺ ⌬c ) ⳱ (2P0 ⌬c ) (2⌬c )P0

(1.20)

This approach is useful for securities that are difﬁcult to price under various yield scenarios. Instead, it only requires the market prices of securities with different coupons.

Example: Computation of coupon curve duration Consider a 10-year bond that pays a 7% coupon semiannually. In a 7% yield environment, the bond is selling at par and has modiﬁed duration of 7.11 years. The prices of 6% and 8% coupon bonds are $92.89 and $107.11, respectively. This gives a coupon curve duration of (107.11 ⫺ 92.89)冫 (0.02 ⫻ 100) ⳱ 7.11, which in this case is the same as modiﬁed duration.

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Example 1-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 9/Quant. Analysis 1-4. A number of terms in ﬁnance are related to the (calculus!) derivative of the price of a security with respect to some other variable. Which pair of terms is deﬁned using second derivatives? a) Modiﬁed duration and volatility b) Vega and delta c) Convexity and gamma d) PV01 and yield to maturity Example 1-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 17/Quant. Analysis 1-5. A bond is trading at a price of 100 with a yield of 8%. If the yield increases by 1 basis point, the price of the bond will decrease to 99.95. If the yield decreases by 1 basis point, the price of the bond will increase to 100.04. What is the modiﬁed duration of the bond? a) 5.0 b) 5.0 c) 4.5 d) ⫺4.5 Example 1-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Quant. Analysis 1-6. What is the price impact of a 10-basis-point increase in yield on a 10-year par bond with a modiﬁed duration of 7 and convexity of 50? a) ⫺0.705 b) ⫺0.700 c) ⫺0.698 d) ⫺0.690 Example 1-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 20/Quant. Analysis 1-7. Coupon curve duration is a useful method to estimate duration from market prices of a mortgage-backed security (MBS). Assume the coupon curve of prices for Ginnie Maes in June 2001 is as follows: 6% at 92, 7% at 94, and 8% at 96.5. What is the estimated duration of the 7s? a) 2.45 b) 2.40 c) 2.33 d) 2.25

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Example 1-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 21/Quant. Analysis 1-8. Coupon curve duration is a useful method to estimate convexity from market prices of an MBS. Assume the coupon curve of prices for Ginnie Maes in June 2001 is as follows: 6% at 92, 7% at 94, and 8% at 96.5. What is the estimated convexity of the 7s? a) 53 b) 26 c) 13 d) ⫺53

1.2.4

Interpreting Duration and Convexity

The preceding section has shown how to compute analytical formulas for duration

AM FL Y

and convexity in the case of a simple zero-coupon bond. We can use the same approach for coupon-paying bonds. Going back to Equation (1.5), we have T T dP tCt D ⫺tCt [ ]冫 P ⫻ P ⳱ ⫺ ⫺ P ⳱ ⳱ t t Ⳮ 1 Ⳮ 1 (1 Ⳮ y ) dy (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) t ⳱1 t ⳱1

冱

冱

TE

which deﬁnes duration as

D⳱

T

tC

冱 (1 Ⳮ ty )t 冫 P

(1.21)

(1.22)

t ⳱1

The economic interpretation of duration is that it represents the average time to wait for each payment, weighted by the present value of the associated cash ﬂow. Indeed, we can write T

D⳱

冱

t ⳱1

t

T Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t ⳱ t ⫻ wt 冱 Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t t ⳱1

冱

(1.23)

where the weights w represent the ratio of the present value of cash ﬂow Ct relative to the total, and sum to unity. This explains why the duration of a zero-coupon bond is equal to the maturity. There is only one cash ﬂow, and its weight is one. Figure 1-4 lays out the present value of the cash ﬂows of a 6% coupon, 10-year bond. Given a duration of 7.80 years, this coupon-paying bond is equivalent to a zerocoupon bond maturing in exactly 7.80 years.

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FIGURE 1-4 Duration as the Maturity of a Zero-Coupon Bond

100

Present value of payments

90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 0

1

2

3 4 5 6 7 8 Time to payment (years)

9

10

For coupon-paying bonds, duration lies between zero and the maturity of the bond. For instance, Figure 1-5 shows how the duration of a 10-year bond varies with its coupon. With a zero coupon, Macaulay duration is equal to maturity. Higher coupons place more weight on prior payments and therefore reduce duration. FIGURE 1-5 Duration and Coupon

10

Duration

9 8

10-year maturity

7 6 5

5-year maturity

4 3 2 1 0 0

2

4

6

8

10 12 Coupon

14

16

18

20

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS Duration can be expressed in a simple form for consols. From Equation (1.7), we

have P ⳱ (c 冫 y )F . Taking the derivative, we ﬁnd dP DC (⫺1) 1 c 1 P ⳱ cF 2 ⳱ (⫺1) [ F ] ⳱ (⫺1) P ⳱ ⫺ dy y y y (1 Ⳮ y ) y

(1.24)

Hence the Macaulay duration for the consol DC is DC ⳱

(1 Ⳮ y ) y

(1.25)

This shows that the duration of a consol is ﬁnite even if its maturity is inﬁnite. Also, it does not depend on the coupon. This formula provides a useful rule of thumb. For a long-term coupon-paying bond, duration must be lower than (1 Ⳮ y )冫 y . For instance, when y ⳱ 6%, the upper limit on duration is DC ⳱ 1.06冫 0.06, or approximately 17.5 years. In this environment, the duration of a par 30-year bond is 14.25, which is indeed lower than 17.5 years. Key concept: The duration of a long-term bond can be approximated by an upper bound, which is that of a consol with the same yield, DC ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y )冫 y. Figure 1-6 describes the relationship between duration, maturity, and coupon for regular bonds in a 6% yield environment. For the zero-coupon bond, D ⳱ T , which is a straight line going through the origin. For the par 6% bond, duration increases monotonically with maturity until it reaches the asymptote of DC . The 8% bond has lower duration than the 6% bond for ﬁxed T . Greater coupons, for a ﬁxed maturity, decrease duration, as more of the payments come early. Finally, the 2% bond displays a pattern intermediate between the zero-coupon and 6% bonds. It initially behaves like the zero, exceeding DC initially then falling back to the asymptote, which is common for all coupon-paying bonds. Taking now the second derivative in Equation (1.5), we have T d2P t (t Ⳮ 1)Ct ⳱ ⳱ 2 dy (1 Ⳮ y )tⳭ2 t ⳱1

冱

T

t (t Ⳮ 1)C

冱 (1 Ⳮ y )tⳭ2t

t ⳱1

冫

P ⫻P

(1.26)

which deﬁnes convexity as T

C⳱

t (t Ⳮ 1)C

冱 (1 Ⳮ y )tⳭ2t

t ⳱1

冫

P

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(1.27)

CHAPTER 1.

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FIGURE 1-6 Duration and Maturity Duration (years) Zero coupon (1+y) y 20

2% coupon 6%

15

8% coupon 10

5

0 0

20

40 60 Maturity (years)

80

100

Convexity can also be written as T

C⳱

T t (t Ⳮ 1) Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t t (t Ⳮ 1) ⳱ ⫻ ⫻ wt t 2 冱 Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )2 t ⳱1 t ⳱1

冱

冱

(1.28)

which basically involves a weighted average of the square of time. Therefore, convexity is much greater for long-maturity bonds because they have payoffs associated with large values of t . The formula also shows that convexity is always positive for such bonds, implying that the curvature effect is beneﬁcial. As we will see later, convexity can be negative for bonds that have uncertain cash ﬂows, such as mortgage-backed securities (MBSs) or callable bonds. Figure 1-7 displays the behavior of convexity, comparing a zero-coupon bond with a 6 percent coupon bond with identical maturities. The zero-coupon bond always has greater convexity, because there is only one cash ﬂow at maturity. Its convexity is roughly the square of maturity, for example about 900 for the 30-year zero. In contrast, the 30-year coupon bond has a convexity of about 300 only. As an illustration, Table 1-2 details the steps of the computation of duration and convexity for a two-year, 6 percent semiannual coupon-paying bond. We ﬁrst convert

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

FIGURE 1-7 Convexity and Maturity

Convexity (year-squared) 1000 900 800 700 600 500 400

Zero coupon

300 200

6% coupon

100 0 0

5

10

15 20 Maturity (years)

25

30

TABLE 1-2 Computing Duration and Convexity Period (half-year) t 1 2 3 4 Sum: (half-years) (years) Modiﬁed duration Convexity

Payment Ct 3 3 3 103

Yield (%) (6 mo) 3.00 3.00 3.00 3.00

P V of Payment Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t 2.913 2.828 2.745 91.514 100.00

Duration Term tP Vt 2.913 5.656 8.236 366.057 382.861 3.83 1.91 1.86

Convexity Term t (t Ⳮ 1)P Vt 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )2 5.491 15.993 31.054 1725.218 1777.755 17.78

4.44

the annual coupon and yield into semiannual equivalent, $3 and 3 percent each. The P V column then reports the present value of each cash ﬂow. We verify that these add up to $100, since the bond must be selling at par. Next, the duration term column multiplies each P V term by time, or more precisely the number of half years until payment. This adds up to $382.86, which divided

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by the price gives D ⳱ 3.83. This number is measured in half years, and we need to divide by two to convert to years. Macaulay duration is 1.91 years, and modiﬁed duration D ⴱ ⳱ 1.91冫 1.03 ⳱ 1.86 years. Note that, to be consistent, the adjustment in the denominator involves the semiannual yield of 3%. Finally, the right-most column shows how to compute the bond’s convexity. Each term involves P Vt times t (t Ⳮ 1)冫 (1 Ⳮ y )2 . These terms sum to 1,777.755, or divided by the price, 17.78. This number is expressed in units of time squared and must be divided by 4 to be converted in annual terms. We ﬁnd a convexity of C ⳱ 4.44, in year-squared. Example 1-9: FRM Exam 2001----Question 71 1-9. Calculate the modiﬁed duration of a bond with a Macauley duration of 13.083 years. Assume market interest rates are 11.5% and the coupon on the bond is paid semiannually. a) 13.083 b) 12.732 c) 12.459 d) 12.371 Example 1-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 66 1-10. Calculate the duration of a two-year bond paying a annual coupon of 6% with yield to maturity of 8%. Assume par value of the bond to be $1,000. a) 2.00 years b) 1.94 years c) 1.87 years d) 1.76 years Example 1-11: FRM Exam 1998----Question 29/Quant. Analysis 1-11. A and B are two perpetual bonds, that is, their maturities are inﬁnite. A has a coupon of 4% and B has a coupon of 8%. Assuming that both are trading at the same yield, what can be said about the duration of these bonds? a) The duration of A is greater than the duration of B. b) The duration of A is less than the duration of B. c) A and B both have the same duration. d) None of the above.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Example 1-12: FRM Exam 1997----Question 24/Market Risk 1-12. Which of the following is not a property of bond duration? a) For zero-coupon bonds, Macaulay duration of the bond equals its years to maturity. b) Duration is usually inversely related to the coupon of a bond. c) Duration is usually higher for higher yields to maturity. d) Duration is higher as the number of years to maturity for a bond. selling at par or above increases.

Example 1-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 75/Market Risk 1-13. Suppose that your book has an unusually large short position in two investment grade bonds with similar credit risk. Bond A is priced at par yielding 6.0% with 20 years to maturity. Bond B also matures in 20 years with a coupon of 6.5% and yield of 6%. If risk is deﬁned as a sudden and large drop in interest rate, which bond contributes greater market risk to the portfolio? a) Bond A. b) Bond B. c) Both bond A and bond B will have similar market risk. d) None of the above.

Example 1-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 106/Quant. Analysis 1-14. Consider these ﬁve bonds: Bond Number Maturity (yrs) Coupon Rate Frequency Yield (ABB) 1 10 6% 1 6% 2 10 6% 2 6% 3 10 0% 1 6% 4 10 6% 1 5% 5 9 6% 1 6% How would you rank the bonds from the shortest to longest duration? a) 5-2-1-4-3 b) 1-2-3-4-5 c) 5-4-3-1-2 d) 2-4-5-1-3

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Example 1-15: FRM Exam 2001----Question 104 1-15. When the maturity of a plain coupon bond increases, its duration increases a) Indeﬁnitely and regularly b) Up to a certain level c) Indeﬁnitely and progressively d) In a way dependent on the bond being priced above or below par

1.2.5

Portfolio Duration and Convexity

Fixed-income portfolios often involve very large numbers of securities. It would be impractical to consider the movements of each security individually. Instead, portfolio managers aggregate the duration and convexity across the portfolio. A manager with a view that rates will increase, for instance, should shorten the portfolio duration relative to that of the benchmark. Say for instance that the benchmark has a duration of 5 years. The manager shortens the portfolio duration to 1 year only. If rates increase by 2 percent, the benchmark will lose approximately 5 ⫻ 2% ⳱ 10%. The portfolio, however, will only lose 1 ⫻ 2% ⳱ 2%, hence “beating” the benchmark by 8%. Because the Taylor expansion involves a summation, the portfolio duration is easily obtained from the individual components. Say we have N components indexed by i . Deﬁning Dp and Pp as the portfolio modiﬁed duration and value, the portfolio dollar duration (DD) is Dpⴱ Pp ⳱

N

冱 Diⴱ xi Pi

(1.29)

i ⳱1

where xi is the number of units of bond i in the portfolio. A similar relationship holds for the portfolio dollar convexity (DC). If yields are the same for all components, this equation also holds for the Macaulay duration. Because the portfolio total market value is simply the summation of the component market values,

N

Pp ⳱

冱 xi Pi

(1.30)

i ⳱1

we can deﬁne the portfolio weight wi as wi ⳱ xi Pi 冫 Pp , provided that the portfolio market value is nonzero. We can then write the portfolio duration as a weighted average of individual durations

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Dpⴱ ⳱

N

冱 Diⴱ wi

(1.31)

i ⳱1

Similarly, the portfolio convexity is a weighted average of individual convexity numbers N

Cp ⳱

冱 Ci wi

(1.32)

i ⳱1

As an example, consider a portfolio invested in three bonds, described in Table 1-3. The portfolio is long a 10-year and 1-year bond, and short a 30-year zero-coupon bond. Its market value is $1,301,600. Summing the duration for each component, the portfolio dollar duration is $2,953,800, which translates into 2.27 years. The portfolio convexity is ⫺76,918,323/1,301,600=⫺59.10, which is negative due to the short position in the 30-year zero, which has very high convexity. Alternatively, assume the portfolio manager is given a benchmark that is the ﬁrst bond. He or she wants to invest in bonds 1 and 2, keeping the portfolio duration equal to that of the target, or 7.44 years. To achieve the target value and dollar duration, the manager needs to solve a system of two equations in the amounts x1 and x2 :

Value: $100 ⳱x1 $94.26 Ⳮ

x2 $16.97

Dol. Duration: 7.44 ⫻ $100 ⳱ 0.97 ⫻ x1 $94.26 Ⳮ 29.13 ⫻

x2 $16.97

TABLE 1-3 Portfolio Duration and Convexity Maturity (years) Coupon Yield Price Pi Mod. duration Diⴱ Convexity Ci Number of bonds xi Dollar amounts xi Pi Weight wi Dollar duration Diⴱ Pi Portfolio DD: xi Diⴱ Pi Portfolio DC: xi Ci Pi

Bond 0 10 6% 6% $100.00 7.44 68.78 10,000 $1,000,000 76.83% $744.00 $7,440,000 68,780,000

Bond 1 1 0% 6% $94.26 0.97 1.41 5,000 $471,300 36.21% $91.43 $457,161 664,533

Bond 2 30 0% 6% $16.97 29.13 862.48 ⫺10,000 ⫺$169,700 ⫺13.04% $494.34 ⫺$4,943,361 ⫺146,362,856

Portfolio

$1,301,600 100.00% $2,953,800 ⫺76,918,323

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The solution is x1 ⳱ 0.817 and x2 ⳱ 1.354, which gives a portfolio value of $100 and modiﬁed duration of 7.44 years.5 The portfolio convexity is 199.25, higher than the index. Such a portfolio consisting of very short and very long maturities is called a barbell portfolio. In contrast, a portfolio with maturities in the same range is called a bullet portfolio. Note that the barbell portfolio has much greater convexity than the bullet bond because of the payment in 30 years. Such a portfolio would be expected to outperform the bullet portfolio if yields move by a large amount. In sum, duration and convexity are key measures of ﬁxed-income portfolios. They summarize the linear and quadratic exposure to movements in yields. As such, they are routinely used by portfolio managers. Example 1-16: FRM Exam 1998----Question 18/Quant. Analysis 1-16. A portfolio consists of two positions: One position is long $100,000 par value of a two-year bond priced at 101 with a duration of 1.7; the other position is short $50,000 of a ﬁve-year bond priced at 99 with a duration of 4.1. What is the duration of the portfolio? a) 0.68 b) 0.61 c) ⫺0.68 d) ⫺0.61 Example 1-17: FRM Exam 2000----Question 110/Quant. Analysis 1-17. Which of the following statements are true? I. The convexity of a 10-year zero-coupon bond is higher than the convexity of a 10-year, 6% bond. II. The convexity of a 10-year zero-coupon bond is higher than the convexity of a 6% bond with a duration of 10 years. III. Convexity grows proportionately with the maturity of the bond. IV. Convexity is always positive for all types of bonds. V. Convexity is always positive for “straight” bonds. a) I only b) I and II only c) I and V only d) II, III, and V only

5

This can be obtained by ﬁrst expressing x2 in the ﬁrst equation as a function of x1 and then substituting back into the second equation. This gives x2 ⳱ (100 ⫺ 94.26x1 )冫 16.97, and 744 ⳱ 91.43x1Ⳮ494.34x2 ⳱ 91.43x1Ⳮ494.34(100 ⫺ 94.26x1 )冫 16.97 ⳱ 91.43x1Ⳮ2913.00 ⫺ 2745.79x1 . Solving, we ﬁnd x1 ⳱ (⫺2169.00)冫 (⫺2654.36) ⳱ 0.817 and x2 ⳱ (100 ⫺ 94.26 ⫻ 0.817)冫 16.97 ⳱ 1.354.

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1.3

PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 1-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 17/Quant. Analysis b) This is derived from (1 Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ), or (1 Ⳮ 0.08冫 2)2 ⳱ 1.0816, which gives 8.16%. This makes sense because the annual rate must be higher due to the less frequent compounding. Example 1-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 28/Quant. Analysis a) This is derived from (1 Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2 ⳱ exp(y ), or (1 Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2 ⳱ 1.105, which gives 10.25%. This makes sense because the semiannual rate must be higher due to the less frequent compounding. Example 1-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 12/Quant. Analysis

AM FL Y

d) We need to ﬁnd y such that $4冫 (1 Ⳮ y 冫 2) Ⳮ $104冫 (1 Ⳮ y 冫 2)2 ⳱ $102.9. Solving, we ﬁnd y ⳱ 5%. (This can be computed on a HP-12C calculator, for example.) There is another method for ﬁnding y . This bond has a duration of about one year, implying that, approximately, ⌬P ⳱ ⫺1 ⫻ $100 ⫻ ⌬y . If the yield was 8%, the price would be at $100. Instead, the change in price is ⌬P ⳱ $102.9 ⫺ $100 ⳱ $2.9. Solving for ⌬y , the

TE

change in yield must be approximately ⫺3%, leading to 8 ⫺ 3 ⳱ 5%. Example 1-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 9/Quant. Analysis c) First derivatives involve modiﬁed duration and delta. Second derivatives involve convexity (for bonds) and gamma (for options). Example 1-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 17/Quant. Analysis c) This question deals with effective duration, which is obtained from full repricing of the bond with an increase and a decrease in yield. This gives a modiﬁed duration of D ⴱ ⳱ ⫺(⌬P 冫 ⌬y )冫 P ⳱ ⫺((99.95 ⫺ 100.04)冫 0.0002)冫 100 ⳱ 4.5. Example 1-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Quant. Analysis c) Since this is a par bond, the initial price is P ⳱ $100. The price impact is ⌬P ⳱ ⫺D ⴱ P ⌬y Ⳮ(1冫 2)CP (⌬y )2 ⳱ ⫺7$100(0.001)Ⳮ(1冫 2)50$100(0.001)2 ⳱ ⫺0.70Ⳮ0.0025 ⳱ ⫺0.6975. The price falls slightly less than predicted by duration alone. Example 1-7: FRM Exam 1998-Question 20/Quant. Analysis b) The initial price of the 7s is 94. The price of the 6s is 92; this lower coupon is roughly equivalent to an upmove of ⌬y ⳱ 0.01. Similarly, the price of the 8s is 96.5; this higher coupon is roughly equivalent to a downmove of ⌬y ⳱ 0.01. The effective modiﬁed duration is then D E ⳱ (P⫺ ⫺ PⳭ)冫 (2⌬yP0 ) ⳱ (96.5 ⫺ 92)冫 (2 ⫻ 0.01 ⫻ 94) ⳱ 2.394.

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Example 1-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 21/Quant. Analysis a) We compute the modiﬁed duration for an equivalent downmove in y as D⫺ ⳱ (P⫺ ⫺ P0 )冫 (⌬yP0 ) ⳱ (96.5 ⫺ 94)冫 (0.01 ⫻ 94) ⳱ 2.6596. Similarly, the modiﬁed duration for an upmove is DⳭ ⳱ (P0 ⫺ PⳭ)冫 (⌬yP0 ) ⳱ (94 ⫺ 92)冫 (0.01 ⫻ 94) ⳱ 2.1277. Convexity is C E ⳱ (D⫺ ⫺ DⳭ)冫 (⌬y ) ⳱ (2.6596 ⫺ 2.1277)冫 0.01 ⳱ 53.19. This is positive because modiﬁed duration is higher for a downmove than for an upmove in yields. Example 1-9: FRM Exam 2001-Question 71 d) Modiﬁed duration is D ⴱ ⳱ D 冫 (1 Ⳮ y 冫 200) when yields are semiannually compounded. This gives D ⴱ ⳱ 13.083冫 (1 Ⳮ 11.5冫 200) ⳱ 12.3716. Example 1-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 66 b) Using an 8% annual discount factor, we compute the present value of cash ﬂows and duration as Year

Ct

PV

t PV

1

60

55.56

55.55

2

1,060

908.78

1,817.56

964.33

1,873.11

Sum

Duration is 1,873.11/964.33 = 1.942 years. Note that the par value is irrelevant for the computation of duration. Example 1-11: FRM Exam 1998----Question 29/Quant. Analysis c) Going back to the duration equation for the consol, Equation (1.25), we see that it does not depend on the coupon but only on the yield. Hence, the durations must be the same. The price of bond A, however, must be half that of bond B. Example 1-12: FRM Exam 1997----Question 24/Market Risk c) Duration usually increases as the time to maturity increases (Figure 1-4), so (d) is correct. Macaulay duration is also equal to maturity for zero-coupon bonds, so (a) is correct. Figure 1-5 shows that duration decreases with the coupon, so (b) is correct. As the yield increases, the weight of the payments further into the future decreases, which decreases (not increases) the duration. So, (c) is false. Example 1-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 75/Market Risk a) Bond B has a higher coupon and hence a slightly lower duration than for bond A. Therefore, it will react less strongly than bond A to a given change in yields.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Example 1-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 106/Quant. Analysis a) The nine-year bond (number 5) has shorter duration because the maturity is shortest, at nine years, among comparable bonds. Next, we have to decide between bonds 1 and 2, which only differ in the payment frequency. The semiannual bond (number 2) has a ﬁrst payment in six months and has shorter duration than the annual bond. Next, we have to decide between bonds 1 and 4, which only differ in the yield. With lower yield, the cash ﬂows further in the future have a higher weight, so that bond 4 has greater duration. Finally, the zero-coupon bond has the longest duration. So, the order is 5-2-1-4-3. Example 1-15: FRM Exam 2001----Question 104 b) With a ﬁxed coupon, the duration goes up to the level of a consol with the same coupon. See Figure 1-6. Example 1-16: FRM Exam 1998----Question 18/Quant. Analysis d) The dollar duration of the portfolio must equal the sum of the dollar durations for the individual positions, as in Equation (1.29). First, we need to compute the market value of the bonds by multiplying the notional by the ratio of the market price to the face value. This gives for the ﬁrst bond $100,000 (101/100) = $101,000 and for the second $50,000 (99/100) = $49,500. The value of the portfolio is P ⳱ $101, 000 ⫺ $49, 500 ⳱ $51, 500. Next, we compute the dollar duration as $101, 000 ⫻ 1.7 ⳱ $171, 700 and ⫺$49, 500 ⫻ 4.1 ⳱ ⫺$202, 950, respectively. The total dollar duration is ⫺$31, 250. Dividing by $51.500, we ﬁnd a duration of DD 冫 P ⳱ ⫺0.61 year. Note that duration is negative due to the short position. We also ignored the denominator (1 Ⳮ y ), which cancels out from the computation anyway if the yield is the same for the two bonds. Example 1-17: FRM Exam 2000----Question 110/Quant. Analysis c) Because convexity is proportional to the square of time to payment, the convexity of a bond will be driven by the cash ﬂows far into the future. Answer I is correct because the 10-year zero has only one cash ﬂow, whereas the coupon bond has several others that reduce convexity. Answer II is false because the 6% bond with 10-year duration must have cash ﬂows much further into the future, say in 30 years, which will create greater convexity. Answer III is false because convexity grows with the square of time. Answer IV is false because some bonds, for example MBSs or callable bonds, can have negative convexity. Answer V is correct because convexity must be positive for coupon-paying bonds.

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Appendix: Applications of Inﬁnite Series When bonds have ﬁxed coupons, the bond valuation problem often can be interpreted in terms of combinations of inﬁnite series. The most important inﬁnite series result is for a sum of terms that increase at a geometric rate: 1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ ⳱

1 1⫺a

(1.33)

This can be proved, for instance, by multiplying both sides by (1 ⫺ a) and canceling out terms. Equally important, consider a geometric series with a ﬁnite number of terms, say N . We can write this as the difference between two inﬁnite series: 1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ aN ⫺1 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈) ⫺ aN (1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈) (1.34) such that all terms with order N or higher will cancel each other. We can then write 1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ aN ⫺1 ⳱

1 1 ⫺ aN 1⫺a 1⫺a

(1.35)

These formulas are essential to value bonds. Consider ﬁrst a consol with an inﬁnite number of coupon payments with a ﬁxed coupon rate c . If the yield is y and the face value F , the value of the bond is P ⳱ cF

冋

1 1 1 Ⳮ Ⳮ Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ 2 (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )3

⳱ cF

1 [1 Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈] (1 Ⳮ y )

⳱ cF

1 1 (1 Ⳮ y ) 1 ⫺ a

⳱ cF

1 1 (1 Ⳮ y ) 1 ⫺ (1冫 (1 Ⳮ y ))

⳱ cF

1 (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) y

⳱

冋 冋 冋

册

册

册

册

c F y

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS Similarly, we can value a bond with a ﬁnite number of coupons over T periods at

which time the principal is repaid. This is really a portfolio with three parts: (1) A long position in a consol with coupon rate c (2) A short position in a consol with coupon rate c that starts in T periods (3) A long position in a zero-coupon bond that pays F in T periods Note that the combination of (1) and (2) ensures that we have a ﬁnite number of coupons. Hence, the bond price should be P⳱

冋

册

1 1 1 1 c c c F⫺ FⳭ F ⳱ F 1⫺ F Ⳮ y y (1 Ⳮ y )T y (1 Ⳮ y )T (1 Ⳮ y )T (1 Ⳮ y )T

(1.36)

where again the formula can be adjusted for different compounding methods. This is useful for a number of purposes. For instance, when c ⳱ y , it is immediately obvious that the price must be at par, P ⳱ F . This formula also can be used to ﬁnd closed-form solutions for duration and convexity.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 2 Fundamentals of Probability The preceding chapter has laid out the foundations for understanding how bond prices move in relation to yields. Next, we have to characterize movements in bond yields or, more generally, any relevant risk factor in ﬁnancial markets. This is done with the tools of probability, a mathematical abstraction that describes the distribution of risk factors. Each risk factor is viewed as a random variable whose properties are described by a probability distribution function. These distributions can be processed with the price-yield relationship to create a distribution of the proﬁt and loss proﬁle for the trading portfolio. This chapter reviews the fundamental tools of probability theory for risk managers. Section 2.1 lays out the foundations, characterizing random variables by their probability density and distribution functions. These functions can be described by their principal moments, mean, variance, skewness, and kurtosis. Distributions with multiple variables are described in Section 2.2. Section 2.3 then turns to functions of random variables. Finally, Section 2.4 presents some examples of important distribution functions for risk management, including the uniform, normal, lognormal, Student’s, and binomial.

2.1

Characterizing Random Variables

The classical approach to probability is based on the concept of the random variable. This can be viewed as the outcome from throwing a die, for example. Each realization is generated from a ﬁxed process. If the die is perfectly symmetric, we could say that the probability of observing a face with a six in one throw is p ⳱ 1冫 6. Although the event itself is random, we can still make a number of useful statements from a ﬁxed data-generating process. The same approach can be taken to ﬁnancial markets, where stock prices, exchange rates, yields, and commodity prices can be viewed as random variables. The

31

32

PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

assumption of a ﬁxed data-generating process for these variables, however, is more tenuous than for the preceding experiment.

2.1.1

Univariate Distribution Functions

A random variable X is characterized by a distribution function, F (x) ⳱ P (X ⱕ x)

(2.1)

which is the probability that the realization of the random variable X ends up less than or equal to the given number x. This is also called a cumulative distribution function. When the variable X takes discrete values, this distribution is obtained by summing the step values less than or equal to x. That is, F (x) ⳱

冱 f (xj )

(2.2)

xj ⱕ x

where the function f (x) is called the frequency function or the probability density function (p.d.f.). This is the probability of observing x. When the variable is continuous, the distribution is given by F (x) ⳱

冮

x

⫺⬁

f (u)du

(2.3)

The density can be obtained from the distribution using f (x) ⳱

dF (x) dx

(2.4)

Often, the random variable will be described interchangeably by its distribution or its density. These functions have notable properties. The density f (u) must be positive for all u. As x tends to inﬁnity, the distribution tends to unity as it represents the total probability of any draw for x:

冮

⬁

⫺⬁

f (u)du ⳱ 1

(2.5)

Figure 2-1 gives an example of a density function f (x), on the top panel, and of a cumulative distribution function F (x) on the bottom panel. F (x) measures the area under the f (x) curve to the left of x, which is represented by the shaded area. Here, this area is 0.24. For small values of x, F (x) is close to zero. Conversely, for large values of x, F (x) is close to unity.

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FIGURE 2-1 Density and Distribution Functions

Probability density function

f(x)

Cumulative distribution function 1

F(x) 0

x

Example: Density functions A gambler wants to characterize the probability density function of the outcomes from a pair of dice. Out of 36 possible throws, we can have one occurrence of an outcome of two (each die showing one). We can have two occurrences of a three (a one and a two and vice versa), and so on. The gambler builds the frequency table for each value, from 2 to 12. From this, he or she can compute the probability of each outcome. For instance, the probability of observing three is equal to 2, the frequency n(x), divided by the total number of outcomes, of 36, which gives 0.0556. We can verify that all the probabilities indeed add up to one, since all occurrences must be accounted for. From the table, we see that the probability of an outcome of 3 or less is 8.33%.

2.1.2

Moments

A random variable is characterized by its distribution function. Instead of having to report the whole function, it is convenient to focus on a few parameters of interest.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS TABLE 2-1 Probability Density Function Outcome xi 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Sum

Frequency n(x) 1 2 3 4 5 6 5 4 3 2 1 36

Probability f (x) 0.0278 0.0556 0.0833 0.1111 0.1389 0.1667 0.1389 0.1111 0.0833 0.0556 0.0278 1.0000

Cumulative Probability F (x) 0.0278 0.0833 0.1667 0.2778 0.4167 0.5833 0.7222 0.8333 0.9167 0.9722 1.0000

It is useful to describe the distribution by its moments. For instance, the expected value for x, or mean, is given by the integral µ ⳱ E (X ) ⳱

冮

Ⳮ⬁

⫺⬁

xf (x)dx

(2.6)

which measures the central tendency, or center of gravity of the population. The distribution can also be described by its quantile, which is the cutoff point x with an associated probability c : F (x) ⳱

冮

x

⫺⬁

f (u)du ⳱ c

(2.7)

So, there is a probability of c that the random variable will fall below x. Because the total probability adds up to one, there is a probability of p ⳱ 1 ⫺ c that the random variable will fall above x. Deﬁne this quantile as Q(X, c ). The 50% quantile is known as the median. In fact, value at risk (VAR) can be interpreted as the cutoff point such that a loss will not happen with probability greater than p ⳱ 95% percent, say. If f (u) is the distribution of proﬁt and losses on the portfolio, VAR is deﬁned from F (x) ⳱

冮

x

⫺⬁

f (u)du ⳱ (1 ⫺ p)

(2.8)

where p is the right-tail probability, and c the usual left-tail probability. VAR can then be deﬁned as the deviation between the expected value and the quantile, VAR(c ) ⳱ E (X ) ⫺ Q(X, c )

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Figure 2-2 shows an example with c ⳱ 5%. FIGURE 2-2 VAR as a Quantile

Probability density function f(x)

VAR 5% Cumulative distribution function F(x)

5% Another useful moment is the squared dispersion around the mean, or variance, which is σ 2 ⳱ V (X ) ⳱

冮

Ⳮ⬁

⫺⬁

[x ⫺ E (X )]2 f (x)dx

(2.10)

The standard deviation is more convenient to use as it has the same units as the original variable X SD(X ) ⳱ σ ⳱ 冪V (X )

(2.11)

Next, the scaled third moment is the skewness, which describes departures from symmetry. It is deﬁned as γ⳱

冢冮

Ⳮ⬁

⫺⬁

冣冫

[x ⫺ E (X )]3 f (x)dx

σ3

(2.12)

Negative skewness indicates that the distribution has a long left tail, which indicates a high probability of observing large negative values. If this represents the distribution of proﬁts and losses for a portfolio, this is a dangerous situation. Figure 2-3 displays distributions with various signs for the skewness.

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FIGURE 2-3 Effect of Skewness

Probability density function Zero skewness

Positive skewness

AM FL Y

Negative skewness

The scaled fourth moment is the kurtosis, which describes the degree of “ﬂatness” of a distribution, or width of its tails. It is deﬁned as

冢冮

Ⳮ⬁

TE δ⳱

⫺⬁

冣冫

[x ⫺ E (X )]4 f (x)dx

σ4

(2.13)

Because of the fourth power, large observations in the tail will have a large weight and hence create large kurtosis. Such a distribution is called leptokurtic, or fat-tailed. This parameter is very important for risk measurement. A kurtosis of 3 is considered average. High kurtosis indicates a higher probability of extreme movements. Figure 2-4 displays distributions with various values for the kurtosis.

Example: Computing moments Our gambler wants to know the expected value of the outcome of throwing two dice. He or she computes the product of the probability and outcome. For instance, the ﬁrst entry is xf (x) ⳱ 2 ⫻ 0.0278 ⳱ 0.0556, and so on. Summing across all events, this gives the mean as µ ⳱ 7.000. This is also the median, since the distribution is perfectly symmetric. Next, the variance terms sum to 5.8333, for a standard deviation of σ ⳱ 2.4152. The skewness terms sum to zero, because for each entry with a positive deviation (x ⫺ µ )3 , there is an identical one with a negative sign and with the same probability.

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FIGURE 2-4 Effect of Kurtosis

Probability density function

Thin tails (kurtosis3)

Finally, the kurtosis terms (x ⫺ µ )4 f (x) sum to 80.5. Dividing by σ 4 , this gives a kurtosis of δ ⳱ 2.3657.

2.2

Multivariate Distribution Functions

In practice, portfolio payoffs depend on numerous random variables. To simplify, start with two random variables. This could represent two currencies, or two interest rate factors, or default and credit exposure, to give just a few examples. We can extend Equation (2.1) to F12 (x1 , x2 ) ⳱ P (X1 ⱕ x1 , X2 ⱕ x2 )

(2.14)

which deﬁnes a joint bivariate distribution function. In the continuous case, this is also

F12 (x1 , x2 ) ⳱

x1

冮 冮

x2

⫺⬁ ⫺⬁

f12 (u1 , u2 )du1 du2

(2.15)

where f (u1 , u2 ) is now the joint density. In general, adding random variables considerably complicates the characterization of the density or distribution functions. The analysis simpliﬁes considerably if the variables are independent. In this case, the joint density separates out into the product of the densities: f12 (u1 u2 ) ⳱ f1 (u1 ) ⫻ f2 (u2 )

(2.16)

F12 (x1 , x2 ) ⳱ F1 (x1 ) ⫻ F2 (x2 )

(2.17)

and the integral reduces to

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS TABLE 2-2 Computing Moments of a Distribution Outcome xi 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Sum Denominator

Prob. f (x) 0.0278 0.0556 0.0833 0.1111 0.1389 0.1667 0.1389 0.1111 0.0833 0.0556 0.0278 1.0000

Mean xf (x) 0.0556 0.1667 0.3333 0.5556 0.8333 1.1667 1.1111 1.0000 0.8333 0.6111 0.3333 7.0000

Variance (x ⫺ µ )2 f (x) 0.6944 0.8889 0.7500 0.4444 0.1389 0.0000 0.1389 0.4444 0.7500 0.8889 0.6944 5.8333

Mean 7.0000

StdDev 2.4152

Skewness (x ⫺ µ )3 f (x) -3.4722 -3.5556 -2.2500 -0.8889 -0.1389 0.0000 0.1389 0.8889 2.2500 3.5556 3.4722 0.0000 14.0888 Skewness 0.0000

Kurtosis (x ⫺ µ )4 f (x) 17.3611 14.2222 6.7500 1.7778 0.1389 0.0000 0.1389 1.7778 6.7500 14.2222 17.3611 80.5000 34.0278 Kurtosis 2.3657

In other words, the joint probability reduces to the product of the probabilities. This is very convenient because we only need to know the individual densities to reconstruct the joint density. For example, a credit loss can be viewed as a combination of (1) default, which is a random variable with a value of one for default and zero otherwise, and (2) the exposure, which is a random variable representing the amount at risk, for instance the positive market value of a swap. If the two variables are independent, we can construct the distribution of the credit loss easily. In the case of the two dice, the probability of a joint event is simply the product of probabilities. For instance, the probability of throwing two ones is equal to 1冫 6 ⫻ 1冫 6 ⳱ 1冫 36. It is also useful to characterize the distribution of x1 abstracting from x2 . By integrating over all values of x2 , we obtain the marginal density f1 (x1 ) ⳱

冮

⬁

⫺⬁

f12 (x1 , u2 )du2

and similarly for x2 . We can then deﬁne the conditional density as f (x , x ) f1⭈2 (x1 兩 x2 ) ⳱ 12 1 2 f2 (x2 )

(2.18)

(2.19)

Here, we keep x2 ﬁxed and divide the joint density by the marginal probability of observing x2 . This normalization is necessary to ensure that the conditional density is a proper density function that integrates to one. This relationship is also known as Bayes’ rule.

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When dealing with two random variables, the comovement can be described by the covariance Cov(X1 , X2 ) ⳱ σ12 ⳱

冮 冮 [x 1 2

1

⫺ E (X1 )][x2 ⫺ E (X2 )]f12 (x1 , x2 )dx1 dx2

(2.20)

It is often useful to scale the covariance into a unitless number, called the correlation coefﬁcient, obtained as ρ (X1 , X2 ) ⳱

Cov(X1 , X2 ) σ1 σ2

(2.21)

The correlation coefﬁcient is a measure of linear dependence. One can show that the correlation coefﬁcient always lies in the [⫺1, Ⳮ1] interval. A correlation of one means that the two variables always move in the same direction. A correlation of minus one means that the two variables always move in opposite direction. If the variables are independent, the joint density separates out and this becomes Cov(X1 , X2 ) ⳱

冦 冮 [x 1

1

⫺ E (X1 )]f1 (x1 )dx1

冧 冦 冮 [x 2

2

冧

⫺ E (X2 )]f2 (x2 )dx2 ⳱ 0,

by Equation (2.6), since the average deviation from the mean is zero. In this case, the two variables are said to be uncorrelated. Hence independence implies zero correlation (the reverse is not true, however).

Example: Multivariate functions Consider two variables, such as the Canadian dollar and the euro. Table 2-3a describes the joint density function f12 (x1 , x2 ), assuming two payoffs only for each variable. TABLE 2-3a Joint Density Function x1 x2 –10 +10

–5

+5

0.30 0.20

0.15 0.35

From this, we can compute the marginal densities, the mean and standard deviation of each variable. For instance, the marginal probability of x1 ⳱ ⫺5 is given by f1 (x1 ) ⳱ f12 (x1 , x2 ⳱ ⫺10) Ⳮ f12 (x1 , x2 ⳱ Ⳮ10) ⳱ 0.30 Ⳮ 0.20 ⳱ 0.50. Table 2-3b shows that the mean and standard deviations are x1 ⳱ 0.0, σ1 ⳱ 5.0, x1 ⳱ 1.0, σ2 ⳱ 9.95. Finally, Table 2-3c details the computation of the covariance, which gives Cov ⳱ 15.00. Dividing by the product of the standard deviations, we get ρ ⳱ Cov冫 (σ1 σ2 ) ⳱ 15.00冫 (5.00 ⫻ 9.95) ⳱ 0.30. The positive correlation indicates that when one variable goes up, the other is more likely to go up than down.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS TABLE 2-3b Marginal Density Functions

Prob. x1 f1 (x1 ) 0.50 ⫺5 0.50 Ⳮ5 Sum 1.00

Variable 1 Mean Variance x1 f1 (x1 ) (x1 ⫺ x1 )2 f1 (x1 ) 12.5 ⫺2.5 12.5 Ⳮ2.5 0.0 25.0 x1 ⳱ 0.0 σ1 ⳱ 5.0

Prob. x2 f2 (x2 ) 0.45 ⫺10 0.55 Ⳮ10 1.00

Variable 2 Mean Variance x2 f2 (x2 ) (x2 ⫺ x2 )2 f2 (x2 ) 54.45 ⫺4.5 44.55 Ⳮ5.5 1.0 99.0 x2 ⳱ 1.0 σ2 ⳱ 9.95

TABLE 2-3c Covariance and Correlation

x2 ⳱–10 x2 ⳱+10 Sum

(x1 ⫺ x1 )(x2 ⫺ x2 )f12 (x1 , x2 ) x1 ⳱–5 x1 ⳱+5 (-5-0)(-10-1)0.30=16.50 (+5-0)(-10-1)0.15=-8.25 (-5-0)(+10-1)0.20=-9.00 (+5-0)(+10-1)0.35=15.75 Cov=15.00

Example 2-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 21/Quant. Analysis 2-1. The covariance between variable A and variable B is 5. The correlation between A and B is 0.5. If the variance of A is 12, what is the variance of B? a) 10.00 b) 2.89 c) 8.33 d) 14.40 Example 2-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 81/Market Risk 2-2. Which one of the following statements about the correlation coefﬁcient is false? a) It always ranges from ⫺1 to Ⳮ1. b) A correlation coefﬁcient of zero means that two random variables are independent. c) It is a measure of linear relationship between two random variables. d) It can be calculated by scaling the covariance between two random variables.

2.3

Functions of Random Variables

Risk management is about uncovering the distribution of portfolio values. Consider a security that depends on a unique source of risk, such as a bond. The risk manager could model the change in the bond price as a random variable directly. The problem with this choice is that the distribution of the bond price is not stationary, because

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the price converges to the face value at expiration. Instead, the practice is to model changes in yields as random variables because their distribution is better behaved. The next step is to characterize the distribution of the bond price, which is a nonlinear function of the yield. A similar issue occurs for an option-trading desk, which contains many different positions all dependent on the value of the underlying asset, in a highly nonlinear fashion. More generally, the portfolio contains assets that depend on many sources of risk. The risk manager would like to describe the distribution of portfolio values from information about the instruments and the joint density of all the random variables. Generally, the approach consists of integrating the joint density function over the appropriate space. This is no easy matter, unfortunately. We ﬁrst focus on simple transformations, for which we provide expressions for the mean and variance.

2.3.1

Linear Transformation of Random Variables

Consider a transformation that multiplies the original random variable by a constant and add a ﬁxed amount, Y ⳱ a Ⳮ bX . The expectation of Y is E (a Ⳮ bX ) ⳱ a Ⳮ bE (X )

(2.22)

V (a Ⳮ bX ) ⳱ b2 V (X )

(2.23)

and its variance is

Note that adding a constant never affects the variance since the computation involves the difference between the variable and its mean. The standard deviation is SD(a Ⳮ bX ) ⳱ bSD(X )

(2.24)

Example: Currency position plus cash Consider the distribution of the dollar/yen exchange rate X , which is the price of one Japanese yen. We wish to ﬁnd the distribution of a portfolio with $1 million in cash plus 1,000 million worth of Japanese yen. The portfolio value can be written as Y ⳱ a Ⳮ bX , with ﬁxed parameters (in millions) a ⳱ $1 and b ⳱ Y 1, 000. Therefore, if the expectation of the exchange rate is E (X ) ⳱ 1冫 100, with a standard deviation of SD(X ) ⳱ 0.10冫 100 ⳱ 0.001, the portfolio expected value is E (Y ) ⳱ $1 Ⳮ Y 1, 000 ⫻ 1冫 100 ⳱ $11 million, and the standard deviation is SD(Y ) ⳱ Y 1, 000 ⫻ 0.001 ⳱ $1 million.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

2.3.2

Sum of Random Variables

Another useful transformation is the summation of two random variables. A portfolio, for instance, could contain one share of Intel plus one share of Microsoft. Each stock price behaves as a random variable. The expectation of the sum Y ⳱ X1 Ⳮ X2 can be written as E (X1 Ⳮ X2 ) ⳱ E (X1 ) Ⳮ E (X2 )

(2.25)

V (X1 Ⳮ X2 ) ⳱ V (X1 ) Ⳮ V (X2 ) Ⳮ 2Cov(X1 , X2 )

(2.26)

and its variance is When the variables are uncorrelated, the variance of the sum reduces to the sum of variances. Otherwise, we have to account for the cross-product term. Key concept: The expectation of a sum is the sum of expectations. The variance of a sum, however, is only the sum of variances if the variables are uncorrelated.

2.3.3

Portfolios of Random Variables

More generally, consider a linear combination of a number of random variables. This could be a portfolio with ﬁxed weights, for which the rate of return is N

Y ⳱

冱 wi Xi

(2.27)

i ⳱1

where N is the number of assets, Xi is the rate of return on asset i , and wi its weight. To shorten notation, this can be written in matrix notation, replacing a string of numbers by a single vector: Y ⳱ w1 X1 Ⳮ w2 X2 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ wN XN

X1 X2 ⳱ [w1 w2 . . . wN ] . ⳱ w ⬘X ..

(2.28)

XN where w ⬘ represents the transposed vector (i.e., horizontal) of weights and X is the vertical vector containing individual asset returns. The appendix for this chapter provides a brief review of matrix multiplication. The portfolio expected return is now N

E(Y ) ⳱ µp ⳱

冱 wi µi i ⳱1

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which is a weighted average of the expected returns µi ⳱ E (Xi ). The variance is V (Y ) ⳱ σp2 ⳱

N

N

N

冱 wi2σi2 Ⳮ 冱 冱 i ⳱1

N

wi wj σij ⳱

i ⳱1 j ⳱1,j 苷i

N

N

冱 wi2σi2 Ⳮ 2 冱冱 wi wj σij

(2.30)

i ⳱1 j ⬍i

i ⳱1

Using matrix notation, the variance can be written as σp2 ⳱ [w1 . . . wN ]

σ11 .. .

σ12

σ13

...

σ1N

w1 .. .

σN 1

σN 2

σN 3

...

σN

wN

Deﬁning ⌺ as the covariance matrix, the variance of the portfolio rate of return can be written more compactly as σp2 ⳱ w ⬘⌺w

(2.31)

This is a useful expression to describe the risk of the total portfolio.

Example: Computing the risk of a portfolio Consider a portfolio invested in Canadian dollars and euros. The joint density function is given by Table 2-3a. Here, x1 describes the payoff on the Canadian dollar, with µ1 ⳱ 0.00 and σ1 ⳱ 5.00. For the euro, µ2 ⳱ 1.00 and σ1 ⳱ 9.95. The covariance was computed as σ12 ⳱ 15.00, with the correlation ρ ⳱ 0.30. If we have 60% invested in Canadian dollar and 40% in euros, what is the portfolio volatility? Following Equation (2.31), we write σp2 ⳱ [0.60 0.40]

冋

25.00 15.00

册冋 册

冋

册

15.00 0.60 21.00 ⳱ [0.60 0.40] ⳱ 32.04 99.00 0.40 48.60

Therefore, the portfolio volatility is σp ⳱ 5.66. Note that this is hardly higher than the volatility of the Canadian dollar alone, even though the risk of the euro is much higher. The portfolio risk has been kept low due to diversiﬁcation effects. Keeping the same data but reducing ρ to ⫺0.5 reduces the portfolio volatility even further, to σp ⳱ 3.59.

2.3.4

Product of Random Variables

Some risks result from the product of two random variables. A credit loss, for instance, arises from the product of the occurrence of default and the loss given default. Using Equation (2.20), the expectation of the product Y ⳱ X1 X2 can be written as E (X1 X2 ) ⳱ E (X1 )E (X2 ) Ⳮ Cov(X1 , X2 )

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

When the variables are independent, this reduces to the product of the means. The variance is more complex to evaluate. With independence, it reduces to V (X1 X2 ) ⳱ E (X1 )2 V (X2 ) Ⳮ V (X1 )E (X2 )2 Ⳮ V (X1 )V (X2 )

2.3.5

(2.33)

Distributions of Transformations

of Random Variables The preceding results focus on the mean and variance of simple transformations only. They say nothing about the distribution of the transformed variable Y ⳱ g (X ) itself. The derivation of the density function of Y , unfortunately, is usually complicated for all but the simplest transformations g (⭈) and densities f (X ). Even if there is no closed-form solution for the density, we can describe the cumulative distribution function of Y when g (X ) is a one-to-one transformation from X into Y , that is can be inverted. We can then write P [Y ⱕ y ] ⳱ P [g (X ) ⱕ y ] ⳱ P [X ⱕ g ⫺1 (y )] ⳱ FX (g ⫺1 (y ))

(2.34)

where F (⭈) is the cumulative distribution function of X . Here, we assumed the relationship is positive. Otherwise, the right-hand term is changed to 1 ⫺ FX (g ⫺1 (y )). This allows us to derive the quantile of, say, the bond price from information about the distribution of the yield. Suppose we consider a zero-coupon bond, for which the market value V is V ⳱

100 (1 Ⳮ r )T

(2.35)

where r is the yield. This equation describes V as a function of r , or Y ⳱ g (X ). Using r ⳱ 6% and T ⳱ 30 years, this gives the current price V ⳱ $17.41. The inverse function X ⳱ g ⫺1 (Y ) is r ⳱ (100冫 V )1冫 T ⫺ 1

(2.36)

We wish to estimate the probability that the bond price could fall below $15. Using Equation (2.34), we ﬁrst invert the transformation and compute the associated yield level, g ⫺1 (y ) ⳱ (100冫 $15)1冫 T ⫺ 1 ⳱ 6.528%. The probability is given by P [Y ⱕ $15] ⳱ FX [r ⱖ 6.528%]

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FIGURE 2-5 Density Function for the Bond Price

Probability density function

$5

$10

$15 $20 Bond price

$25

$30

$35

Assuming the yield change is normal with volatility 0.8%, this gives a probability of 25.5 percent.1 Even though we do not know the density of the bond price, this method allows us to trace out its cumulative distribution by changing the cutoff price of $15. Taking the derivative, we can recover the density function of the bond price. Figure 2-3 shows that this p.d.f. is skewed to the right. Indeed the bond price can take large values if the yield falls to small values, yet cannot turn negative. On the extreme right, if the yield falls to zero, the bond price will go to $100. On the extreme left, if the yield goes to inﬁnity, the bond price will fall to, but not go below, zero. Relative to the initial value of $15, there is a greater likelihood of large movements up than down. This method, unfortunately, cannot be easily extended. For general densities, transformations, and numbers of random variables, risk managers need to turn to numerical methods. This is why credit risk models, for instance, all describe the distribution of credit losses through simulations.

We shall see later that this is obtained from the standard normal variable z ⳱ (6.528 ⫺ 6.000)冫 0.80 ⳱ 0.660. Using standard normal tables, or the “=NORMSDIST(⫺0.660)” Excel function, this gives 25.5%. 1

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2.4 2.4.1

Important Distribution Functions Uniform Distribution

The simplest continuous distribution function is the uniform distribution. This is deﬁned over a range of values for x, a ⱕ x ⱕ b. The density function is 1 f (x) ⳱ , a ⱕx ⱕb (b ⫺ a )

(2.38)

which is constant and indeed integrates to unity. This distribution puts the same weight on each observation within the allowable range, as shown in Figure 2-6. We denote this distribution as U (a, b). Its mean and variance are given by aⳭb 2

(2.39)

(b ⫺ a )2 12

(2.40)

AM FL Y

E (X ) ⳱ V (X ) ⳱

FIGURE 2-6 Uniform Density Function

TE

Frequency

a b Realization of the uniform random variable The uniform distribution U (0, 1) is useful as a starting point for generating random numbers in simulations. We assume that the p.d.f. f (Y ) and cumulative distribution F (Y ) are known. As any cumulative distribution function ranges from zero to unity, we can draw X from U (0, 1) and then compute y ⳱ F ⫺1 (x). As we have done in the previous section, the random variable Y will then have the desired distribution f (Y ).

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Normal Distribution

Perhaps the most important continuous distribution is the normal distribution, which represents adequately many random processes. This has a bell-like shape with more weight in the center and tails tapering off to zero. The daily rate of return in a stock price, for instance, has a distribution similar to the normal p.d.f. The normal distribution can be characterized by its ﬁrst two moments only, the mean µ and variance σ 2 . The ﬁrst parameter represents the location; the second, the dispersion. The normal density function has the following expression f (x) ⳱

1 冪2π σ 2

exp[⫺

1 (x ⫺ µ )2 ] 2σ 2

(2.41)

Its mean is E [X ] ⳱ µ and variance V [X ] ⳱ σ 2 . We denote this distribution as N (µ, σ 2 ). Instead of having to deal with different parameters, it is often more convenient to use a standard normal variable as , which has been standardized, or normalized, so that E () ⳱ 0, V () ⳱ σ () ⳱ 1. Deﬁne this as f () ⳱ ⌽(x). Figure 2-7 plots the standard normal distribution. FIGURE 2-7 Normal Density Function

Frequency 0.4

0.3 68% of the distribution is between ±1 and +1

0.2

0.1

95% is between ±2 and +2

0 –4

–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 Realization of the standard normal random variable

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS First, note that the function is symmetrical around the mean. Its mean of zero

is the same as its mode (most likely, or highest, point) and median (which has a 50 percent probability of occurrence). The skewness of a normal distribution is 0, which indicates that it is symmetric around the mean. The kurtosis of a normal distribution is 3. Distributions with fatter tails have a greater kurtosis coefﬁcient. About 95 percent of the distribution is contained between values of 1 ⳱ ⫺2 and 2 ⳱ Ⳮ2, and 68 percent of the distribution falls between values of 1 ⳱ ⫺1 and 2 ⳱ Ⳮ1. Table 2-4 gives the values that correspond to right-tail probabilities, such that

冮

⬁

⫺α

f ()d ⳱ c

(2.42)

For instance, the value of ⫺1.645 is the quantile that corresponds to a 95% probability.2 TABLE 2-4 Lower Quantiles of the Standardized Normal Distribution c Quantile (⫺α)

99.99

99.9

Conﬁdence Level (percent) 99 97.72 97.5 95

90

84.13

50

⫺3.715 ⫺3.090 ⫺2.326 ⫺2.000 ⫺1.960 ⫺1.645 ⫺1.282 ⫺1.000 ⫺0.000

The distribution of any normal variable can then be recovered from that of the standard normal, by deﬁning X ⳱ µ Ⳮ σ

(2.43)

Using Equations (2.22) and (2.23), we can show that X has indeed the desired moments, as E (X ) ⳱ µ Ⳮ E ()σ ⳱ µ and V (X ) ⳱ V ()σ 2 ⳱ σ 2 . Deﬁne, for instance, the random variable as the change in the dollar value of a portfolio. The expected value is E (X ) ⳱ µ . To ﬁnd the quantile of X at the speciﬁed conﬁdence level c , we replace by ⫺α in Equation (2.43). This gives Q(X, c ) ⳱ µ ⫺ ασ . Using Equation (2.9), we can compute VAR as VAR ⳱ E (X ) ⫺ Q(X, c ) ⳱ µ ⫺ (µ ⫺ ασ ) ⳱ ασ

(2.44)

For example, a portfolio with a standard deviation of $10 million would have a VAR, or potential downside loss, of $16.45 million at the 95% conﬁdence level. 2

More generally, the cumulative distribution can be found from the Excel function “=NORMDIST”. For example, we can verify that “=NORMSDIST(⫺1.645)” yields 0.04999, or a 5% left-tail probability.

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Key concept: With normal distributions, the VAR of a portfolio is obtained from the product of the portfolio standard deviation and a standard normal deviate factor that reﬂects the conﬁdence level, for instance 1.645 at the 95% level.

The normal distribution is extremely important because of the central limit theorem (CLT), which states that the mean of n independent and identically distributed variables converges to a normal distribution as the number of observations n increases. This very powerful result, valid for any distribution, relies heavily on the assumption of independence, however. ¯ as the mean Deﬁning X

1 n

冱 ni ⳱1 Xi , where each variable has mean µ and standard

deviation σ , we have

冢 冣 2

¯ y N µ, σ X n

(2.45)

It explains, for instance, how to diversify the credit risk of a portfolio exposed to many independent sources of risk. Thus, the normal distribution is the limiting distribution of the average, which explain why it has such a prominent place in statistics.3 Another important property of the normal distribution is that it is one of the few distributions that is stable under addition. In other words, a linear combination of jointly normally distributed random variables has a normal distribution.4 This is extremely useful because we only need to know the mean and variance of the portfolio to reconstruct its whole distribution.

Key concept: A linear combination of jointly normal variables has a normal distribution.

3

Note that the CLT deals with the mean, or center of the distribution. For risk management purposes, it is also useful to examine the tails beyond VAR. A theorem from the extreme value theory (EVT) derives the generalized Pareto as a limit distribution for the tails. 4 Strictly speaking, this is only true under either of the following conditions: (1) the univariate variables are independently distributed, or (2) the variables are multivariate normally distributed (this invariance property also holds for jointly elliptically distributed variables).

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Example 2-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 12/Quant. Analysis 2-3. For a standard normal distribution, what is the approximate area under the cumulative distribution function between the values ⫺1 and 1? a) 50% b) 68% c) 75% d) 95%

Example 2-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 11/Quant. Analysis 2-4. You are given that X and Y are random variables each of which follows a standard normal distribution with Cov(X, Y ) ⳱ 0.4. What is the variance of (5X Ⳮ 2Y )? a) 11.0 b) 29.0 c) 29.4 d) 37.0

Example 2-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 13/Quant. Analysis 2-5. What is the kurtosis of a normal distribution? a) Zero b) Cannot be determined, because it depends on the variance of the particular normal distribution considered c) Two d) Three

Example 2-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 108/Quant. Analysis 2-6. The distribution of one-year returns for a portfolio of securities is normally distributed with an expected value of ⳱ C45 million, and a standard deviation of C16 million. What is the probability that the value of the portfolio, one year ⳱ hence, will be between ⳱ C39 million and ⳱ C43 million? a) 8.6% b) 9.6% c) 10.6% d) 11.6%

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Example 2-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 16/Quant. Analysis 2-7. If a distribution with the same variance as a normal distribution has kurtosis greater than 3, which of the following is true? a) It has fatter tails than normal distribution. b) It has thinner tails than normal distribution. c) It has the same tail fatness as the normal distribution since variances are the same. d) Cannot be determined from the information provided.

2.4.3

Lognormal Distribution

The normal distribution is a good approximation for many ﬁnancial variables, such as the rate of return on a stock, r ⳱ (P1 ⫺ P0 )冫 P0 , where P0 and P1 are the stock prices at time 0 and 1. Strictly speaking, this is inconsistent with reality since a normal variable has inﬁnite tails on both sides. Due to the limited liability of corporations, stock prices cannot turn negative. This rules out returns lower than minus unity and distributions with inﬁnite left tails, such as the normal distribution. In many situations, however, this is an excellent approximation. For instance, with short horizons or small price moves, the probability of having a negative price is so small as to be negligible. If this is not the case, we need to resort to other distributions that prevent prices from going negative. One such distribution is the lognormal. A random variable X is said to have a lognormal distribution if its logarithm Y ⳱ ln(X ) is normally distributed. This is often used for continuously compounded returns, deﬁning Y ⳱ ln(P1 冫 P0 ). Because the argument X in the logarithm function must be positive, the price P1 can never go below zero. Large and negative large values of Y correspond to P1 converging to, but staying above, zero. The lognormal density function has the following expression f (x) ⳱

1 x 冪2π σ 2

冋

exp ⫺

册

1 (ln(x) ⫺ µ )2 , 2σ 2

x⬎0

(2.46)

Note that this is more complex than simply plugging ln(x) in Equation (2.41), because x also appears in the denominator. Its mean is

冋

1 E [X ] ⳱ exp µ Ⳮ σ 2 2

册

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

and variance V [X ] ⳱ exp[2µⳭ2σ 2 ]⫺exp[2µⳭσ 2 ]. The parameters were chosen to correspond to those of the normal variable, E [Y ] ⳱ E [ln(X )] ⳱ µ and V [Y ] ⳱ V [ln(X )] ⳱ σ 2 . Conversely, if we set E [X ] ⳱ exp[r ], the mean of the associated normal variable is E [Y ] ⳱ E [ln(X )] ⳱ (r ⫺ σ 2 冫 2). This adjustment is also used in the Black-Scholes option valuation model, where the formula involves a trend in (r ⫺ σ 2 冫 2) for the log-price ratio. Figure 2-8 depicts the lognormal density function with µ ⳱ 0, and various values σ ⳱ 1.0, 1.2, 0.6. Note that the distribution is skewed to the right. The tail increases for greater values of σ . This explains why as the variance increases, the mean is pulled up in Equation (2.47). We also note that the distribution of the bond price in our previous example, Equation (2.35), resembles a lognormal distribution. Using continuous compounding instead of annual compounding, the price function is V ⳱ 100 exp(⫺r T )

(2.48)

which implies ln(V 冫 100) ⳱ ⫺r T . Thus if r is normally distributed, V has a lognormal distribution.

FIGURE 2-8 Lognormal Density Function

Frequency 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5

Sigma = 1 Sigma = 1.2 Sigma = 0.6

0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 0.0

0

1

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Realization of the lognormal random variable

10

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Example 2-8: FRM Exam 2001----Question 72 2-8. The lognormal distribution is a) Positively skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Not skewed, that is, its skew equals 2 d) Not skewed, that is, its skew equals 0

Example 2-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 5/Quant. Analysis 2-9. Which of the following statements best characterizes the relationship between the normal and lognormal distributions? a) The lognormal distribution is the logarithm of the normal distribution. b) If the natural log of the random variable X is lognormally distributed, then X is normally distributed. c) If X is lognormally distributed, then the natural log of X is normally distributed. d) The two distributions have nothing to do with one another.

Example 2-10: FRM Exam 1998----Question 10/Quant. Analysis 2-10. For a lognormal variable X , we know that ln(X ) has a normal distribution with a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 0.2. What is the expected value of X ? a) 0.98 b) 1.00 c) 1.02 d) 1.20

Example 2-11: FRM Exam 1998----Question 16/Quant. Analysis 2-11. Which of the following statements are true? I. The sum of two random normal variables is also a random normal variable. II. The product of two random normal variables is also a random normal variable. III. The sum of two random lognormal variables is also a random lognormal variable. IV. The product of two random lognormal variables is also a random lognormal variable. a) I and II only b) II and III only c) III and IV only d) I and IV only

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Example 2-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 128/Quant. Analysis 2-12. For a lognormal variable X , we know that ln(X ) has a normal distribution with a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 0.5. What are the expected value and the variance of X ? a) 1.025 and 0.187 b) 1.126 and 0.217 c) 1.133 and 0.365 d) 1.203 and 0.399

2.4.4

Student’s t Distribution

Another important distribution is the Student’s t distribution. This arises in hypothesis testing, because it describes the distribution of the ratio of the estimated coefﬁcient to its standard error. This distribution is characterized by a parameter k known as the degrees of freedom. Its density is f (x) ⳱

⌫[(k Ⳮ 1)冫 2] 1 1 2 ⌫(k冫 2) 冪kπ (1 Ⳮ x 冫 k)(kⳭ1)冫 2

(2.49)

where ⌫ is the gamma function.5 As k increases, this function converges to the normal p.d.f. The distribution is symmetrical with mean zero and variance V [X ] ⳱

k k⫺2

(2.50)

δ ⳱ 3Ⳮ

6 k⫺4

(2.51)

provided k ⬎ 2. Its kurtosis is

provided k ⬎ 4. Its has fatter tails than the normal which often provides a better representation of typical ﬁnancial variables. Typical estimated values of k are around four to six. Figure 2-9 displays the density for k ⳱ 4 and k ⳱ 50. The latter is close to the normal. With k ⳱ 4, however, the p.d.f. has noticeably fatter tails. Another distribution derived from the normal is the chi-square distribution, which can be viewed as the sum of independent squared standard normal variables k

x⳱

冱 zj2

j ⳱1 5

⬁

The gamma function is deﬁned as ⌫(k) ⳱ 冮0 xk⫺1 e⫺x dx.

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FIGURE 2-9 Student’s t Density Function

Frequency

k=4 K = 50 –4

–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 Realization of the Student’s t random variable

4

where k is also called the degrees of freedom. Its mean is E [X ] ⳱ k and variance V [X ] ⳱ 2k. For k sufﬁciently large, χ 2 (k) converges to a normal distribution N (k, 2k). This distribution describes the sample variance. Finally, another associated distribution is the F distribution, which can be viewed as the ratio of independent chi-square variables divided by their degrees of freedom F (a, b) ⳱

χ 2 (a)冫 a χ 2 (b)冫 b

(2.53)

This distribution appears in joint tests of regression coefﬁcients.

Example 2-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 3/Quant. Analysis 2-13. It is often said that distributions of returns from ﬁnancial instruments are leptokurtotic. For such distributions, which of the following comparisons with a normal distribution of the same mean and variance must hold? a) The skew of the leptokurtotic distribution is greater. b) The kurtosis of the leptokurtotic distribution is greater. c) The skew of the leptokurtotic distribution is smaller. d) The kurtosis of the leptokurtotic distribution is smaller.

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2.4.5

Binomial Distribution

Consider now a random variable that can take discrete values between zero and n. This could be, for instance, the number of times VAR is exceeded over the last year, also called the number of exceptions. Thus, the binomial distribution plays an important role for the backtesting of VAR models. A binomial variable can be viewed as the result of n independent Bernoulli trials, where each trial results in an outcome of y ⳱ 0 or y ⳱ 1. This applies, for example, to credit risk. In case of default, we have y ⳱ 1, otherwise y ⳱ 0. Each Bernoulli variable has expected value of E [Y ] ⳱ p and variance V [Y ] ⳱ p(1 ⫺ p). A random variable is deﬁned to have a binomial distribution if the discrete density f (x) ⳱

冢x冣p (1 ⫺ p) n

x

n ⫺x

,

x ⳱ 0, 1, . . . , n

(2.54)

AM FL Y

function is given by

where 冸nx冹 is the number of combinations of n things taken x at a time, or

冢x冣 ⳱ x!(n ⫺ x)! n

n!

(2.55)

and the parameter p is between zero and one. This distribution also represents the

TE

total number of successes in n repeated experiments where each success has a probability of p.

The binomial variable has expected value of E [X ] ⳱ pn and variance V [X ] ⳱ p(1 ⫺ p)n. It is described in Figure 2-10 in the case where p ⳱ 0.25 and n ⳱ 10. The probability of observing X ⳱ 0, 1, 2 . . . is 5.6%, 18.8%, 28.1% and so on. FIGURE 2-10 Binomial Density Function with p ⳱ 0.25, n ⳱ 10 0.3

Frequency

0.2

0.1

0

0

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Realization of the binomial random variable

10

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For instance, we want to know what is the probability of observing x ⳱ 0 exceptions out of a sample of n ⳱ 250 observations when the true probability is 1%. We should expect to observe about 2.5 exceptions in such a sample. We have f (X ⳱ 0) ⳱

250! n! 0.010 0.99250 ⳱ 0.081 px (1 ⫺ p)n⫺x ⳱ 1 ⫻ 250! x!(n ⫺ x)!

So, we would expect to observe 8.1% of samples with zero exceptions, under the null hypothesis. Alternatively, the probability of observing 10 exception is f (X ⳱ 8) ⳱ 0.02% only. Because this probability is so low, observing 8 exceptions would make us question whether the true probability is 1%. When n is large, we can use the CLT and approximate the binomial distribution by the normal distribution z⳱

x ⫺ pn 冪p(1 ⫺ p)n

⬃ N (0, 1)

(2.56)

which provides a convenient shortcut. For our example, E [X ] ⳱ 0.01 ⫻ 250 ⳱ 2.5 and V [X ] ⳱ 0.01(1 ⫺ 0.01) ⫻ 250 ⳱ 2.475. The value of the normal variable is z ⳱ (8 ⫺ 2.5)冫 冪2.475 ⳱ 3.50, which is very high, leading us to reject the hypothesis that the true probability of observing an exception is 1% only. Example 2-14: FRM Exam 2001----Question 68 2-14. EVT, Extreme Value Theory, helps quantify two key measures of risk: a) The magnitude of an X year return in the loss in excess of VAR b) The magnitude of VAR and the level of risk obtained from scenario analysis c) The magnitude of market risk and the magnitude of operational risk d) The magnitude of market risk and the magnitude of credit risk

2.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 2-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 21/Quant. Analysis c) From Equation (2.21), we have σB ⳱ Cov(A, B )冫 (ρσA ) ⳱ 5冫 (0.5 冪12) ⳱ 2.89, for a variance of σB2 ⳱ 8.33. Example 2-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 81/Market Risk b) Correlation is a measure of linear association. Independence implies zero correlation, but the reverse is not always true.

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Example 2-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 12/Quant. Analysis b) See Figure 2-7. Example 2-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 11/Quant. Analysis d) Each variable is standardized, so that its variance is unity. Using Equation (2.26), we have V (5X Ⳮ 2Y ) ⳱ 25V (X ) Ⳮ 4V (Y ) Ⳮ 2 ⴱ 5 ⴱ 2 ⴱ Cov(X, Y ) ⳱ 25 Ⳮ 4 Ⳮ 8 ⳱ 37. Example 2-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 13/Quant. Analysis d) Note that (b) is not correct because the kurtosis involves σ 4 in the denominator and is hence scale-free. Example 2-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 108/Quant. Analysis b) First, we compute the standard variate for each cutoff point 1 ⳱ (43 ⫺ 45)冫 16 ⳱ ⫺0.125 and 2 ⳱ (39 ⫺ 45)冫 16 ⳱ ⫺0.375. Next, we compute the cumulative distribution function for each F (1 ) ⳱ 0.450 and F (2 ) ⳱ 0.354. Hence, the difference is a probability of 0.450 ⫺ 0.354 ⳱ 0.096. Example 2-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 16/Quant. Analysis a) As in Equation (2.13), the kurtosis adjusts for σ . Greater kurtosis than for the normal implies fatter tails. Example 2-8: FRM Exam 2001----Question 72 a) The lognormal distribution has a long left tail, as in Figure 2-6. So, it is positively skewed. Example 2-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 5/Quant. Analysis c) X is said to be lognormally distributed if its logarithm Y ⳱ ln(X ) is normally distributed. Example 2-10: FRM Exam 1998----Question 10/Quant. Analysis c) Using Equation (2.47), E [X ] ⳱ exp[µ Ⳮ 12 σ 2 ] ⳱ exp[0 Ⳮ 0.5 ⴱ 0.22 ] ⳱ 1.02. Example 2-11: FRM Exam 1998----Question 16/Quant. Analysis d) Normal variables are stable under addition, so that (I) is true. For lognormal variables X1 and X2 , we know that their logs, Y1 ⳱ ln(X1 ) and Y2 ⳱ ln(X2 ) are normally distributed. Hence, the sum of their logs, or ln(X1 ) Ⳮ ln(X2 ) ⳱ ln(X1 X2 ) must also be normally distributed. The product is itself lognormal, so that (IV) is true.

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Example 2-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 128/Quant. Analysis c) Using Equation (2.47), we have E [X ] ⳱ exp[µ Ⳮ 0.5σ 2 ] ⳱ exp[0 Ⳮ 0.5 ⴱ 0.52 ] ⳱ 1.1331. Assuming there is no error in the answers listed for the variance, it is sufﬁcient to ﬁnd the correct answer for the expected value. Example 2-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 3/Quant. Analysis b) Leptokurtic refers to a distribution with fatter tails than the normal, which implies greater kurtosis. Example 2-14: FRM Exam 2001----Question 68 a) EVT allows risk managers to approximate distributions in the tails beyond the usual VAR conﬁdence levels. Answers (c ) and (d) are too general. Answer (b) is also incorrect as EVT is based on historical data instead of scenario analyses.

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Appendix: Review of Matrix Multiplication This appendix brieﬂy reviews the mathematics of matrix multiplication. Say that we have two matrices, A and B that we wish to multiply to obtain the new matrix C ⳱ AB . The respective dimensions are (n ⫻ m) for A, that is, n rows and m columns, and (m ⫻ p) for B . The number of columns for A must exactly match (or conform) to the number of rows for B . If so, this will result in a matrix C of dimensions (n ⫻ p). We can write the matrix A in terms of its individual components aij , where i denotes the row and j denotes the column:

A⳱

a11 .. .

a12 .. .

an1

an2

a1m .. .

... .. . ...

anm

As an illustration, take a simple example where the matrices are of dimension (2 ⫻ 3) and (3 ⫻ 2). A⳱

冋

a11 a21

a12 a22

b11 B ⳱ b21 b31 C ⳱ AB ⳱

a13 a23

册

b12 b22 b32

冋

c11 c21

c12 c22

册

To multiply the matrices, each row of A is multiplied element-by-element by each column of B . For instance, c12 is obtained by taking c12 ⳱ [a11

a12

b12 a13 ] b22 ⳱ a11 b12 Ⳮ a12 b22 Ⳮ a13 b32 . b32

The matrix C is then C⳱

冋

a11 b11 Ⳮ a12 b21 Ⳮ a13 b31 a21 b11 Ⳮ a22 b21 Ⳮ a23 b31

a11 b12 Ⳮ a12 b22 Ⳮ a13 b32 a21 b12 Ⳮ a22 b22 Ⳮ a23 b32

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Matrix multiplication can be easily implemented in Excel using the function “=MMULT”. First, we highlight the cells representing the output matrix C, say f1:g2. Then we enter the function, for instance “=MMULT(a1:c2; d1:e3)”, where the ﬁrst range represents the ﬁrst matrix A, here 2 by 3, and the second range represents the matrix B, here 3 by 2. The ﬁnal step is to hit the three keys Control-Shift-Return simultaneously.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 3 Fundamentals of Statistics The preceding chapter was mainly concerned with the theory of probability, including distribution theory. In practice, researchers have to ﬁnd methods to choose among distributions and to estimate distribution parameters from real data. The subject of sampling brings us now to the theory of statistics. Whereas probability assumes the distributions are known, statistics attempts to make inferences from actual data. Here, we sample from a distribution of a population, say the change in the exchange rate, to make inferences about the population. A fundamental goal for risk management is to estimate the variability of future movements in exchange rates. Additionally, we want to establish whether there is some relationship between the risk factors, for instance, whether movements in the yen/dollar rate are correlated with the dollar/euro rate. Or, we may want to develop decision rules to check whether value-at-risk estimates are in line with subsequent proﬁts and losses. These examples illustrate two important problems in statistical inference, estimation and tests of hypotheses. With estimation, we wish to estimate the value of an unknown parameter from sample data. With tests of hypotheses, we wish to verify a conjecture about the data. This chapter reviews the fundamental tools of statistics theory for risk managers. Section 3.1 discusses the sampling of real data and the construction of returns. The problem of parameter estimation is presented in Section 3.2. Section 3.3 then turns to regression analysis, summarizing important results as well as common pitfalls in their interpretation.

3.1

Real Data

To start with an example, let us say that we observe movements in the daily yen/dollar exchange rate and wish to characterize the distribution of tomorrow’s exchange rate. The risk manager’s job is to assess the range of potential gains and losses on a trader’s position. He or she observes a sequence of past spot rates S0 , S1 , . . . , St , including the latest rate, from which we have to infer the distribution of tomorrow’s rate, StⳭ1 .

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

3.1.1

Measuring Returns

The truly random component in tomorrow’s price is not its level, but rather its change relative to today’s price. We measure rates of change in the spot price: rt ⳱ (St ⫺ St ⫺1 )冫 St ⫺1

(3.1)

Alternatively, we could construct the logarithm of the price ratio: Rt ⳱ ln[St 冫 St ⫺1 ]

(3.2)

which is equivalent to using continuous instead of discrete compounding. This is also Rt ⳱ ln[1 Ⳮ (St ⫺ St ⫺1 )冫 St ⫺1 ] ⳱ ln[1 Ⳮ rt ] Because ln(1 Ⳮ x) is close to x if x is small, Rt should be close to rt provided the return is small. For daily data, there is typically little difference between Rt and rt . The return deﬁned so far is the capital appreciation return, which ignores the income payment on the asset. Deﬁne the dividend or coupon as Dt . In the case of an exchange rate position, this is the interest payment in the foreign currency over the holding period. The total return on the asset is rtTOT ⳱ (St Ⳮ Dt ⫺ St ⫺1 )冫 St ⫺1

(3.3)

When the horizon is very short, the income return is typically very small compared to the capital appreciation return. The next question is whether the sequence of variables rt can be viewed as independent observations. If so, one could hypothesize, for instance, that the random variables are drawn from a normal distribution N (µ, σ 2 ). We could then proceed to estimate µ and σ 2 from the data and use this information to create a distribution for tomorrow’s spot price change. Independent observations have the very nice property that their joint distribution is the product of their marginal distribution, which considerably simpliﬁes the analysis. The obvious question is whether this assumption is a workable approximation. In fact, there are good economic reasons to believe that rates of change on ﬁnancial prices are close to independent. The hypothesis of efﬁcient markets postulates that current prices convey all relevant information about the asset. If so, any change in the asset price must be due to news events, which are by deﬁnition impossible to forecast (otherwise, it would not

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be news). This implies that changes in prices are unpredictable and hence satisfy our deﬁnition of truly random variables. Although this deﬁnition may not be strictly true, it usually provides a sufﬁcient approximation to the behavior of ﬁnancial prices. This hypothesis, also known as the random walk theory, implies that the conditional distribution of returns depends only on current prices, and not on the previous history of prices. If so, technical analysis must be a fruitless exercise, because previous patterns in prices cannot help in forecasting price movements. If in addition the distribution of returns is constant over time, the variables are said to be independently and identically distributed (i.i.d.). This explains why we could consider that the observations rt are independent draws from the same distribution N (µ, σ 2 ). Later, we will consider deviations from this basic model. Distributions of ﬁnancial returns typically display fat tails. Also, variances are not constant and display some persistence; expected returns can also slightly vary over time.

3.1.2

Time Aggregation

It is often necessary to translate parameters over a given horizon to another horizon. For example, we may have raw data for daily returns, from which we compute a daily volatility that we want to extend to a monthly volatility. Returns can be easily related across time when we use the log of the price ratio, because the log of a product is the sum of the logs. The two-day return, for example, can be decomposed as R02 ⳱ ln[S2 冫 S0 ] ⳱ ln[(S2 冫 S1 )(S1 冫 S0 )] ⳱ ln[S1 冫 S0 ] Ⳮ ln[S2 冫 S1 ] ⳱ R01 Ⳮ R12

(3.4)

This decomposition is only approximate if we use discrete returns, however. The expected return and variance are then E(R02 ) ⳱ E(R01 ) Ⳮ E(R12 ) and V (R02 ) ⳱ V (R01 )ⳭV (R12 )Ⳮ2Cov(R01 , R12 ). Assuming returns are uncorrelated and have identical distributions across days, we have E(R02 ) ⳱ 2E(R01 ) and V (R02 ) ⳱ 2V (R01 ). Generalizing over T days, we can relate the moments of the T -day returns RT to those of the 1-day returns R1 : E(RT ) ⳱ E(R1 )T

(3.5)

V (RT ) ⳱ V (R1 )T

(3.6)

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Expressed in terms of volatility, this yields the square root of time rule: SD(RT ) ⳱ SD(R1 ) 冪T

(3.7)

It should be emphasized that this holds only if returns have the same parameters across time and are uncorrelated. With correlation across days, the 2-day variance is V (R2 ) ⳱ V (R1 ) Ⳮ V (R1 ) Ⳮ 2ρV (R1 ) ⳱ 2V (R1 )(1 Ⳮ ρ )

(3.8)

With trends, or positive autocorrelation, the 2-day variance is greater than the one obtained by the square root of time rule. With mean reversion, or negative autocorrule.

AM FL Y

relation, the 2-day variance is less than the one obtained by the square root of time

3.1.3

TE

Key concept: When successive returns are uncorrelated, the volatility increases as the horizon extends following the square root of time.

Portfolio Aggregation

Let us now turn to aggregation of returns across assets. Consider, for example, an equity portfolio consisting of investments in N shares. Deﬁne the number of each share held as qi with unit price Si . The portfolio value at time t is then N

Wt ⳱

冱 qi Si,t

(3.9)

i ⳱1

We can write the weight assigned to asset i as wi,t ⳱

qi Si,t Wt

(3.10)

which by construction sum to unity. Using weights, however, rules out situations with zero net investment, Wt ⳱ 0, such as some derivatives positions. But we could have positive and negative weights if short selling is allowed, or weights greater than one if the portfolio can be leveraged.

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The next period, the portfolio value is N

WtⳭ1 ⳱

冱 qi Si,tⳭ1

(3.11)

i ⳱1

assuming that the unit price incorporates any income payment. The gross, or dollar, return is then N

WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ⳱

冱 qi (Si,tⳭ1 ⫺ Si,t )

(3.12)

i ⳱1

and the rate of return is N N (Si,tⳭ1 ⫺ Si,t ) qi Si,t (Si,tⳭ1 ⫺ Si,t ) WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ⳱ ⳱ wi,t Wt Wt Si,t Si,t i ⳱1 i ⳱1

冱

冱

(3.13)

The portfolio discrete rate of return is a linear combination of the asset returns, N

rp,tⳭ1 ⳱

冱 wi,t ri,tⳭ1

(3.14)

i ⳱1

The dollar return is then N

WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ⳱

冱 wi,t ri,tⳭ1

Wt

(3.15)

i ⳱1

and has a normal distribution if the individual returns are also normally distributed. Alternatively, we could express the individual positions in dollar terms, xi,t ⳱ wi,t Wt ⳱ qi Si,t

(3.16)

The dollar return is also, using dollar amounts, N

WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ⳱

冱 xi,t ri,tⳭ1

(3.17)

i ⳱1

As we have seen in the previous chapter, the variance of the portfolio dollar return is V [WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ] ⳱ x⬘⌺x

(3.18)

which, along with the expected return, fully characterizes its distribution. The portfolio VAR is then VAR ⳱ α 冪x⬘⌺x

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Example 3-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 4/Quant. Analysis 3-1. A fundamental assumption of the random walk hypothesis of market returns is that returns from one time period to the next are statistically independent. This assumption implies a) Returns from one time period to the next can never be equal. b) Returns from one time period to the next are uncorrelated. c) Knowledge of the returns from one time period does not help in predicting returns from the next time period. d) Both (b) and (c) are true.

Example 3-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 14/Quant. Analysis 3-2. Suppose returns are uncorrelated over time. You are given that the volatility over two days is 1.20%. What is the volatility over 20 days? a) 0.38% b) 1.20% c) 3.79% d) 12.0%

Example 3-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Quant. Analysis 3-3. Assume an asset price variance increases linearly with time. Suppose the expected asset price volatility for the next two months is 15% (annualized), and for the one month that follows, the expected volatility is 35% (annualized). What is the average expected volatility over the next three months? a) 22% b) 24% c) 25% d) 35%

Example 3-4: FRM Exam 1997----Question 15/Risk Measurement 3-4. The standard VAR calculation for extension to multiple periods assumes that returns are serially uncorrelated. If prices display trends, the true VAR will be a) The same as the standard VAR b) Greater than standard VAR c) Less than standard VAR d) Unable to be determined

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Parameter Estimation

Armed with our i.i.d. sample of T observations, we can start estimating the parameters of interest, the sample mean, variance, and other moments. As in the previous chapter, deﬁne xi as the realization of a random sample. The expected return, or mean, µ ⳱ E (X ) can be estimated by the sample mean, ˆ⳱ m⳱µ

1 T x T i ⳱1 i

冱

(3.20)

Intuitively, we assign the same weight of 1冫 T to all observations because they all have the same probability. The variance, σ 2 ⳱ E [(X ⫺ µ )2 ], can be estimated by the sample variance, ˆ2 ⳱ s2 ⳱ σ

T 1 ˆ)2 (x ⫺ µ (T ⫺ 1) i ⳱1 i

冱

(3.21)

Note that we divide by T ⫺ 1 instead of T . This is because we estimate the variance around an unknown parameter, the mean. So, we have fewer degrees of freedom than otherwise. As a result, we need to adjust s 2 to ensure that its expectation equals the true value. In most situations, however, T is large so that this adjustment is minor. It is essential to note that these estimated values depend on the particular sample and, hence, have some inherent variability. The sample mean itself is distributed as ˆ ⬃ N (µ, σ 2 冫 T ) m⳱µ

(3.22)

If the population distribution is normal, this exactly describes the distribution of the sample mean. Otherwise, the central limit theorem states that this distribution is only valid asymptotically, i.e. for large samples. ˆ 2 , one can show that, when X is norFor the distribution of the sample variance σ mal, the following ratio is distributed as a chi-square with (T ⫺ 1) degrees of freedom ˆ2 (T ⫺ 1)σ ⬃ χ 2 (T ⫺ 1) σ2

(3.23)

If the sample size T is large enough, the chi-square distribution converges to a normal distribution:

冢

ˆ 2 ⬃ N σ 2, σ 4 σ

2 (T ⫺ 1)

冣

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Using the same approximation, the sample standard deviation has a normal distribution with a standard error of ˆ) ⳱ σ se(σ

冪 21T

(3.25)

We can use this information for hypothesis testing. For instance, we would like to detect a constant trend in X . Here, the null hypothesis is that µ ⳱ 0. To answer the question, we use the distributional assumption in Equation (3.22) and compute a standard normal variable as the ratio of the estimated mean to its standard error, or z⳱

(m ⫺ 0) σ 冫 冪T

(3.26)

Because this is now a standard normal variable, we would not expect to observe values far away from zero. Typically, we would set the conﬁdence level at 95 percent, which translates into a two-tailed interval for z of [⫺1.96, Ⳮ1.96]. Roughly, this means that, if the absolute value of z is greater than two, we would reject the hypothesis that m came from a distribution with a mean of zero. We can have some conﬁdence that the true µ is indeed different from zero. In fact, we do not know the true σ and use the estimated s instead. The distribution is a Student’s t with T degrees of freedom: t⳱

(m ⫺ 0) s 冫 冪T

(3.27)

for which the cutoff values can be found from tables, or a spreadsheet. As T increases, however, the distribution tends to the normal. At this point, we need to make an important observation. Equation (3.22) shows ˆ shrinks at a rate prothat, when the sample size increases, the standard error of µ portional to 1冫 冪T . The precision of the estimate increases with a greater number of observations. This result is quite useful to assess the precision of estimates generated from numerical simulations, which are widely used in risk management. Key concept: With independent draws, the standard deviation of most statistics is inversely related to the square root of number of observations T . Thus, more observations make for more precise estimates.

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Our ability to reject a hypothesis will also improve with T . Note that hypothesis tests are only meaningful when they lead to a rejection. Nonrejection is not informative. It does not mean that we have any evidence in support of the null hypothesis or that we “accept” the null hypothesis. For instance, the test could be badly designed, or not have enough observations. So, we cannot make a statement that we accept a null hypothesis, but instead only say that we reject it.

Example: The yen/dollar rate We want to characterize movements in the monthly yen/dollar exchange rate from historical data, taken over 1990 to 1999. Returns are deﬁned in terms of continuously compounded changes, as in Equation (3.2). We have T ⳱ 120, m ⳱ ⫺0.28%, and s ⳱ 3.55% (per month). Using Equation (3.22), we ﬁnd that the standard error of the mean is approximately se(m) ⳱ s 冫 冪T ⳱ 0.32%. For the null of µ ⳱ 0, this gives a t -ratio of t ⳱ m冫 se(m) ⳱ ⫺0.28%冫 0.32% ⳱ ⫺0.87. Because this number is less than 2 in absolute value, we cannot reject at the 95 percent conﬁdence level the hypothesis that the mean is zero. This is a typical result for ﬁnancial series. The mean is not sufﬁciently precisely estimated. Next, we turn to the precision in the sample standard deviation. By Equation (3.25), its standard error is se(s ) ⳱ σ 冪 (21T ) ⳱ 0.229%. For the null of σ ⳱ 0, this gives a

z -ratio of z ⳱ s 冫 se(s ) ⳱ 3.55%冫 0.229% ⳱ 15.5, which is very high. Therefore, there is much more precision in the measurement of s than in that of m. We can construct, for instance, 95 percent conﬁdence intervals around the estimated values. These are: [m ⫺ 1.96 ⫻ se(m), m Ⳮ 1.96 ⫻ se(m)] ⳱ [⫺0.92%, Ⳮ0.35%] [s ⫺ 1.96 ⫻ se(s ), s Ⳮ 1.96 ⫻ se(s )] ⳱ [3.10%, 4.00%] So, we could be reasonably conﬁdent that the volatility is between 3% and 4%, but we cannot even be sure that the mean is different from zero.

3.3

Regression Analysis

Regression analysis has particular importance for ﬁnance professionals, because it can be used to explain and forecast variables of interest.

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3.3.1

Bivariate Regression

In a linear regression, the dependent variable y is projected on a set of N predetermined independent variables, x. In the simplest bivariate case we write yt ⳱ α Ⳮ βxt Ⳮ t ,

t ⳱ 1, . . . , T

(3.28)

where α is called the intercept, or constant, β is called the slope, and is called the residual, or error term. This could represent a time-series or a cross section. The ordinary least squares (OLS) assumptions are 1. The errors are independent of x. 2. The errors have a normal distribution with zero mean and constant variance, conditional on x. 3. The errors are independent across observations. Based on these assumptions, the usual methodology is to estimate the coefﬁcients by minimizing the sum of squared errors. Beta is estimated by ¯)(yt ⫺ y ¯) ˆ ⳱ 1冫 (T ⫺ 1) 冱 t (xt ⫺ x β ¯)2 1冫 (T ⫺ 1) 冱 t (xt ⫺ x

(3.29)

¯ and y ¯ correspond to the means of xt and yt . Alpha is estimated by where x ˆ¯ ˆ⳱y ¯ ⫺ βx α

(3.30)

Note that the numerator in Equation (3.29) is also the sample covariance between two series xi and xj , which can be written as ˆij ⳱ σ

T 1 ˆi )(xt,j ⫺ µ ˆj ) (x ⫺ µ (T ⫺ 1) t ⳱1 t,i

冱

(3.31)

To interpret β, we can take the covariance between y and x, which is Cov(y, x) ⳱ Cov(α Ⳮ βx Ⳮ , x) ⳱ βCov(x, x) ⳱ βV (x) because is conditionally independent of x. This shows that the population β is also β(y, x) ⳱

ρ (y, x)σ (y )σ (x) σ (y ) Cov(y, x) ⳱ ⳱ ρ (y, x) V (x) σ (x) σ 2 (x)

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The regression ﬁt can be assessed by examining the size of the residuals, obtained ˆt from yt , by subtracting the ﬁtted values y ˆ t ˆt ⳱ yt ⫺ α ˆ ⫺ βx ˆt ⳱ yt ⫺ y

(3.33)

and taking the estimated variance as V (ˆ) ⳱

T 1 ˆ2 (T ⫺ 2) t ⳱1 t

冱

(3.34)

ˆ. Also ˆ and β We divide by T ⫺ 2 because the estimator uses two unknown quantities, α note that, since the regression includes an intercept, the average value of ˆ has to be exactly zero. The quality of the ﬁt can be assessed using a unitless measure called the regression R -square. This is deﬁned as R2 ⳱ 1 ⫺

SSE 冱 t ˆt2 ⳱1⫺ SSY 冱 t (yt ⫺ y¯)2

(3.35)

where SSE is the sum of squared errors, and SSY is the sum of squared deviations of y around its mean. If the regression includes a constant, we always have 0 ⱕ R 2 ⱕ 1. In this case, R -square is also the square of the usual correlation coefﬁcient, R 2 ⳱ ρ (y, x)2

(3.36)

The R 2 measures the degree to which the size of the errors is smaller than that of the original dependent variables y . To interpret R 2 , consider two extreme cases. If the ﬁt is excellent, the errors will all be zero, and the numerator in Equation (3.35) will be zero, which gives R 2 ⳱ 1. However, if the ﬁt is poor, SSE will be as large as SSY and the ratio will be one, giving R 2 ⳱ 0. Alternatively, we can interpret the R -square by decomposing the variance of yt ⳱ α Ⳮ βxt Ⳮ t . This gives V (y ) ⳱ β2 V (x) Ⳮ V () 1⳱

β2 V (x) V (y )

Ⳮ

V ( ) V (y )

(3.37) (3.38)

Since the R -square is also R 2 ⳱ 1 ⫺ V ()冫 V (y ), it is equal to ⳱ β2 V (x)冫 V (y ), which is the contribution in the variation of y due to β and x. Finally, we can derive the distribution of the estimated coefﬁcients, which is norˆ ⬃ N (β, V (β ˆ)), mal and centered around the true values. For the slope coefﬁcient, β with variance given by ˆ) ⳱ V (ˆ) V (β

1 ¯)2 冱 t (xt ⫺ x

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

This can be used to test whether the slope coefﬁcient is signiﬁcantly different from zero. The associated test statistic ˆ冫 σ (β ˆ) t⳱β

(3.40)

has a Student’s t distribution. Typically, if the absolute value of the statistic is above 2, we would reject the hypothesis that there is no relationship between y and x.

3.3.2

Autoregression

A particularly useful application is a regression of a variable on a lagged value of itself, called autoregression yt ⳱ α Ⳮ βk yt ⫺k Ⳮ t ,

t ⳱ 1, . . . , T

(3.41)

If the coefﬁcient is signiﬁcant, previous movements in the variable can be used to predict future movements. Here, the coefﬁcient βk is known as the kth-order autocorrelation coefﬁcient. Consider for instance a ﬁrst-order autoregression, where the daily change in the ˆ1 indiyen/dollar rate is regressed on the previous day’s value. A positive coefﬁcient β cates that a movement up in one day is likely to be followed by another movement up the next day. This would indicate a trend in the exchange rate. Conversely, a negative coefﬁcient indicates that movements in the exchange rate are likely to be reversed from one day to the next. Technical analysts work very hard at identifying such patterns. ˆ1 ⳱ 0.10, with zero intercept. One day, As an example, assume that we ﬁnd that β the yen goes up by 2%. Our best forecast for the next day is then another upmove of E [yt ] ⳱ β1 yt ⫺1 ⳱ 0.1 ⫻ 2% ⳱ 0.2% Autocorrelation changes normal patterns in risk across horizons. When there is no autocorrelation, we know that risk increases with the square root of time. With positive autocorrelation, shocks have a longer-lasting effect and risk increases faster than the square root of time.

3.3.3

Multivariate Regression

More generally, the regression in Equation (3.28) can be written, with N independent variables (perhaps including a constant): x11 y1 .. ⳱ .. . . yT xT 1

x12 xT 2

x13 xT 3

... ...

x1N xT N

β1 1 .. Ⳮ .. . . βN T

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or in matrix notation, y ⳱ Xβ Ⳮ

(3.43)

The estimated coefﬁcients can be written in matrix notation as ˆ ⳱ (X ⬘X )⫺1 X ⬘y β

(3.44)

ˆ) ⳱ σ 2 ()(X ⬘X )⫺1 V (β

(3.45)

and their covariance matrix as

We can extend the t -statistic to a multivariate environment. Say we want to test ˆm as these grouped coefﬁcients whether the last m coefﬁcients are jointly zero. Deﬁne β ˆ) as their covariance matrix. We set up a statistic and Vm (β F⳱

ˆ⬘ Vm (β ˆ)⫺1 β ˆm 冫 m β m SSE冫 (T ⫺ N )

(3.46)

which has a so-called F -distribution with m and T ⫺ N degrees of freedom. As before, we would reject the hypothesis if the value of F is too large compared to critical values from tables. This setup takes into account the joint nature of the estimated ˆ. coefﬁcients β

3.3.4

Example

This section gives the example of a regression of a stock return on the market. This is useful to assess whether movements in the stock can be hedged using stock-market index futures, for instance. We consider ten years of data for Intel and the S&P 500, using total rates of return over a month. Figure 3-1 plots the 120 combination of returns, or (yt , xt ). Apparently, there is a positive relationship between the two variables, as shown by the straight ˆt , xt ). line that represents the regression ﬁt (y Table 3-1 displays the regression results. The regression shows a positive relaˆ ⳱ 1.35. This is signiﬁcantly positive, with tionship between the two variables, with β a standard error of 0.229 and t -statistic of 5.90. The t -statistic is very high, with an associated probability value (p-value) close to zero. Thus we can be fairly conﬁdent of a positive association between the two variables. This beta coefﬁcient is also called systematic risk, or exposure to general market movements. Technology stocks are said to have greater systematic risk than the

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FIGURE 3-1 Intel Return vs. S&P Return

Return on Intel 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% –10%

–30% –20%

AM FL Y

–20%

–15%

–10%

–5% 0% 5% Return on S&P

10%

15%

TABLE 3-1 Regression Results y ⳱ α Ⳮ βx, y ⳱ Intel return, x ⳱ S&P return

TE

R -square Standard error of y Standard error of ˆ

Coefﬁcient ˆ Intercept α ˆ Intercept β

Estimate 0.0168 1.349

0.228 10.94% 9.62%

Standard Error 0.0094 0.229

T -statistic 1.78 5.90

P -value 0.77 0.00

average. Indeed, the slope in Intel’s regression is greater than unity. To test whether β is signiﬁcantly different from one, we can compute a z -score as z⳱

ˆ ⫺ 1) (β (1.349 ⫺ 1) ⳱ ⳱ 1.53 ˆ) 0.229 s (β

This is less than the usual cutoff value of 2, so we cannot say for certain that Intel’s systematic risk is greater than one. The R -square of 22.8% can be also interpreted by examining the reduction in dispersion from y to ˆ, which is from 10.94% to 9.62%. The R -square can be written as R2 ⳱ 1 ⫺

9.62%2 ⳱ 22.8% 10.94%2

Thus about 23% of the variance of Intel’s returns can be attributed to the market.

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77

Pitfalls with Regressions

As with any quantitative method, the power of regression analysis depends on the underlying assumptions being fulﬁlled for the particular application. Potential problems of interpretation are now brieﬂy mentioned. The original OLS setup assumes that the X variables are predetermined (i.e., exogenous or ﬁxed), as in a controlled experiment. In practice, regressions are performed on actual, existing data that do not satisfy these strict conditions. In the previous regression, returns on the S&P are certainly not predetermined. If the X variables are stochastic, however, most of the OLS results are still valid as long as the X variables are distributed independently of the errors and their distribution does not involve β and σ 2 . Violations of this assumption are serious because they create biases in the slope coefﬁcients. Biases could lead the researcher to come to the wrong conclusion. For instance, we could have measurement error in the X variables, which causes the measured X to be correlated with . This so-called errors in the variables problem causes a downward bias, or reduces the estimated slope coefﬁcients from their true values.1 Another problem is that of speciﬁcation error. Suppose the true model has N variables but we only use a subset N1 . If the omitted variables are correlated with the included variables, the estimated coefﬁcients will be biased. This is a most serious problem because it is difﬁcult to identify, other than trying other variables in the regression. Another class of problem is multicollinearity. This arises when the X variables are highly correlated. Some of the variables may be superﬂuous, for example using two currencies that are ﬁxed to each other. As a result, the matrix in Equation (3.44) will be unstable, and the estimated β unreliable. This problem will show up in large standard errors, however. It can be ﬁxed by discarding some of the variables that are highly correlated with others. The third type of problem has to do with potential biases in the standard errors of the coefﬁcients. These errors are especially serious if standard errors are underestimated, creating a sense of false precision in the regression results and perhaps 1

Errors in the y variables are not an issue, because they are captured by the error component .

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leading to the wrong conclusions. The OLS approach assumes that the errors are independent across observations. This is generally the case for ﬁnancial time series, but often not in cross-sectional setups. For instance, consider a cross section of mutual fund returns on some attribute. Mutual fund families often have identical funds, except for the fee structure (e.g., called A for a front load, B for a deferred load). These funds, however, are invested in the same securities and have the same manager. Thus, their returns are certainly not independent. If we run a standard OLS regression with all funds, the standard errors will be too small. More generally, one has to check that there is no systematic correlation pattern in the residuals. Even with time series, problems can arise with autocorrelation in the errors. In addition, the residuals can have different variances across observations, in which case we have heteroskedasticity.2 These problems can be identiﬁed by diagnostic checks on the residuals. For instance, the variance of residuals should not be related to other variables in the regression. If some relationship is found, then the model must be improved until the residuals are found to be independent. Last, even if all the OLS conditions are satisﬁed, one has to be extremely careful about using a regression for forecasting. Unlike physical systems, which are inherently stable, ﬁnancial markets are dynamic and relationships can change quickly. Indeed, ﬁnancial anomalies, which show up as strongly signiﬁcant coefﬁcients in historical regressions, have an uncanny ability to disappear as soon as one tries to exploit them.

Example 3-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 2/Quant. Analysis 3-5. Under what circumstances could the explanatory power of regression analysis be overstated? a) The explanatory variables are not correlated with one another. b) The variance of the error term decreases as the value of the dependent variable increases. c) The error term is normally distributed. d) An important explanatory variable is omitted that inﬂuences the explanatory variables included, and the dependent variable.

2

This is the opposite of the constant variance case, or homoskedasticity.

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Example 3-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 20/Quant. Analysis 3-6. What is the covariance between populations A and B ? A B 17 22 14 26 12 31 13 29 a) ⫺6.25 b) 6.50 c) ⫺3.61 d) 3.61 Example 3-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 6/Quant. Analysis 3-7. It has been observed that daily returns on spot positions of the euro against the U.S. dollar are highly correlated with returns on spot holdings of the Japanese yen against the dollar. This implies that a) When the euro strengthens against the dollar, the yen also tends to strengthen against the dollar. The two sets of returns are not necessarily equal. b) The two sets of returns tend to be almost equal. c) The two sets of returns tend to be almost equal in magnitude but opposite in sign. d) None of the above are true. Example 3-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 10/Quant. Analysis 3-8. An analyst wants to estimate the correlation between stocks on the Frankfurt and Tokyo exchanges. He collects closing prices for select securities on each exchange but notes that Frankfurt closes after Tokyo. How will this time discrepancy bias the computed volatilities for individual stocks and correlations between any pair of stocks, one from each market? There will be a) Increased volatility with correlation unchanged b) Lower volatility with lower correlation c) Volatility unchanged with lower correlation d) Volatility unchanged with correlation unchanged Example 3-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 125/Quant. Analysis 3-9. If the F -test shows that the set of X variables explain a signiﬁcant amount of variation in the Y variable, then a) Another linear regression model should be tried. b) A t -test should be used to test which of the individual X variables, if any, should be discarded. c) A transformation of the Y variable should be made. d) Another test could be done using an indicator variable to test the signiﬁcance level of the model.

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Example 3-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 112/Quant. Analysis 3-10. Positive autocorrelation in prices can be deﬁned as a) An upward movement in price is more than likely to be followed by another upward movement in price. b) A downward movement in price is more than likely to be followed by another downward movement in price. c) Both (a) and (b) are correct. d) Historic prices have no correlation with futures prices.

3.4

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 3-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 4/Quant. Analysis d) Efﬁcient markets implies that the distribution of future returns does not depend on past returns. Hence, returns cannot be correlated. It could happen, however, that return distributions are independent, but that, just by chance, two successive returns are equal. Example 3-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 14/Quant. Analysis c) This is given by SD(R2 ) ⫻ 冪20冫 2 ⳱ 3.79%. Example 3-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Quant. Analysis b) The methodology is the same as for the time aggregation, except that the variance may not be constant over time. The total (annualized) variance is 0.152 ⫻ 2 Ⳮ 0.352 ⫻ 1 ⳱ 0.1675 for 3 months, or 0.0558 on average. Taking the square root, we get 0.236, or 24%. Example 3-4: FRM Exam 1997----Question 15/Risk Measurement b) This question assumes that VAR is obtained from the volatility using a normal distribution. With trends, or positive correlation between subsequent returns, the 2-day variance is greater than the one obtained from the square root of time rule. See Equation (3.7). Example 3-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 2/Quant. Analysis d) If the true regression includes a third variable z that inﬂuences both y and x, the error term will not be conditionally independent of x, which violates one of the

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assumptions of the OLS model. This will artiﬁcially increase the explanatory power of the regression. Intuitively, the variable x will appear to explain more of the variation in y simply because it is correlated with z . Example 3-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 20/Quant. Analysis a) First, compute the average of A and B , which is 14 and 27. Then construct a table as follows.

Sum

A 17 14 12 13 56

B 22 26 31 29 108

(A ⫺ 14) 3 0 ⫺2 ⫺1

(B ⫺ 27) ⫺5 ⫺1 4 2

(A ⫺ 14)(B ⫺ 27) ⫺15 0 ⫺8 ⫺2 ⫺25

Summing the last column gives ⫺25, or an average of ⫺6.25. Example 3-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 6/Quant. Analysis a) Positive correlation means that, on average, a positive movement in one variable is associated with a positive movement in the other variable. Because correlation is scale-free, this has no implication for the actual size of movements. Example 3-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 10/Quant. Analysis c) The nonsynchronicity of prices does not alter the volatility, but will induce some error in the correlation coefﬁcient across series. This is similar to the effect of errors in the variables, which biases downward the slope coefﬁcient and the correlation. Example 3-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 125/Quant. Analysis b) The F -test applies to the group of variables but does not say which one is most signiﬁcant. To identify which particular variable is signiﬁcant, we use a t -test and discard the variables that do not appear signiﬁcant. Example 3-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 112/Quant. Analysis c) Positive autocorrelation means that price movements in one direction are more likely to be followed by price movements in the same direction.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 4 Monte Carlo Methods

The two preceding chapters have dealt with probability and statistics. The former deals with the generation of random variables from known distributions. The second deals with estimation of distribution parameters from actual data. With estimated distributions in hand, we can proceed to the next step, which is the simulation of random variables for the purpose of risk management. Such simulations, called Monte Carlo simulations, are a staple of ﬁnancial economics. They allow risk managers to build the distribution of portfolios that are far too complex to model analytically. Simulation methods are quite ﬂexible and are becoming easier to implement with technological advances in computing. Their drawbacks should not be underestimated, however. For all their elegance, simulation results depend heavily on the model’s assumptions: the shape of the distribution, the parameters, and the pricing functions. Risk managers need to be keenly aware of the effect that errors in these assumptions can have on the results. This chapter shows how Monte Carlo methods can be used for risk management. Section 4.1 introduces a simple case with just one source of risk. Section 4.2 shows how to apply these methods to construct value at risk (VAR) measures, as well as to price derivatives. Multiple sources of risk are then considered in Section 4.3.

4.1

Simulations with One Random Variable

Simulations involve creating artiﬁcial random variables with properties similar to those of the observed risk factors. These may be stock prices, exchange rates, bond yields or prices, and commodity prices.

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4.1.1

Simulating Markov Processes

In efﬁcient markets, ﬁnancial prices should display a random walk pattern. More precisely, prices are assumed to follow a Markov process, which is a particular stochastic process where the whole distribution relies on the current price only. The past history is irrelevant. These processes are built from the following components, described in order of increasing complexity. The Wiener process. This describes a variable ⌬z , whose change is measured over the interval ⌬t such that its mean change is zero and variance proportional to ⌬t ⌬z ⬃ N (0, ⌬t )

(4.1)

If is a standard normal variable N (0, 1), this can be written as ⌬z ⳱ 冪⌬t . In addition, the increments ⌬z are independent across time. The Generalized Wiener process. This describes a variable ⌬x built up from a Wiener process, with in addition a constant trend a per unit time and volatility b ⌬x ⳱ a⌬t Ⳮ b⌬z

(4.2)

A particular case is the martingale, which is a zero drift stochastic process, a ⳱ 0. This has the convenient property that the expectation of a future value is the current value E ( xT ) ⳱ x0

(4.3)

The Ito process. This describes a generalized Wiener process, whose trend and volatility depend on the current value of the underlying variable and time ⌬x ⳱ a(x, t )⌬t Ⳮ b(x, t )⌬z

4.1.2

(4.4)

The Geometric Brownian Motion

A particular example of Ito process is the geometric Brownian motion (GBM), which is described for the variable S as ⌬S ⳱ µS ⌬t Ⳮ σ S ⌬z

(4.5)

The process is geometric because the trend and volatility terms are proportional to the current value of S . This is typically the case for stock prices, for which rates of returns appear to be more stationary than raw dollar returns, ⌬S . It is also used for

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currencies. Because ⌬S 冫 S represents the capital appreciation only, abstracting from dividend payments, µ represents the expected total rate of return on the asset minus the dividend yield, µ ⳱ µT OT AL ⫺ q .

Example: A stock price process Consider a stock that pays no dividends, has an expected return of 10% per annum, and volatility of 20% per annum. If the current price is $100, what is the process for the change in the stock price over the next week? What if the current price is $10? The process for the stock price is ⌬S ⳱ S (µ ⌬t Ⳮ σ 冪⌬t ⫻ ) where is a random draw from a standard normal distribution. If the interval is one week, or ⌬t ⳱ 1冫 52 ⳱ 0.01923, the process is ⌬S ⳱ 100(0.001923 Ⳮ 0.027735 ⫻ ). With an initial stock price at $100, this gives ⌬S ⳱ 0.1923 Ⳮ 2.7735. With an initial stock price at $10, this gives ⌬S ⳱ 0.01923 Ⳮ 0.27735. The trend and volatility are scaled down by a factor of ten. This model is particularly important because it is the underlying process for the Black-Scholes formula. The key feature of this distribution is the fact that the volatility is proportional to S . This ensures that the stock price will stay positive. Indeed, as the stock price falls, its variance decreases, which makes it unlikely to experience a large downmove that would push the price into negative values. As the limit of this model is a normal distribution for dS 冫 S ⳱ d ln(S ), S follows a lognormal distribution. This process implies that, over an interval T ⫺ t ⳱ τ , the logarithm of the ending price is distributed as ln(ST ) ⳱ ln(St ) Ⳮ (µ ⫺ σ 2 冫 2)τ Ⳮ σ 冪τ

(4.6)

where is a standardized normal, N (0, 1) random variable.

Example: A stock price process (continued) Assume the price in one week is given by S ⳱ $100exp(R ), where R has annual expected value of 10% and volatility of 20%. Construct a 95% conﬁdence interval for S . The standard normal deviates that corresponds to a 95% conﬁdence interval are αMIN ⳱ ⫺1.96 and αMAX ⳱ 1.96. In other words, we have 2.5% in each tail.

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The 95% conﬁdence band for R is then RMIN ⳱ µ ⌬t ⫺ 1.96σ 冪⌬t ⳱ 0.001923 ⫺ 1.96 ⫻ 0.027735 ⳱ ⫺0.0524 RMAX ⳱ µ ⌬t Ⳮ 1.96σ 冪⌬t ⳱ 0.001923 Ⳮ 1.96 ⫻ 0.027735 ⳱ 0.0563 This gives SMIN ⳱ $100exp(⫺0.0524) ⳱ $94.89, and SMAX ⳱ $100exp(0.0563) ⳱ $105.79. The importance of the lognormal assumption depends on the horizon considered. If the horizon is one day only, the choice of the lognormal versus normal assumption does not really matter. It is highly unlikely that the stock price would drop below zero in one day, given typical volatilities. On the other hand, if the horizon is measured in years, the two assumptions do lead to different results. The lognormal distribution is more realistic as it prevents prices form turning negative. In simulations, this process is approximated by small steps with a normal distri-

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bution with mean and variance given by

⌬S ⬃ N (µ ⌬t, σ 2 ⌬t ) S

(4.7)

To simulate the future price path for S , we start from the current price St and generate a sequence of independent standard normal variables , for i ⳱ 1, 2, . . . , n.

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This can be done easily in an Excel spreadsheet, for instance. The next price StⳭ1 is built as StⳭ1 ⳱ St Ⳮ St (µ ⌬t Ⳮ σ 1 冪⌬t ). The following price StⳭ2 is taken as StⳭ1 Ⳮ StⳭ1 (µ ⌬t Ⳮ σ 2 冪⌬t ), and so on until we reach the target horizon, at which point the price StⳭn ⳱ ST should have a distribution close to the lognormal. Table 4-1 illustrates a simulation of a process with a drift (µ ) of 0 percent and volatility (σ ) of 20 percent over the total interval, which is divided into 100 steps. TABLE 4-1 Simulating a Price Path Step i 0 1 2 3 4 ... 99 100

Random Variable Uniform Normal ui µ ⌬t Ⳮ σ ⌬z =RAND() =NORMINV(ui ,0.0,0.02)

Price Increment ⌬Si

Price StⳭi

0.0430 0.8338 0.6522 0.9219

⫺0.0343 0.0194 0.0078 0.0284

⫺3.433 1.872 0.771 2.813

100.00 96.57 98.44 99.21 102.02

0.5563

0.0028

0.354

124.95 125.31

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The initial price is $100. The local expected return is µ ⌬t ⳱ 0.0冫 100 ⳱ 0.0 and the volatility is 0.20 ⫻ 冪1冫 100 ⳱ 0.02. The second column shows the realization of a uniform U (0, 1) variable, with the corresponding Excel function. The value for the ﬁrst step is u1 ⳱ 0.0430. The next column transforms this variable into a normal variable with mean 0.0 and volatility of 0.02, which gives ⫺0.0343, showing the Excel function. The price increment is then obtained by multiplying the random variable by the previous price, which gives ⫺$3.433. This generates a new value of S1 ⳱ $96.57. The process is repeated until the ﬁnal price of $125.31 is reached at the 100th step. This experiment can be repeated as often as needed. Deﬁne K as the number of replications, or random trials. Figure 4-1 displays the ﬁrst three trials. Each leads to a simulated ﬁnal value STk . This generates a distribution of simulated prices ST . With just one step n ⳱ 1, the distribution must be normal. As the number of steps n grows large, the distribution tends to a lognormal distribution. FIGURE 4-1 Simulating Price Paths

Price 160 140

Path #1

120 Path #3 100 80 Path #2 60 40 20 0 0

20 40 60 Steps into the future

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100

While very useful to model stock prices, this model has shortcomings. Price increments are assumed to have a normal distribution. In practice, we observe that price changes have fatter tails than the normal distribution and may also experience changing variance.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS In addition, as the time interval ⌬t shrinks, the volatility shrinks as well. In other

words, large discontinuities cannot occur over short intervals. In reality, some assets, such as commodities, experience discrete jumps. This approach, however, is sufﬁciently ﬂexible to accommodate other distributions.

4.1.3

Simulating Yields

The GBM process is widely used for stock prices and currencies. Fixed-income products are another matter. Bond prices display long-term reversion to the face value (unless there is default). Such process is inconsistent with the GBM process, which displays no such mean reversion. The volatility of bond prices also changes in a predictable fashion, as duration shrinks to zero. Similarly, commodities often display mean reversion. These features can be taken into account by modelling bond yields directly in a ﬁrst step. In the next step, bond prices are constructed from the value of yields and a pricing function. The dynamics of interest rates rt can be modeled by ⌬r t ⳱ κ (θ ⫺ rt )⌬t Ⳮ σ rt γ ⌬z t

(4.8)

where ⌬z t is the usual Wiener process. Here, we assume that 0 ⱕ κ ⬍ 1, θ ⱖ 0, σ ⱖ 0. If there is only one stochastic variable in the ﬁxed income market ⌬z , the model is called a one-factor model. This Markov process has a number of interesting features. First, it displays mean reversion to a long-run value of θ . The parameter κ governs the speed of mean reversion. When the current interest rate is high, i.e. rt ⬎ θ , the model creates a negative drift κ (θ ⫺ rt ) toward θ . Conversely, low current rates create with a positive drift. The second feature is the volatility process. This class of model includes the Vasicek model when γ ⳱ 0. Changes in yields are normally distributed because δr is a linear function of ⌬z . This model is particularly convenient because it leads to closedform solutions for many ﬁxed-income products. The problem, however, is that it could allow negative interest rates because the volatility of the change in rates does not depend on the level. Equation (4.8) is more general because it includes a power of the yield in the variance function. With γ ⳱ 1, the model is the lognormal model.1 This implies that the 1

This model is used by RiskMetrics for interest rates.

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rate of change in the yield has a ﬁxed variance. Thus, as with the GBM model, smaller yields lead to smaller movements, which makes it unlikely the yield will drop below zero. With γ ⳱ 0.5, this is the Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (CIR) model. Ultimately, the choice of the exponent γ is an empirical issue. Recent research has shown that γ ⳱ 0.5 provides a good ﬁt to the data. This class of models is known as equilibrium models. They start with some assumptions about economic variables and imply a process for the short-term interest rate r . These models generate a predicted term structure, whose shape depends on the model parameters and the initial short rate. The problem with these models is that they are not ﬂexible enough to provide a good ﬁt to today’s term structure. This can be viewed as unsatisfactory, especially by most practitioners who argue that they cannot rely on a model that cannot even be trusted to price today’s bonds. In contrast, no-arbitrage models are designed to be consistent with today’s term structure. In this class of models, the term structure is an input into the parameter estimation. The earliest model of this type was the Ho and Lee model ⌬r t ⳱ θ (t )⌬t Ⳮ σ ⌬z t

(4.9)

where θ (t ) is a function of time chosen so that the model ﬁts the initial term structure. This was extended to incorporate mean reversion in the Hull and White model ⌬r t ⳱ [θ (t ) ⫺ art ]⌬t Ⳮ σ ⌬z t

(4.10)

Finally, the Heath, Jarrow, and Morton model goes one step further and allows the volatility to be a function of time. The downside of these no-arbitrage models, however, is that they impose no consistency between parameters estimated over different dates. They are also more sensitive to outliers, or data errors in bond prices used to ﬁt the term structure.

4.1.4

Binomial Trees

Simulations are very useful to mimic the uncertainty in risk factors, especially with numerous risk factors. In some situations, however, it is also useful to describe the uncertainty in prices with discrete trees. When the price can take one of two steps, the tree is said to be binomial.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS The binomial model can be viewed as a discrete equivalent to the geometric Brow-

nian motion. As before, we subdivide the horizon T into n intervals ⌬t ⳱ T 冫 n. At each “node,” the price is assumed to go either up with probability p, or down with probability 1 ⫺ p. The parameters u, d, p are chosen so that, for a small time interval, the expected return and variance equal those of the continuous process. One could choose u ⳱ eσ 冪⌬t ,

d ⳱ (1冫 u),

p⳱

eµ ⌬t ⫺ d u⫺d

(4.11)

This matches the mean E [S1 冫 S0 ] ⳱ pu Ⳮ (1 ⫺ p)d ⳱

eµ ⌬t ⫺ d u ⫺ eµ ⌬t eµ ⌬t (u ⫺ d ) ⫺ du Ⳮ ud uⳭ d⳱ ⳱ eµ ⌬t u⫺d u⫺d u⫺d

Table 4-2 shows how a binomial tree is constructed. TABLE 4-2 Binomial Tree 0

1

2

3 u3 S w

u2 S w

E u2 dS

uS w

E

w udS

S E

w

E d 2 uS

dS E

w d2S E d3S

As the number of steps increases, Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein (1979) have shown that the discrete distribution of ST converges to the lognormal distribution.2 This model will be used in a later chapter to price options.

2

Cox, J., Ross S., and Rubinstein M. (1979), Option Pricing: A Simpliﬁed Approach, Journal of Financial Economics 7, 229–263.

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Example 4-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 18/Quant. Analysis 4-1. If S1 follows a geometric Brownian motion and S2 follows a geometric Brownian motion, which of the following is true? a) Ln(S1 Ⳮ S2) is normally distributed. b) S1 ⫻ S2 is lognormally distributed. c) S1 ⫻ S2 is normally distributed. d) S1 Ⳮ S2 is normally distributed.

Example 4-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 19/Quant. Analysis 4-2. Considering the one-factor Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross term-structure model and the Vasicek model: I) Drift coefﬁcients are different. II) Both include mean reversion. III) Coefﬁcients of the stochastic term, dz , are different. IV) CIR is a jump-diffusion model. a) All of the above are true. b) I and III are true. c) II, III, and IV are true. d) II and III are true.

Example 4-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 25/Quant. Analysis 4-3. The Vasicek model deﬁnes a risk-neutral process for r which is dr ⳱ a(b ⫺ r )dt Ⳮ σ dz , where a, b, and σ are constant, and r represents the rate of interest. From this equation we can conclude that the model is a a) Monte Carlo-type model b) Single factor term-structure model c) Two-factor term-structure model d) Decision tree model

Example 4-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 26/Quant. Analysis 4-4. The term a(b ⫺ r ) in the equation in Question 25 represents which term? a) Gamma b) Stochastic c) Reversion d) Vega

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Example 4-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 30/Quant. Analysis 4-5. For which of the following currencies would it be most appropriate to choose a lognormal interest rate model over a normal model? a) USD b) JPY c) EUR d) GBP Example 4-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 23/Quant. Analysis 4-6. Which of the following interest rate term-structure models tends to capture the mean reversion of interest rates? a) dr ⳱ a ⫻ (b ⫺ r )dt Ⳮ σ ⫻ dz b) dr ⳱ a ⫻ dt Ⳮ σ ⫻ dz c) dr ⳱ a ⫻ r ⫻ dt Ⳮ σ ⫻ r ⫻ dz d) dr ⳱ a ⫻ (r ⫺ b) ⫻ dt Ⳮ σ ⫻ dz Example 4-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 24/Quant. Analysis 4-7. Which of the following is a shortcoming of modeling a bond option by applying Black-Scholes formula to bond prices? a) It fails to capture convexity in a bond. b) It fails to capture the pull-to-par phenomenon. c) It fails to maintain put-call parity. d) It works for zero-coupon bond options only. Example 4-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 118/Quant. Analysis 4-8. Which group of term-structure models do the Ho-Lee, Hull-White and Heath, Jarrow, and Morton models belong to? a) No-arbitrage models b) Two-factor models c) Lognormal models d) Deterministic models Example 4-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 119/Quant. Analysis 4-9. A plausible stochastic process for the short-term rate is often considered to be one where the rate is pulled back to some long-run average level. Which one of the following term-structure models does not include this characteristic? a) The Vasicek model b) The Ho-Lee model c) The Hull-White model d) The Cox-Ingersoll-Ross model

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Example 4-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 76 4-10. A martingale is a a) Zero-drift stochastic process b) Chaos-theory-related process c) Type of time series d) Mean-reverting stochastic process

4.2 4.2.1

Implementing Simulations Simulation for VAR

To summarize, the sequence of steps of Monte Carlo methods in risk management follows these steps: 1. Choose a stochastic process (including the distribution and its parameters). 2. Generate a pseudo-sequence of variables 1 , 2 , . . . n , from which we compute prices as StⳭ1 , StⳭ2 , . . . , StⳭn ⳱ ST . 3. Calculate the value of the portfolio FT (ST ) under this particular sequence of prices at the target horizon. 4. Repeat steps 2 and 3 as many times as necessary. Call K the number of replications. These steps create a distribution of values, FT1 , . . . , FTK , which can be sorted to derive the VAR. We measure the c th quantile Q(FT , c ) and the average value Ave(FT ). If VAR is deﬁned as the deviation from the expected value on the target date, we have VAR(c ) ⳱ Ave(FT ) ⫺ Q(FT , c )

4.2.2

(4.12)

Simulation for Derivatives

Readers familiar with derivatives pricing will have recognized that this method is similar to the Monte Carlo method for valuing derivatives. In that case, we simply focus on the expected value on the target date discounted into the present: Ft ⳱ e⫺r (T ⫺t ) Ave(FT )

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(4.13)

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Thus derivatives valuation focuses on the discounted center of the distribution, while VAR focuses on the quantile on the target date. Monte Carlo simulations have been long used to price derivatives. As will be seen in a later chapter, pricing derivatives can be done by assuming that the underlying asset grows at the risk-free rate r (assuming no income payment). For instance, pricing an option on a stock with expected return of 20% is done assuming that (1) the stock grows at the risk-free rate of 10% and (2) we discount at the same risk-free rate. This is called the risk-neutral approach. In contrast, risk measurement deals with actual distributions, sometimes called physical distributions. For measuring VAR, the risk manager must simulate asset growth using the actual expected return µ of 20%. Therefore, risk management uses physical distributions, whereas pricing methods use risk-neutral distributions. This can create difﬁculties, as risk-neutral probabilities can be inferred from observed asset prices, unlike not physical probabilities. It should be noted that simulation methods are not applicable to all types of options. These methods assume that the derivative at expiration can be priced solely as a function of the end-of-period price ST , and perhaps of its sample path. This is the case, for instance, with an Asian option, where the payoff is a function of the price averaged over the sample path. Such an option is said to be path-dependent. Simulation methods, however, cannot be used to price American options, which can be exercised early. The exercise decision should take into account future values of the option. Valuing American options requires modelling such decision process, which cannot be done in a regular simulation approach. Instead, this requires a backward recursion. This method examines whether the option should be exercised starting from the end and working backward in time until the starting time. This can be done using binomial trees.

4.2.3

Accuracy

Finally, we should mention the effect of sampling variability. Unless K is extremely large, the empirical distribution of ST will only be an approximation of the true distribution. There will be some natural variation in statistics measured from Monte Carlo simulations. Since Monte Carlo simulations involve independent draws, one can show that the standard error of statistics is inversely related to the square root of K . Thus

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more simulations will increase precision, but at a slow rate. Accuracy is increased by a factor of ten going from K ⳱ 10 to K ⳱ 1,000, but then requires going from K ⳱ 1,000 to K ⳱ 100,000 for the same factor of ten. For VAR measures, the precision is also a function of the selected conﬁdence level. Higher conﬁdence levels generate fewer observations in the left tail and hence less precise VAR measures. A 99% VAR using 1,000 replications should be expected to have only 10 observations in the left tail, which is not a large number. The VAR estimate is derived from the 10th and 11th sorted number. In contrast, a 95% VAR is measured from the 50th and 51th sorted number, which will be more precise. Various methods are available to speed up convergence. Antithetic Variable Technique This technique uses twice the same sequence of random draws i . It takes the original sequence and changes the sign of all their values. This creates twice the number of points in the ﬁnal distribution of FT . Control Variate Technique This technique is used with trees when a similar option has an analytical solution. Say that fE is a European option with an analytical solution. Going through the tree yields the values of an American and European option, FA and FE . We then assume that the error in FA is the same as that in FE , which is known. The adjusted value is FA ⫺ (FE ⫺ fE ). Quasi-Random Sequences These techniques, also called Quasi Monte Carlo (QMC), create draws that are not independent but instead are designed to ﬁll the sample space more uniformly. Simulations have shown that QMC methods converge faster than Monte Carlo. In other words, for a ﬁxed number of replications K , QMC values will be on average closer to the true value. The advantage of traditional MC, however, is that the MC method also provides a standard error, or a measure of precision of the estimate, which is on the order of 1冫 冪K , because draws are independent. So, we have an idea of how far the estimate might be from the true value, which is useful to decide on the number of replications. In contrast, QMC methods give no measure of precision.

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Example 4-11: FRM Exam 1999----Question 8/Quant. Analysis 4-11. Several different estimates of the VAR of an options portfolio were computed using 1,000 independent, lognormally distributed samples of the underlyings. Because each estimate was made using a different set of random numbers, there was some variability in the answers; in fact, the standard deviation of the distribution of answers was about $100,000. It was then decided to re-run the VAR calculation using 10,000 independent samples per run. The standard deviation of the reruns is most likely to be a) About $10,000 b) About $30,000 c) About $100,000 (i.e., no change from the previous set of runs) d) Cannot be determined from the information provided

TE

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Example 4-12: FRM Exam 1998----Question 34/Quant. Analysis 4-12. You have been asked to ﬁnd the value of an Asian option on the short rate. The Asian option gives the holder an amount equal to the average value of the short rate over the period to expiration less the strike rate. To value this option with a one-factor binomial model of interest rates, what method would you recommend using? a) The backward induction method, since it is the fastest b) The simulation method, using path averages since the option is path-dependent c) The simulation method, using path averages since the option is path-independent d) Either the backward induction method or the simulation method, since both methods return the same value Example 4-13: FRM Exam 1997----Question 17/Quant. Analysis 4-13. The measurement error in VAR, due to sampling variation, should be greater with a) More observations and a high conﬁdence level (e.g. 99%) b) Fewer observations and a high conﬁdence level c) More observations and a low conﬁdence level (e.g. 95%) d) Fewer observations and a low conﬁdence level

4.3

Multiple Sources of Risk

We now turn to the more general case of simulations with many sources of ﬁnancial risk. Deﬁne N as the number of risk factors. In what follows, we use matrix manipulations to summarize the method.

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If the factors Sj are independent, the randomization can be performed independently for each variable. For the GBM model, ⌬Sj,t ⳱ Sj,t ⫺1 µj ⌬t Ⳮ Sj,t ⫺1 σj j,t 冪⌬t

(4.14)

where the standard normal variables are independent across time and factor j ⳱ 1, . . . , N . In general, however, risk factors are correlated. The simulation can be adapted by, ﬁrst, drawing a set of independent variables

, and, second, transforming them into

correlated variables . As an example, with two factors only, we write 1 ⳱ 1 2 ⳱ ρ 1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2 2

(4.15)

Here, ρ is the correlation coefﬁcient between the variables . Because the s have unit variance and are uncorrelated, we verify that the variance of 2 is one, as required V(2 ) ⳱ ρ 2 V( 1 ) Ⳮ [(1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2 ]2 V( 2 ) ⳱ ρ 2 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ ρ 2 ) ⳱ 1, Furthermore, the correlation between 1 and 2 is given by Cov(1 , 2 ) ⳱ Cov( 1 , ρ 1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2 2 ) ⳱ ρ Cov( 1 , 1 ) ⳱ ρ Deﬁning as the vector of values, we veriﬁed that the covariance matrix of is V () ⳱

冋

册 冋 册

σ 2 (1 ) Cov(1 , 2 ) 1 ⳱ ρ σ 2 (2 ) Cov(1 , 2 )

ρ ⳱R 1

Note that this covariance matrix, which is the expectation of squared deviations from the mean, can also be written as V () ⳱ E [( ⫺ E ()) ⫻ ( ⫺ E ())⬘] ⳱ E ( ⫻ ⬘) because the expectation of is zero. More generally, we need a systematic method to derive the transformation in Equation (4.15) for many risk factors.

4.3.1

The Cholesky Factorization

We would like to generate N joint values of that display the correlation structure V () ⳱ E (⬘) ⳱ R . Because the matrix R is a symmetric real matrix, it can be decomposed into its so-called Cholesky factors R ⳱ TT⬘

(4.16)

where T is a lower triangular matrix with zeros on the upper right corners (above the diagonal). This is known as the Cholesky factorization.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS As in the previous section, we ﬁrst generate a vector of independent , which are

standard normal variables. Thus, the covariance matrix is V( ) ⳱ I , where I is the identity matrix with zeros everywhere except on the diagonal. We then construct the transformed variable ⳱ T . The covariance matrix is now V() ⳱ E (⬘) ⳱ E ((T )(T )⬘) ⳱ E (T ⬘T ⬘) ⳱ T E ( ⬘)T ⬘ ⳱ T V ( )T ⬘ ⳱ T IT ⬘ ⳱ T T ⬘ ⳱ R . This transformation therefore generates variables with the desired correlations. To illustrate, let us go back to our 2-variable case. The correlation matrix can be decomposed into its Cholesky factors as

冋 册 冋 1 ρ

ρ a ⳱ 11 a21 1

册冋

0 a11 a22 0

册 冋

2

a11 a21 ⳱ a22 a21 a11

a11 a21 2 Ⳮ a2 a21 22

册

To ﬁnd the entries a11 , a21 , a22 , we solve and substitute as follows 2 a11 ⳱1

a11 a21 ⳱ ρ 2 2 a21 Ⳮ a22 ⳱1

The Cholesky factorization is then

冋 册 冋 1 ρ

1 ρ ⳱ 1 ρ

册冋

0 1 ρ (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2 0 (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2

册

Note that this conforms precisely to Equation (4.15):

冋册 冋

1 1 ⳱ 2 ρ

0 (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2

册冋 册 1

2

In practice, this decomposition yields a number of useful insights. The decomposition will fail if the number of independent factors implied in the correlation matrix is less than N . For instance, if ρ ⳱ 1, meaning that we have twice the same factor, perhaps two currencies ﬁxed to each other, we have: a11 ⳱ 1, a21 ⳱ 1, a22 ⳱ 0. The new variables are then 1 ⳱ 1 and 2 ⳱ 1 . The second variable 2 is totally superﬂuous. This type of information can be used to reduce the dimension of the covariance matrix of risk factors. RiskMetrics, for instance, currently has about 400 variables. This translates into a correlation matrix with about 80,000 elements, which is huge. Simulations based on the full set of variables would be inordinately time-consuming. The art of simulation is to design parsimonious experiments that represent the breadth of movements in risk factors.

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Example 4-14: FRM Exam 1999----Question 29/Quant. Analysis 4-14. Given the covariance matrix, 0.09% 0.06% 0.03% ⌺ ⳱ 0.06% 0.05% 0.04% 0.03% 0.04% 0.06% let ⌺ ⳱ XX ⬘, where X is lower triangular, be a Cholesky decomposition. Then the four elements in the upper left-hand corner of X, x11 , x12 , x21 , x22 , are, respectively, a) 3.0%, 0.0%, 4.0%, 2.0% b) 3.0%, 4.0%, 0.0%, 2.0% c) 3.0%, 0.0%, 2.0%, 1.0% d) 2.0%, 0.0%, 3.0%, 1.0%

4.4

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 4-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 18/Quant. Analysis b) Both S1 and S2 are lognormally distributed since d ln(S 1) and d ln(S 2) are normally distributed. Since the logarithm of (S1*S2) is also its sum, it is also normally distributed and the variable S1*S2 is lognormally distributed. Example 4-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 19/Quant. Analysis d) Answers II and III are correct. Both models include mean reversion but have different variance coefﬁcients. None includes jumps. Example 4-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 25/Quant. Analysis b) This model postulates only one source of risk in the ﬁxed-income market. This is a single-factor term-structure model. Example 4-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 26/Quant. Analysis c) This represents the expected return with mean reversion. Example 4-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 30/Quant. Analysis b) (This requires some knowledge of markets) Currently, yen interest rates are very low, the lowest of the group. This makes it important to choose a model that, starting from current rates, does not allow negative interest rates, such as the lognormal model.

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Example 4-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 23/Quant. Analysis a) This is also Equation (4.8), assuming all parameters are positive. Example 4-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 24/Quant. Analysis b) The model assumes that prices follow a random walk with a constant trend, which is not consistent with the fact that the price of a bond will tend to par. Example 4-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 118/Quant. Analysis a) These are no-arbitrage models of the term structure, implemented as either onefactor or two-factor models. Example 4-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 119/Quant. Analysis b) Both the Vasicek and CIR models are one-factor equilibrium models with mean reversion. The Hull-White model is a no-arbitrage model with mean reversion. The Ho and Lee model is an early no-arbitrage model without mean-reversion. Example 4-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 76 a) A martingale is a stochastic process with zero drift dx ⳱ σ dz , where dz is a Wiener process, i.e. such that dz ⬃ N (0, dt ). The expectation of future value is the current value: E [xT ] ⳱ x0 , so it cannot be mean-reverting. Example 4-11: FRM Exam 1999----Question 8/Quant. Analysis b) Accuracy with independent draws increases with the square root of K . Thus multiplying the number of replications by a factor of 10 will shrink the standard errors from 100,000 to 100,000冫 冪10, or to approximately 30,000. Example 4-12: FRM Exam 1998----Question 34/Quant. Analysis b) (Requires knowledge of derivative products) Asian options create a payoff that depends on the average value of S during the life of the options. Hence, they are “pathdependent” and do not involve early exercise. Such options must be evaluated using simulation methods. Example 4-13: FRM Exam 1997----Question 17/Quant. Analysis b) Sampling variability (or imprecision) increases with (i) fewer observations and (ii) greater conﬁdence levels. To show (i), we can refer to the formula for the precision of the sample mean, which varies inversely with the square root of the number of data points. A similar reasoning applies to (ii). A greater conﬁdence level involves fewer observations in the left tails, from which VAR is computed.

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Example 4-14: FRM Exam 1999----Question 29/Quant. Analysis c) (Data-intensive) This involves a Cholesky decomposition. We have XX ⬘ ⳱ x11 x21 x31

0 x22 x32

0 0 x33

x11 0 0

x21 x22 0

x211 x31 x32 ⳱ x21 x11 x33 x31 x11

0.09% ⌺ ⳱ 0.06% 0.03%

x11 x21 2 2 x21 Ⳮ x22

x31 x21 Ⳮ x32 x22

0.06% 0.05% 0.04%

x11 x33 x21 x31 Ⳮ x22 x32 2 Ⳮ x2 x231 Ⳮ x32 33

0.03% 0.04% 0.06%

We then laboriously match each term, x211 ⳱ 0.0009, or x11 ⳱ 0.03. Next, x12 ⳱ 0 since this is in the upper right corner, above the diagonal. Next, x11 x21 ⳱ 0.0006, or x21 ⳱ 0.02. Next, x221 Ⳮ x222 ⳱ 0.0005, or x22 ⳱ 0.01.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

PART

two

Capital Markets

Chapter 5 Introduction to Derivatives This chapter provides an overview of derivative instruments. Derivatives are contracts traded in private over-the-counter (OTC) markets, or on organized exchanges. These instruments are fundamental building blocks of capital markets and can be broadly classiﬁed into two categories: linear and nonlinear instruments. To the ﬁrst category belong forward contracts, futures, and swaps. These are obligations to exchange payments according to a speciﬁed schedule. Forward contracts are relatively simple to evaluate and price. So are futures, which are traded on exchanges. Swaps are more complex but generally can be reduced to portfolios of forward contracts. To the second category belong options, which are traded both OTC and on exchanges. These will be covered in the next chapter. This chapter describes the general characteristics as well as the pricing of linear derivatives. Pricing is the ﬁrst step toward risk measurement. The second step consists of combining the valuation formula with the distribution of underlying risk factors to derive the distribution of contract values. This will be done later, in the market risk section. Section 5.1 provides an overview of the size of the derivatives markets. Section 5.2 then presents the valuation and pricing of forwards. Sections 5.3 and 5.4 introduce futures and swap contracts, respectively.

5.1

Overview of Derivatives Markets

A derivative instrument can be generally deﬁned as a private contract whose value derives from some underlying asset price, reference rate or index—such as a stock, bond, currency, or a commodity. In addition, the contract must also specify a principal, or notional amount, which is deﬁned in terms of currency, shares, bushels, or some other unit. Movements in the value of the derivative are obtained as a function of the notional and the underlying price or index.

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In contrast with securities, such as stocks and bonds, which are issued to raise capital, derivatives are contracts, or private agreements between two parties. Thus the sum of gains and losses on derivatives contracts must be zero; for any gain made by one party, the other party must have suffered a loss of equal magnitude. At the broadest level, derivatives markets can be classiﬁed by the underlying instrument, as well as by type of trading. Table 5-1 describes the size and growth of the TABLE 5-1 Global Derivatives Markets - 1995-2001 (Billions of U.S. Dollars) Notional Amounts March 1995 47,530

AM FL Y

OTC Instruments

Dec. 2001 111,115

26,645 4,597 18,283 3,548 13,095 8,699 1,957 2,379 579 52 527 318 6,893 8,838

77,513 7,737 58,897 10,879 16,748 10,336 3,942 2,470 1,881 320 1,561 598 14,375 23,799

Interest rate contracts Futures Options Foreign exchange contracts Futures Options Stock-index contracts Futures Options Total

8,380 5,757 2,623 88 33 55 370 128 242 55,910

21,758 9,265 12,493 93 66 27 1,947 342 1,605 134,914

TE

Interest rate contracts Forwards (FRAs) Swaps Options Foreign exchange contracts Forwards and forex swaps Swaps Options Equity-linked contracts Forwards and swaps Options Commodity contracts Others Exchange-Traded Instruments

Source: Bank for International Settlements

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global derivatives markets. As of December 2001, the total notional amounts add up to $135 trillion, of which $111 trillion is on OTC markets and $24 trillion on organized exchanges. The table shows that interest rate contracts are the most widespread type of derivatives, especially swaps. On the OTC market, currency contracts are also widely used, especially outright forwards and forex swaps, which are a combination of spot and short-term forward transactions. Among exchange-traded instruments, interest rate futures and options are the most common. The magnitude of the notional amount of $135 trillion is difﬁcult to grasp. This number is several times the world gross domestic product (GDP), which amounts to approximately $30 trillion. It is also greater than the total outstanding value of stocks and bonds, which is around $70 trillion. Notional amounts give an indication of equivalent positions in cash markets. For example, a long futures contract on a stock index with a notional of $1 million is equivalent to a cash position in the stock market of the same magnitude. Notional amounts, however, do not give much information about the risks of the positions. The liquidation value of OTC derivatives contracts, for instance, is estimated at $3.8 trillion, which is only 3 percent of the notional. For futures contracts, which are marked-to-market daily, market values are close to zero. The risk of these derivatives is best measured by the potential change in mark-to-market values over the horizon, or their value at risk (VAR).

5.2 5.2.1

Forward Contracts Deﬁnition

The most common transactions in ﬁnancial instruments are spot transactions, that is, for physical delivery as soon as practical (perhaps in 2 business days or in a week). Historically, grain farmers went to a centralized location to meet buyers for their product. As markets developed, the farmers realized that it would be beneﬁcial to trade for delivery at some future date. This allowed them to hedge out price ﬂuctuations for the sale of their anticipated production.

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This gave rise to forward contracts, which are private agreements to exchange a given asset against cash at a ﬁxed point in the future.1 The terms of the contract are the quantity (number of units or shares), date, and price at which the exchange will be done. A position which implies buying the asset is said to be long. A position to sell is said to be short. Note that, since this instrument is a private contract, any gain to one party must be a loss to the other. These instruments represent contractual obligations, as the exchange must occur whatever happens to the intervening price, unless default occurs. Unlike an option contract, there is no choice in taking delivery or not. To avoid the possibility of losses, the farmer could enter a forward sale of grain for dollars. By so doing, he locks up a price now for delivery in the future. We then say that the farmer is hedged against movements in the price. We use the notations, t ⳱current time T ⳱time of delivery τ ⳱ T ⫺ t ⳱time to maturity St ⳱current spot price of the asset in dollars Ft (T ) ⳱current forward price of the asset for delivery at T (also written as Ft or F to avoid clutter) Vt ⳱current value of contract r ⳱current domestic risk-free rate for delivery at T n ⳱quantity, or number of units in contract The face amount, or principal value of the contract is deﬁned as the amount nF to pay at maturity, like a bond. This is also called the notional amount. We will assume that interest rates are continuously compounded so that the present value of a dollar paid at expiration is PV($1) ⳱ e⫺r τ . Say that the initial forward price is Ft ⳱ $100. A speculator agrees to buy n ⳱ 500 units for Ft at T . At expiration, the payoff on the forward contract is determined as follows: 1

More generally, any agreement to exchange an asset for another and not only against cash.

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(1) The speculator pays nF ⳱ $50, 000 in cash and receives 500 units of the underlying. (2) The speculator could then sell the underlying at the prevailing spot price ST , for a proﬁt of n(ST ⫺ F ). For example, if the spot price is at ST ⳱ $120, the proﬁt is 500 ⫻ ($120 ⫺ $100) ⳱ $10, 000. This is also the mark-to-market value of the contract at expiration. In summary, the value of the forward contract at expiration, for one unit of the underlying asset is VT ⳱ ST ⫺ F

(5.1)

Here, the value of the contract at expiration is derived from the purchase and physical delivery of the underlying asset. There is a payment of cash in exchange for the actual asset. Another mode of settlement is cash settlement. This involves simply measuring the market value of the asset upon maturity, ST , and agreeing for the “long” to receive nVT ⳱ n(ST ⫺ F ). This amount can be positive or negative, involving a proﬁt or loss. Figures 5-1 and 5-2 present the payoff patterns on long and short positions in a forward contract, respectively. It is important to note that the payoffs are linear in the underlying spot price. Also, the positions are symmetrical around the horizontal FIGURE 5-1 Payoff of Proﬁts on Long Forward Contract Payoff 50 40 30 20 10 0 -10 -20 -30 -40 -50 50

60

70 80 90 100 110 120 Spot price of underlying at expiration

130

140

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FIGURE 5-2 Payoff of Proﬁts on Short Forward Contract Payoff 50 40 30 20 10 0 -10 -20 -30 -40 -50 50

60

70 80 90 100 110 120 Spot price of underlying at expiration

130

140

150

axis. For a given spot price, the sum of the proﬁt or loss for the long and the short is zero. This reﬂects the fact that forwards are private contracts between two parties.

5.2.2

Valuing Forward Contracts

When evaluating forward contracts, two important questions arise. First, how is the current forward price Ft determined? Second, what is the current value Vt of an outstanding forward contract? Initially, we assume that the underlying asset pays no income. This will be generalized in the next section. We also assume no transaction costs, that is, zero bid-ask spread on spot and forward quotations as well as the ability to lend and borrow at the same risk-free rate. Generally, forward contracts are established so that their initial value is zero. This is achieved by setting the forward price Ft appropriately by a no-arbitrage relationship between the cash and forward markets. No-arbitrage is a situation where positions with the same payoffs have the same price. This rules out situations where arbitrage proﬁts can exist. Arbitrage is a zero-risk, zero-net investment strategy that still generates proﬁts.

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Consider these strategies: (1) Buy one share/unit of the underlying asset at the spot price St and hold until time T . (2) Enter a forward contract to buy one share/unit of same underlying asset at the forward price Ft ; in order to have sufﬁcient funds at maturity to pay Ft , we invest the present value of Ft in an interest-bearing account. This is the present value Ft e⫺r τ . The forward price Ft is set so that the initial cost of the forward contract, Vt , is zero. The two portfolios are economically equivalent because they will be identical at maturity. Each will contain one share of the asset. Hence their up-front cost must be the same: St ⳱ Ft e⫺r τ

(5.2)

This equation deﬁnes the fair forward price Ft such that the initial value of the contract is zero. For instance, assuming St ⳱ $100, r ⳱ 5%, τ ⳱ 1, we have Ft ⳱ St er τ ⳱ $100 ⫻ exp(0.05 ⫻ 1) ⳱ $105.13. We see that the forward rate is higher than the spot rate. This reﬂects the fact that there is no down payment to enter the forward contract, unlike for the cash position. As a result, the forward price must be higher than the spot price to reﬂect the time value of money. In practice, this relationship must be tempered by transaction costs. Abstracting from these costs, any deviation creates an arbitrage opportunity. This can be taken advantage of by buying the cheap asset and selling the expensive one. Assume for instance that F ⳱ $110. The fair value is St er τ ⳱ $105.13. We apply the principle of buying low at $105.13 and selling high at $110. We can lock in a sure proﬁt by: (1) Buying the asset spot at $100 (2) Selling the asset forward at $110 Because we know we will receive $110 in one year, we could borrow against this, which brings in $110 ⫻ PV($1), or $104.64. Thus we are paying $100 and receiving $104.64 now, for a proﬁt of $4.64. This would be a blatant arbitrage opportunity, or “money machine.” Now consider a mispricing where F ⳱ $102. We apply the principle of buying low at $102 and selling high at $105.13. We can lock in a sure proﬁt by: (1) Short-selling the asset spot at $100 (2) Buying the asset forward at $102

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Because we know we will have to pay $102 in one year, this is worth $102 ⫻ PV($1), or $97.03, which we need to invest up front. Thus we are paying $97.03 and receiving $100, for a proﬁt of $2.97. This transaction involves the short-sale of the asset, which is more involved than an outright purchase. When purchasing, we pay $100 and receive one share of the asset. When short-selling, we borrow one share of the asset and promise to give it back at a future date; in the meantime, we sell it at $100.2 When time comes to deliver the asset, we have to buy it on the open market and then deliver it to the counterparty.

5.2.3

Valuing an Off-Market Forward Contract

We can use the same reasoning to evaluate an outstanding forward contract, with a locked-in delivery price of K . In general, such a contract will have non zero value because K differs from the prevailing forward rate. Such a contract is said to be offmarket. Consider these strategies: (1) Buy one share/unit of the underlying asset at the spot price St and hold until time T . (2) Enter a forward contract to buy one share/unit of same underlying asset at the price K ; in order to have sufﬁcient funds at maturity to pay K , we invest the present value of K in an interest-bearing account. This present value is also Ke⫺r τ . In addition, we have to pay the market value of the forward contract, or Vt . The up-front cost of the two portfolios must be identical. Hence, we must have Vt Ⳮ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ St , or Vt ⳱ St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ

(5.3)

which deﬁnes the market value of an outstanding long position.3 This gains value when the underlying increases in value. A short position would have the reverse sign. Later, we will extend this relationship to the measurement of risk by considering the distribution of the underlying risk factors, St and r .

2

In practice, we may not get full access to the proceeds of the sale when it involves individual stocks. The broker will typically only allow us to withdraw 50% of the cash. The rest is kept as a performance bond should the transaction lose money. 3 Note that Vt is not the same as the forward price Ft . The former is the value of the contract; the latter refers to a speciﬁcation of the contract.

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For instance, assume we still hold the previous forward contract with Ft ⳱ $105.13 and after one month the spot price moves to St ⳱ $110. The interest has not changed at r ⳱ 5%, but the maturity is now shorter by one month, τ ⳱ 11冫 12. The value of the contract is now Vt ⳱ St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ $110 ⫺ $105.13exp(⫺0.05 ⫻ 11冫 12) ⳱ $110 ⫺ $100.42 ⳱ $9.58. The contract is now more valuable than before since the spot price has moved up.

5.2.4

Valuing Forward Contracts With Income Payments

We previously considered a situation where the asset produces no income payment. In practice, the asset may be ● A stock that pays a regular dividend ● A bond that pays a regular coupon ● A stock index that pays a dividend stream that can be approximated by a continuous yield ● A foreign currency that pays a foreign-currency denominated interest rate Whichever income is paid on the asset, we can usefully classify the payment into discrete, that is, ﬁxed dollar amounts at regular points in time, or on a continuous basis, that is, accrued in proportion to the time the asset is held. We must assume that the income payment is ﬁxed or is certain. More generally, a storage cost is equivalent to a negative dividend. We use these deﬁnitions: D ⳱ discrete (dollar) dividend or coupon payment rtⴱ (T ) ⳱ foreign risk-free rate for delivery at T qtⴱ (T ) ⳱ dividend yield The adjustment is the same for all these payments. We can afford to invest less in the asset up front to get one unit at expiration. This is because the income payment can be reinvested into the asset. Alternatively, we can borrow against the value of the income payment to increase our holding of the asset. Continuing our example, consider a stock priced at $100 that pays a dividend of D ⳱ $1 in three months. The present value of this payment discounted over three months is De⫺r τ ⳱ $1 exp(⫺0.05 ⫻ 3冫 12) ⳱ $0.99. We only need to put up

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St ⫺ PV(D ) ⳱ $100.00 ⫺ 0.99 ⳱ $99.01 to get one share in one year. Put differently, we buy 0.9901 fractional shares now and borrow against the (sure) dividend payment of $1 to buy an additional 0.0099 fractional share, for a total of 1 share. The pricing formula in Equation (5.2) is extended to Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St ⫺ PV(D )

(5.4)

where PV(D) is the present value of the dividend/coupon payments. If there is more than one payment, PV(D) represents the sum of the present values of each individual payment, discounted at the appropriate risk-free rate. With storage costs, we need to add the present value of storage costs PV(C ) to the right side of Equation (5.4). The approach is similar for an asset that pays a continuous income, deﬁned per unit time instead of discrete amounts. Holding a foreign currency, for instance, should be done through an interest-bearing account paying interest that accrues with time. Over the horizon τ , we can afford to invest less up front, St e⫺r

ⴱτ

in order to receive

one unit at maturity. Hence the forward price should be such that Ft ⳱ St e⫺r

ⴱτ

冫 e ⫺r τ

(5.5)

If instead interest rates are annually compounded, this gives Ft ⳱ St (1 Ⳮ r )τ 冫 (1 Ⳮ r ⴱ )τ

(5.6)

If r ⴱ ⬍ r , we have Ft ⬎ St and the asset trades at a forward premium. Conversely, if r ⴱ ⬎ r , Ft ⬍ St and the asset trades at a forward discount. Thus the forward price is higher or lower than the spot price, depending on whether the yield on the asset is lower than or higher than the domestic risk-free interest rate. Note also that, for this equation to be valid, both the spot and forward prices have to be expressed in dollars, or domestic currency units that correspond to the rate r . Equation (5.5) is also known as interest rate parity when dealing with currencies. Key concept: The forward rate differs from the spot rate to reﬂect the time value of money and the income yield on the underlying asset. It is higher than the spot rate if the yield on the asset is lower than the risk-free interest rate, and vice versa. The value of an outstanding forward contract is V t ⳱ St e ⫺ r

ⴱτ

⫺ Ke⫺r τ

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If Ft is the new, current forward price, we can also write Vt ⳱ Ft e⫺r τ ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ (F ⫺ K )e⫺r τ

(5.8)

This provides a useful alternative formula for the valuation of a forward contract. The intuition here is that we could liquidate the outstanding forward contract by entering a reverse position at the current forward rate. The payoff at expiration is (F ⫺ K ), which, discounted back to the present, gives Equation (5.8).

Key concept: The current value of an outstanding forward contract can be found by entering an offsetting forward position and discounting the net cash ﬂow at expiration.

Example 5-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 49/Capital Markets 5-1. Assume the spot rate for euro against U.S. dollar is 1.05 (i.e. 1 euro buys 1.05 dollars). A U.S. bank pays 5.5% compounded annually for one year for a dollar deposit and a German bank pays 2.5% compounded annually for one year for a euro deposit. What is the forward exchange rate one year from now? a) 1.0815 b) 1.0201 c) 1.0807 d) 1.0500

Example 5-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 31/Capital Markets 5-2. Consider an eight-month forward contract on a stock with a price of $98/share. The delivery date is eight months hence. The ﬁrm is expected to pay a $1.80/share dividend in four months time. Riskless zero-coupon interest rates (continuously compounded) for different maturities are for less than/equal to 6 months, 4%; for 8 months, 4.5%. The theoretical forward price (to the nearest cent) is a) 99.15 b) 99.18 c) 100.98 d) 96.20

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Example 5-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 93 5-3. Calculate the price of a 1-year forward contract on gold. Assume the storage cost for gold is $5.00 per ounce with payment made at the end of the year. Spot gold is $290 per ounce and the risk free rate is 5%. a) $304.86 b) $309.87 c) $310.12 d) $313.17

TE

AM FL Y

Example 5-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 4/Capital Markets 5-4. On Friday, October 4, the spot price of gold was $378.85 per troy ounce. The price of an April gold futures contract was $387.20 per troy ounce. (Note: Each gold futures contract is for 100 troy ounces.) Assume that a Treasury bill maturing in April with an “ask yield” of 5.28 percent provides the relevant ﬁnancing (borrowing or lending rate). Use 180 days as the term to maturity (with continuous compounding and a 365-day year). Also assume that warehousing and delivery costs are negligible and ignore convenience yields. What is the theoretically correct price for the April futures contract and what is the potential arbitrage proﬁt per contract? a) $379.85 and $156.59 b) $318.05 and $615.00 c) $387.84 and $163.25 d) $388.84 and $164.00

Example 5-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 41/Capital Markets 5-5. Assume a dollar asset provides no income for the holder and an investor can borrow money at risk-free interest rate r , then the forward price F for time T and spot price S at time t of the asset are related. If the investor observes that F ⬎ S exp[r (T ⫺ t )], then the investor can take a proﬁt by a) Borrowing S dollars for a period of (T ⫺ t ) at the rate of r , buy the asset, and short the forward contract. b) Borrowing S dollars for a period of (T ⫺ t ) at the rate of r , buy the asset, and long the forward contract. c) Selling short the asset and invest the proceeds of S dollars for a period of (T ⫺ t ) at the rate of r , and short the forward contract. d) Selling short the asset and invest the proceeds of S dollars for a period of (T ⫺ t ) at the rate of r , and long the forward contract.

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Futures Contracts

5.3.1

Deﬁnitions of Futures

Forward contracts allow users to take positions that are economically equivalent to those in the underlying cash markets. Unlike cash markets, however, they do not involve substantial up-front payments. Thus, forward contracts can be interpreted as having leverage. Leverage is that it creates credit risk for the counterparty. When a speculator buys a stock at the price of $100, the counterparty receives the cash and has no credit risk. Instead, when a speculator enters a forward contract to buy an asset at the price of $105, there is very little up-front payment. In effect the speculator borrows from the counterparty to invest in the asset. There is a risk that if the price of the asset and hence the value of the contract falls sufﬁciently, the speculator could default. In response, futures contracts have been structured so as to minimize credit risk for all counterparties. From a market risk standpoint, futures contracts are identical to forward contracts. The pricing relationships are generally similar. Some of the features of futures contracts are now ﬁnding their way into OTC forward and swap markets. Futures contracts are standardized, negotiable, and exchange-traded contracts to buy or sell an underlying asset. They differ from forward contracts as follows. Trading on organized exchanges In contrast to forwards, which are OTC contracts tailored to customers’ needs, futures are traded on organized exchanges (either with a physical location or electronic). Standardization Futures contracts are offered with a limited choice of expiration dates. They trade in ﬁxed contract sizes. This standardization ensures an active secondary market for many futures contracts, which can be easily traded, purchased or resold. In other words, most futures contracts have good liquidity. The trade-off is that futures are less precisely suited to the need of some hedgers, which creates basis risk (to be deﬁned later).

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Clearinghouse Futures contracts are also standardized in terms of the counterparty. After each transaction is conﬁrmed, the clearinghouse basically interposes itself between the buyer and the seller, ensuring the performance of the contract (for a fee). Thus, unlike forward contracts, counterparties do not have to worry about the credit risk of the other side of the trade. Instead, the credit risk is that of the clearinghouse (or the broker), which is generally excellent. Marking-to-market As the clearinghouse now has to deal with the credit risk of the two original counterparties, it has to develop mechanisms to monitor credit risk. This is achieved by daily marking-to-market, which involves settlement of the gains and losses on the contract every day. The goal is to avoid a situation where a speculator loses a large amount of money on a trade and defaults, passing on some of the losses to the clearinghouse. Margins Although daily settlement accounts for past losses, it does not provide a buffer against future losses. This is the goal of margins, which represent up-front posting of collateral that provides some guarantee of performance.

Example: Margins for a futures contract Consider a futures contract on 1000 units of an asset worth $100. A long futures position is economically equivalent to holding $100,000 worth of the asset directly. To enter the futures position, a speculator has to post only $5,000 in margin, for example. This represents the initial value of the equity account. The next day, the proﬁt or loss is added to the equity account. If the futures price moves down by $3, the loss is $3,000, bringing the equity account down to $5,000⫺$3,000 ⳱ $2,000. The speculator is then required to post an additional $3,000 of capital. In case he or she fails to meet the margin call, the broker has the right to liquidate the position. Since futures trading is centralized on an exchange, it is easy to collect and report aggregate trading data. Volume is the number of contracts traded during the day, which is a ﬂow item. Open interest represents the outstanding number of contracts at the close of the day, which is a stock item.

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INTRODUCTION TO DERIVATIVES

119

Valuing Futures Contracts

Valuation principles for futures contracts are very similar to those for forward contracts. The main difference between the two types of contracts is that any proﬁt or loss accrues during the life of the futures contract instead of all at once, at expiration. When interest rates are assumed constant or deterministic, forward and futures prices must be equal. With stochastic interest rates, the difference is small, unless the value of the asset is highly correlated with the interest rate. If the correlation is zero, then it makes no difference whether payments are received earlier or later. The futures price must be the same as the forward price. In contrast, consider a contract whose price is positively correlated with the interest rate. If the value of the contract goes up, it is more likely that interest rates will go up as well. This implies that proﬁts can be withdrawn and reinvested at a higher rate. Relative to forward contracts, this marking-to-market feature is beneﬁcial to long futures position. Because both parties recognize this feature, the futures price must be higher in equilibrium. In practice, this effect is only observable for interest-rate futures contracts, whose value is negatively correlated with interest rates. For these contracts, the futures price must be lower than the forward price. Chapter 8 will explain how to compute the adjustment, called the convexity effect. Example 5-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 7/Capital Markets 5-6. For assets that are strongly positively correlated with interest rates, which one of the following is true? a) Long-dated forward contracts will have higher prices than long-dated futures contracts. b) Long-dated futures contracts will have higher prices than long-dated forward contracts. c) Long-dated forward and long-dated futures prices are always the same. d) The “convexity effect” can be ignored for long-dated futures contracts on that asset.

5.4

Swap Contracts

Swap contracts are OTC agreements to exchange a series of cash ﬂows according to prespeciﬁed terms. The underlying asset can be an interest rate, an exchange rate, an

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equity, a commodity price, or any other index. Typically, swaps are established for longer periods than forwards and futures. For example, a 10-year currency swap could involve an agreement to exchange every year 5 million dollars against 3 million pounds over the next ten years, in addition to a principal amount of 100 million dollars against 50 million pounds at expiration. The principal is also called notional principal. Another example is that of a 5-year interest rate swap in which one party pays 8% of the principal amount of 100 million dollars in exchange for receiving an interest payment indexed to a ﬂoating interest rate. In this case, since both payments are tied to the same principal amount, there is no exchange of principal at maturity. Swaps can be viewed as a portfolio of forward contracts. They can be priced using valuation formulas for forwards. Our currency swap, for instance, can be viewed as a combination of ten forward contracts with various face values, maturity dates, and rates of exchange. We will give detailed examples in later chapters.

5.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 5-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 49/Capital Markets a) Using annual compounding, (1 Ⳮ r )1 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ 0.055) ⳱ 1.055 and (1 Ⳮ r ⴱ )1 ⳱ 1.025. The spot rate of 1.05 is expressed in dollars per euro, S ($冫 EUR ). From Equation (5.6), we have F ⳱ S ($冫 EUR ) ⫻ (1 Ⳮ r )τ 冫 (1 Ⳮ r ⴱ )τ ⳱ $1.05 ⫻ 1.055冫 1.025 ⳱ $1.08073. Intuitively, since the euro interest rate is lower than the dollar interest rate, the euro must be selling at a higher price in the forward than in the spot market. Example 5-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 31/Capital Markets a) We need ﬁrst to compute the PV of the dividend payment, which is PV(D ) ⳱ $1.8exp(⫺0.04 ⫻ 4冫 12) ⳱ $1.776. By Equation (5.4), we have F ⳱ [S ⫺ PV(D )]exp(r τ ). Hence, F ⳱ ($98 ⫺ $1.776)exp(0.045 ⫻ 8冫 12) ⳱ $99.15. Example 5-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 93 b) Assuming continuous compounding, the present value factor is PV ⳱ exp(⫺0.05) ⳱ 0.951. Here, the storage cost C is equivalent to a negative dividend and must be evaluated as of now. This gives PV(C ) ⳱ $5 ⫻ 0.951 ⳱ $4.756. Generalizing Equation (5.4), we have F ⳱ (S Ⳮ PV(C ))冫 PV($1) ⳱ ($290 Ⳮ $4.756)冫 0.951 ⳱ $309.87. Assuming discrete compounding gives $309.5, which is close.

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Example 5-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 4/Capital Markets d) The theoretical forward/futures rate is given by F ⳱ Ser τ ⳱ 378.85 ⫻ exp(0.0528 ⫻ 180冫 365) ⳱ $388.844 with continuous compounding. Discrete compounding gives a close answer, $388.71. This is consistent with the observation that futures rates must be greater than spot rates when there is no income on the underlying asset. The proﬁt is then 100 ⫻ (388.84 ⫺ 387.20) ⳱ 164.4. Example 5-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 41/Capital Markets a) The forward price is too high relative to the fair rate, so we need to sell the forward contract. In exchange, we need to buy the asset. To ensure a zero initial cash ﬂow, we need to borrow the present value of the asset. Example 5-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 7/Capital Markets b) The convexity effect is important for long-dated contracts, so (d) is wrong. This positive correlation makes it more beneﬁcial to have a long futures position since proﬁts can be reinvested at higher rates. Hence the futures price must be higher than the forward price. Note that the relationship assumed here is the opposite to that of Eurodollar futures contracts, where the value of the asset is negatively correlated with interest rates.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 6 Options This chapter now turns to nonlinear derivatives, or options. As described in Table 5-1, options account for a large part of the derivatives markets. On organized exchanges, options represent $14 trillion out of a total of $24 trillion in derivatives outstanding. Over-the-counter (OTC) options add up to more than $15 trillion. Although the concept behind these instruments are not new, options have blossomed since the early 1970s, because of a break-through in pricing options, the BlackScholes formula, and to advances in computing power. We start with plain, vanilla options, calls and puts. These are the basic building blocks of many ﬁnancial instruments. They are also more common than complicated, exotic options. This chapter describes the general characteristics as well as the pricing of these derivatives. Section 6.1 presents the payoff functions on basic options and combinations thereof. We then discuss option premiums and the Black-Scholes pricing approach in Section 6.2. Next, Section 6.3 brieﬂy summarizes more complex options. Finally, Section 6.4 shows how to value options using a numerical, binomial tree model. We will cover option sensitivities (the “Greeks”) in Chapter 15.

6.1 6.1.1

Option Payoffs Basic Options

Options are instruments that give their holder the right to buy or sell an asset at a speciﬁed price until a speciﬁed expiration date. The speciﬁed delivery price is known as the delivery price, exercise price, or strike price, and is denoted by K . Options to buy are call options; options to sell are put options. As options confer a right to the purchaser of the option, but not an obligation, they will be exercised only if they generate proﬁts. In contrast, forwards involve an obligation to either buy or sell and can generate proﬁts or losses. Like forward contracts, options can be either purchased or sold. In the latter case, the seller is said to write the option.

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Depending on the timing of exercise, options can be classiﬁed into European or American options. European options can be exercised at maturity only. American options can be exercised at any time, before or at maturity. Because American options include the right to exercise at maturity, they must be at least as valuable as European options. In practice, however, the value of this early exercise feature is small, as an investor can generally receive better value by reselling the option on the open market instead of exercising it. We use these notations, in addition to those in the previous chapter: K ⳱exercise price c ⳱value of European call option C ⳱value of American call option p ⳱value of European put option P ⳱value of American put option To illustrate, take an option on an asset that currently trades at $85 with a delivery price of $100 in one year. If the spot price stays at $85, the holder of the call will not exercise the option, because the option is not proﬁtable with a stock price less than $100. In contrast, if the price goes to $120, the holder will exercise the right to buy at $100, will acquire the stock now worth $120, and will enjoy a “paper” proﬁt of $20. This proﬁt can be realized by selling the stock. For put options, a proﬁt accrues if the spot price falls below the exercise price K ⳱ $100. Thus the payoff proﬁle of a long position in the call option at expiration is CT ⳱ Max(ST ⫺ K, 0)

(6.1)

The payoff proﬁle of a long position in a put option is PT ⳱ Max(K ⫺ ST , 0)

(6.2)

If the current asset price St is close to the strike price K , the option is said to be atthe-money. If the current asset price St is such that the option could be exercised at a proﬁt, the option is said to be in-the-money. If the remaining situation, the option is said to be out-of-the-money. A call will be in-the-money if St ⬎ K ; a put will be in-the-money if St ⬍ K ; As in the case of forward contracts, the payoff at expiration can be cash settled. Instead of actually buying the asset, the contract could simply pay $20 if the price of the asset is $120.

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Because buying options can generate only proﬁts (at worst zero) at expiration, an option contract must be a valuable asset (or at worst have zero value). This means that a payment is needed to acquire the contract. This up-front payment, which is much like an insurance premium, is called the option “premium.” This premium cannot be negative. An option becomes more expensive as it moves in-the-money. Thus the payoffs on options must take into account this cost (for long positions) or beneﬁt (for short positions). To be complete, we should translate all option payoffs by the future value of the premium, that is, cer τ for European call options. Figure 6-1 compares the payoff patterns on long and short positions in a call and a put contract. Unlike those of forwards, these payoffs are nonlinear in the underlying spot price. Sometimes they are referred to as the “hockey stick” diagrams. This is because forwards are obligations, whereas options are rights. Note that the positions are symmetrical around the horizontal axis. For a given spot price, the sum of the proﬁt or loss for the long and for the short is zero. So far, we have covered options on cash instruments. Options can also be struck on futures. When exercising a call, the investor becomes long the futures at a price set to the strike price. Conversely, exercising a put creates a short position in the futures contract. FIGURE 6-1 Proﬁt Payoffs on Long and Short Calls and Puts Buy call

Buy put

Sell call

Sell put

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Because positions in futures are equivalent to leveraged positions in the underlying cash instrument, options on cash instruments and on futures are also equivalent. The only conceptual difference lies in the income payment to the underlying instrument. With an option on cash, the income is the dividend or interest on the cash instrument. In contrast, with a futures contract, the economically equivalent stream of income is the riskless interest rate. The intuition is that a futures can be viewed as equivalent to a position in the underlying asset with the investor setting aside an amount of cash equivalent to the present value of F .

6.1.2

Put-Call Parity

AM FL Y

Key concept: With an option on futures, the implicit income is the risk-free rate of interest.

These option payoffs can be used as the basic building blocks for more complex positions. At the most basic level, a long position in the underlying asset (plus some borrowing) can be decomposed into a long call plus a short put, as shown in Figure

TE

6-2. We only consider European options with the same maturity and exercise price. The long call provides the equivalent of the upside while the short put generates the same downside risk as holding the asset. FIGURE 6-2 Decomposing a Long Position in the Asset Buy call

Sell put

Long asset

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This link creates a relationship between the value of the call and that of the put, also known as put-call parity. The relationship is illustrated in Table 6-1, which examines the payoff at initiation and at expiration under the two possible states of the world. We assume no income payment on the underlying asset. The portfolio consists of a long position in the call (with an outﬂow of c represented by ⫺c ), a short position in the put and an investment to ensure that we will be able to pay the exercise price at maturity. TABLE 6-1 Put-Call Parity Position: Buy call Sell put Invest Total

Initial Payoff ⫺c Ⳮp

⫺Ke⫺r τ ⫺c Ⳮ p ⫺ Ke⫺r τ

Final Payoff ST ⬍ K ST ⱖ K 0 ST ⫺ K 0 ⫺(K ⫺ ST ) K K ST ST

The table shows that the ﬁnal payoffs are, in the two states of the world, equal to that of a long position in the asset. Hence, to avoid arbitrage, the initial payoff must be equal to the cost of buying the underlying asset, which is St . We have ⫺c Ⳮp ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ ⫺St . More generally, with income paid at the rate of r ⴱ , put-call parity can be written as c ⫺ p ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ (F ⫺ K )e⫺r τ

(6.3)

Because c ⱖ 0 and p ⱖ 0, this relationship can be also used to determine the lower bounds for European calls and puts. Note that the relationship does not hold exactly for American options since there is a likelihood of early exercise, which leads to mismatched payoffs. Example 6-1. FRM Exam 1999----Question 35/Capital Markets 6-1. According to put-call parity, writing a put is like a) Buying a call, buying stock, and lending b) Writing a call, buying stock, and borrowing c) Writing a call, buying stock, and lending d) Writing a call, selling stock, and borrowing

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Example 6-2. FRM Exam 2000----Question 15/Capital Markets 6-2. A six-month call option sells for $30, with a strike price of $120. If the stock price is $100 per share and the risk-free interest rate is 5 percent, what is the price of a 6-month put option with a strike price of $120? a) $39.20 b) $44.53 c) $46.28 d) $47.04

6.1.3

Combination of Options

Options can be combined in different ways, either with each other or with the underlying asset. Consider ﬁrst combinations of the underlying asset and an option. A long position in the stock can be accompanied by a short sale of a call to collect the option premium. This operation, called a covered call, is described in Figure 6-3. Likewise, a long position in the stock can be accompanied by a purchase of a put to protect the downside. This operation is called a protective put. FIGURE 6-3 Creating a Covered Call Long asset

Sell call

Covered call

We can also combine a call and a put with the same or different strike prices and maturities. When the strike prices of the call and the put and their maturities are the same, the combination is referred to as a straddle. When the strike prices are

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different, the combination is referred to as a strangle. Since strangles are out-of-themoney, they are cheaper to buy than straddles. Figure 6-4 shows how to construct a long straddle, buying a call and a put with the same maturity and strike price. This position is expected to beneﬁt from a large price move, whether up or down. The reverse position is a short straddle. FIGURE 6-4 Creating a Long Straddle Buy call

Buy put

Long straddle

Thus far, we have concentrated on positions involving two classes of options. One can, however, establish positions with one class of options, called spreads. Calendar, or horizontal spreads correspond to different maturities. Vertical spreads correspond to different strike prices. The names of the spreads are derived from the manner in which they are listed in newspapers; time is listed horizontally and strike prices are listed vertically. For instance, a bull spread is positioned to take advantage of an increase in the price of the underlying asset. Conversely, a bear spread represents a bet on a falling price. Figure 6-5 shows how to construct a bull(ish) vertical spread with two calls with the same maturity (although this could also be constructed with puts). Here, the spread is formed by buying a call option with a low exercise price K1 and selling another call with a higher exercise price K2 . Note that the cost of the ﬁrst call c (S, K1 ) must exceed the cost of the second call c (S, K2 ), because the ﬁrst option is more inthe-money than the second. Hence, the sum of the two premiums represents a net

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cost. At expiration, when ST ⬎ K2 , the payoff is Max(ST ⫺ K1 , 0) ⫺ Max(ST ⫺ K2 , 0) ⳱ (ST ⫺ K1 ) ⫺ (ST ⫺ K2 ) ⳱ K2 ⫺ K1 , which is positive. Thus this position is expected to beneﬁt from an upmove, while incurring only limited downside risk. FIGURE 6-5 Creating a Bull Spread Buy call

Sell call

Bull spread

Spreads involving more than two positions are referred to as butterﬂy or sandwich spreads. The latter is the opposite of the former. A butterﬂy spread involves three types of options with the same maturity: a long call at a strike price K1 , two short calls at a higher strike price K2 , and a long call position at an even higher strike price K3 . We can verify that this position is expected to beneﬁt when the underlying asset price stays stable, close to K2 . Example 6-3. FRM Exam 2001----Question 90 6-3. Which of the following is the riskiest form of speculation using options contracts? a) Setting up a spread using call options b) Buying put options c) Writing naked call options d) Writing naked put options

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Example 6-4. FRM Exam 1999----Question 50/Capital Markets 6-4. A covered call writing position is equivalent to a) A long position in the stock and a long position in the call option b) A short put position c) A short position in the stock and a long position in the call option d) A short call position

Example 6-5. FRM Exam 1999----Question 33/Capital Markets 6-5. Which of the following will create a bull spread? a) Buy a put with a strike price of X ⳱ 50, and sell a put with K ⳱ 55. b) Buy a put with a strike price of X ⳱ 55, and sell a put with K ⳱ 50. c) Buy a call with a premium of 5, and sell a call with a premium of 7. d) Buy a call with a strike price of X ⳱ 50, and sell a put with K ⳱ 55.

Example 6-6. FRM Exam 2000----Question 5/Capital Markets 6-6. Consider a bullish spread option strategy of buying one call option with a $30 exercise price at a premium of $3 and writing a call option with a $40 exercise price at a premium of $1.50. If the price of the stock increases to $42 at expiration and the option is exercised on the expiration date, the net proﬁt per share at expiration (ignoring transaction costs) will be a) $8.50 b) $9.00 c) $9.50 d) $12.50

Example 6-7. FRM Exam 2001----Question 111 6-7. Consider the following bearish option strategy of buying one at-the-money put with a strike price of $43 for $6, selling two puts with a strike price of $37 for $4 each and buying one put with a strike price of $32 for $1. If the stock price plummets to $19 at expiration, calculate the net proﬁt or loss per share of the strategy. a) ⫺2.00 per share b) Zero; no proﬁt or loss c) 1.00 per share d) 2.00 per share

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PART II: CAPITAL MARKETS

Valuing Options Option Premiums

So far, we have examined the payoffs at expiration only. As important is the instantaneous relationship between the option value and the current price S , which is displayed in Figures 6-6 and 6-7. FIGURE 6-6 Relationship between Call Value and Spot Price Option value

Premium

Time value Intrinsic value Strike Out-of-the-money

At-the-money

In-the-money

For a call, a higher price S increases the current value of the option, but in a nonlinear, convex fashion. For a put, lower values for S increase the value of the option, also in a convex fashion. As time goes by, the curved line approaches the hockey stick line. Figures 6-6 and 6-7 decompose the current premium into: ● An intrinsic value, which basically consists of the value of the option if exercised today, or Max(St ⫺ K, 0) for a call, and Max(K ⫺ St , 0) for a put ● A time value, which consists of the remainder, reﬂecting the possibility that the option will create further gains in the future

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FIGURE 6-7 Relationship between Put Value and Spot Price Option value

Premium Time value Intrinsic value Spot

Strike In-the-money

At-the-money

Out-of-the-money

As shown in the ﬁgures, options are also classiﬁed into: ● At-the-money, when the current spot price is close to the strike price ● In-the-money, when the intrinsic value is large ● Out-of-the-money, when the spot price is much below the strike price for calls and conversely for puts (out-of-the-money options have zero intrinsic value) We can also identify some general bounds for European options that should always be satisﬁed; otherwise there would be an arbitrage opportunity (a money machine). For simplicity, assume no dividend. First, the value of a call must be less than, or equal to, the asset price: c ⱕ C ⱕ St

(6.4)

In the limit, an option with zero exercise price is equivalent to holding the stock. Second, the value of a call must be greater than, or equal to, the price of the asset minus the present value of the strike price: c ⱖ St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ

(6.5)

To prove this, Table 6-2 considers the ﬁnal payoffs for two portfolios: (1) a long call and (2) a long stock with a loan of K . In each case, an outﬂow, or payment, is represented with a negative sign. A receipt has a positive sign.

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We consider the two states of the world, ST ⬍ K and ST ⱖ K . In the state where ST ⱖ K , the call is exercised and the two portfolios have exactly the same value, which is ST ⫺ K . In the state where ST ⬍ K , however, the second portfolio has a negative value and is worth less than the value of the call, which is zero. Since the payoffs on the call dominate those on the second portfolio, buying the call must be more expensive. Hence the initial cost of the call c must be greater than, or equal to, the up-front cost of the portfolio, which is St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ . TABLE 6-2 Lower Option Bound for a Call Position: Buy call Buy asset Borrow Total

Initial Payoff ⫺c ⫺ St ⳭKe⫺r τ ⫺S Ⳮ Ke⫺r τ

Final Payoff S T ⬍ K ST ⱖ K ST ⫺ K 0 ST ST ⫺K ⫺K ST ⫺ K ⬍ 0 ST ⫺ K

Note that, since e⫺r τ ⬍ 1, we must have St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⬎ St ⫺ K before expiration. Thus St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ is a better lower bound than St ⫺ K . We can also describe upper and lower bounds for put options. The value of a put cannot be worth more than K p ⱕP ⱕK

(6.6)

which is the upper bound if the price falls to zero. Using an argument similar to that in Table 6-2, we can show that the value of a European put must satisfy the following lower bound p ⱖ Ke⫺r τ ⫺ St

6.2.2

(6.7)

Early Exercise of Options

These relationships can be used to assess the value of early exercise for American options. An American call on a non-dividend-paying stock will never be exercised early. Recall that the choice is not between exercising or not, but rather between exercising the option and selling it on the open market. By exercising, the holder gets exactly St ⫺ K . ¿From Equation (6.5), the current value of a European call must satisfy c ⱖ St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ,

which is strictly greater than St ⫺ K . Since the European call is a lower bound

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on the American call, it is never optimal to exercise early such American options. The American call is always worth more alive, that is, nonexercised, than dead, that is, exercised. As a result, the value of the American feature is zero and we always have ct ⳱ Ct . The only reason one would want to exercise early a call is to capture a dividend payment. Intuitively, a high income payment makes holding the asset more attractive than holding the option. Thus American options on income-paying assets may be exercised early. Note that this applies also to options on futures, since the implied income stream on the underlying is the risk-free rate. Key concept: An American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock (or asset with no income) should never be exercised early. If the asset pays income, early exercise may occur, with a probability that increases with the size of the income payment. For an American put, we must have P ⱖ K ⫺ St

(6.8)

because it could be exercised now. Unlike the relationship for calls, this lower bound K ⫺ St is strictly greater than the lower bound for European puts Ke⫺r τ ⫺ St . So, we could have early exercise. To decide whether to exercise early or not, the holder of the option has to balance the beneﬁt of exercising, which is to receive K now instead of later, against the loss of killing the time value of the option. Because it is better to receive money now than later, it may be worth exercising the put option early. Thus, American puts on nonincome paying assets may be exercised early, unlike calls. This translates into pt ⱕ Pt . With an increased income payment on the asset, the probability of early exercise decreases, as it becomes less attractive to sell the asset. Key concept: An American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock (or asset with no income) may be exercised early. If the asset pays income, the possibility of early exercise decreases with the size of the income payments.

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Example 6-8. FRM Exam 1998----Question 58/Capital Markets 6-8. Which of the following statements about options on futures is true? a) An American call is equal in value to a European call. b) An American put is equal in value to a European put. c) Put-call parity holds for both American and European options. d) None of the above statements are true.

AM FL Y

Example 6-9. FRM Exam 1999----Question 34/Capital Markets 6-9. What is the lower pricing bound for a European call option with a strike price of 80 and one year until expiration? The price of the underlying asset is 90, and the one-year interest rate is 5% per annum. Assume continuous compounding of interest. a) 14.61 b) 13.90 c) 10.00 d) 5.90

TE

Example 6-10. FRM Exam 1999----Question 52/Capital Markets 6-10. The price of an American call stock option is equal to an otherwise equivalent European call stock option at time t when: I) The stock pays continuous dividends from t to option expiration T. II) The interest rates follow a mean-reverting process between t and T. III) The stock pays no dividends from t to option expiration T. IV) Interest rates are nonstochastic between t and T. a) II and IV b) III only c) I and III d) None of the above; an American option is always worth more than a European option.

6.2.3

Black-Scholes Valuation

We now brieﬂy introduce the pricing of conventional European call and put options. Initially, we focus on valuation. We will discuss sensitivities to risk factors later, in Chapter 15 that deals with risk management. To illustrate the philosophy of option pricing methods, consider a call option on a stock whose price is represented by a binomial process. The initial price of S0 ⳱ $100 can only move up or down, to two values (hence the “bi”), S1 ⳱ $150 or S2 ⳱ $50.

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The option is a call with K ⳱ $100, and therefore can only take values of c1 ⳱ $50 or c2 ⳱ $0. We assume that the rate of interest is r ⳱ 25%, so that a dollar invested now grows to $1.25 at maturity. S1 ⳱ $150

c1 ⳱ $50

S2 ⳱ $50

c2 ⳱ $0

w S0 ⳱ $100 E

The key idea of derivatives pricing is that of replication. In other words, we exactly replicate the payoff on the option by a suitable portfolio of the underlying asset plus some borrowing. This is feasible in this simple setup because have 2 states of the world and 2 instruments, the stock and the bond. To prevent arbitrage, the current value of the derivative must be the same as that of the portfolio. The portfolio consists of n shares and a risk-free investment currently valued at B (a negative value implies borrowing). We set c1 ⳱ nS1 Ⳮ B , or $50 ⳱ n$150 Ⳮ B and c2 ⳱ nS2 Ⳮ B , or $0 ⳱ n$50 Ⳮ B and solve the 2 by 2 system, which gives n ⳱ 0.5 and B ⳱ ⫺$25. At time t ⳱ 0, the value of the loan is B0 ⳱ $25冫 1.25 ⳱ $20. The current value of the portfolio is nS0 Ⳮ B0 ⳱ 0.5 ⫻ $100 ⫺ $20 ⳱ $30. Hence the current value of the option must be c0 ⳱ $30. This derivation shows the essence of option pricing methods. Note that we did not need the actual probabilities of an upmove. Furthermore, we could write the current value of the stock as the discounted expected payoff assuming investors were risk-neutral: S0 ⳱ [p ⫻ S1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ p) ⫻ S2 ]冫 (1 Ⳮ r ) Solving for 100 ⳱ [p ⫻ 150 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ p) ⫻ 50]冫 1.25, we ﬁnd a risk-neutral probability of p ⳱ 0.75. We now value the option in the same fashion: c0 ⳱ [0.75 ⫻ $50 Ⳮ 0.25 ⫻ $0]冫 1.25 ⳱ $30 This simple example illustrates a very important concept, which is that of risk-neutral pricing. We can price the derivative, like the underlying asset, assuming discount rates and growth rates are the same as the risk-free rate. The Black-Scholes (BS) model is an application of these ideas that provides an elegant closed-form solution to the pricing of European calls. The derivation of the

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model is based on four assumptions: Black-Scholes Model Assumptions: (1) The price of the underlying asset moves in a continuous fashion. (2) Interest rates are known and constant. (3) The variance of underlying asset returns is constant. (4) Capital markets are perfect (i.e., short-sales are allowed, there are no transaction costs or taxes, and markets operate continuously). The most important assumption behind the model is that prices are continuous. This rules out discontinuities in the sample path, such as jumps, which cannot be hedged in this model. The statistical process for the asset price is modeled by a geometric Brownian motion: over a very short time interval, dt , the logarithmic return has a normal distribution with mean = µdt and variance = σ 2 dt . The total return can be modeled as dS 冫 S ⳱ µdt Ⳮ σ dz

(6.9)

where the ﬁrst term represents the drift component, and the second is the stochastic component, with dz distributed normally with mean zero and variance dt . This process implies that the logarithm of the ending price is distributed as ln(ST ) ⳱ ln(S0 ) Ⳮ (µ ⫺ σ 2 冫 2)τ Ⳮ σ 冪τ

(6.10)

where is a N (0, 1) random variable. Based on these assumptions, Black and Scholes (1972) derived a closed-form formula for European options on a non-dividend-paying stock, called the Black-Scholes model. Merton (1973) expanded their model to the case of a stock paying a continuous dividend yield. Garman and Kohlhagen (1983) extended the formula to foreign currencies, reinterpreting the yield as the foreign rate of interest, in what is called the Garman-Kohlhagen model. The Black model (1976) applies the same formula to options on futures, reinterpreting the yield as the domestic risk-free rate and the spot price as the forward price. In each case, µ represents the capital appreciation return, i.e. without any income payment. The key point of the analysis is that a position in the option can be replicated by a “delta” position in the underlying asset. Hence, a portfolio combining the asset and the option in appropriate proportions is “locally” risk-free, that is, for small movements in prices. To avoid arbitrage, this portfolio must return the risk-free rate.

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As a result, we can directly compute the present value of the derivative as the discounted expected payoff ft ⳱ ERN [e⫺r τ F (ST )]

(6.11)

where the underlying asset is assumed to grow at the risk-free rate, and the discounting is also done at the risk-free rate. Here, the subscript RN refers to the fact that the analysis assumes risk neutrality. In a risk-neutral world, the expected return on all securities must be the risk-free rate of interest, r . The reason is that risk-neutral investors do not require a risk premium to induce them to take risks. The BS model value can be computed assuming that all payoffs grow at the risk-free rate and are discounted at the same risk-free rate. This risk-neutral valuation approach is without a doubt the most important tool in derivatives pricing. Before the Black-Scholes breakthrough, Samuelson had derived a very similar model in 1965, but with the asset growing at the rate µ and discounting as some other rate µ ⴱ .1 Because µ and µ ⴱ are unknown, the Samuelson model was not practical. The risk-neutral valuation is merely an artiﬁcial method to obtain the correct solution, however. It does not imply that investors are in fact risk-neutral. Furthermore, this approach has limited uses for risk management. The BS model can be used to derive the risk-neutral probability of exercising the option. For risk management, however, what matters is the actual probability of exercise, also called physical probability. This can differ from the BS probability. In the case of a European call, the ﬁnal payoff is F (ST ) ⳱ Max(ST ⫺ K, 0). If the asset pays a continuous income of r ⴱ , the current value of the call is given by: c ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

N (d1 ) ⫺ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 )

(6.12)

where N (d ) is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution: N (d ) ⳱

冮

d

⫺⬁

⌽(x)dx ⳱

1

冮 冪2π

d

⫺⬁

1 2

e⫺ 2 x dx

with ⌽ deﬁned as the standard normal density function. N (d ) is also the area to the left of a standard normal variable with value equal to d , as shown in Figure 6-8. Note that, since the normal density is symmetrical, N (d ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ N (⫺d ), or the area to the left of d is the same as the area to the right of ⫺d . 1

Samuelson, Paul (1965), Rational Theory of Warrant Price, Industrial Management Review 6, 13–39.

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FIGURE 6-8 Cumulative Distribution Function Probability density function Φ (d)

1

N(d1 )

Delta 0.5

0

d1

The values of d1 and d2 are: d1 ⳱

ln (Se⫺r

ⴱτ

冫 Ke⫺r τ )

σ 冪τ

Ⳮ

σ 冪τ , 2

d 2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ 冪 τ

By put-call parity, the European put option value is p ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

[N (d1 ) ⫺ 1] ⫺ Ke⫺r τ [N (d2 ) ⫺ 1]

(6.13)

Example: Computing the Black-Scholes value Consider an at-the-money call on a stock worth S ⳱ $100, with a strike price of K ⳱ $100 and maturity of six months. The stock has annual volatility of σ ⳱ 20% and pays no dividend. The risk-free rate is r ⳱ 5%. First, we compute the present value factor, which is e⫺r τ ⳱ exp(⫺0.05 ⫻ 6冫 12) ⳱ 0.9753. We then compute the value of d1 ⳱ ln[S 冫 Ke⫺r τ ]冫 σ 冪τ Ⳮ σ 冪τ 冫 2 ⳱ 0.2475 and d2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ 冪τ ⳱ 0.1061. Using standard normal tables or the “=NORMSDIST” Excel function, we ﬁnd N (d1 ) ⳱ 0.5977 and N (d2 ) ⳱ 0.5422. Note that both values are greater than 0.5 since d1 and d2 are both positive. The option is at-the-money. As S is close to K , d1 is close to zero and N (d1 ) close to 0.5. The value of the call is c ⳱ SN (d1 ) ⫺ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 ) ⳱ $6.89.

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The value of the call can also be viewed as an equivalent position of N (d1 ) ⳱ 59.77% in the stock and some borrowing: c ⳱ $59.77 ⫺ $52.88 ⳱ $6.89. Thus this is a leveraged position in the stock. The value of the put is $4.42. Buying the call and selling the put costs $6.89 ⫺ $4.42 ⳱ $2.47. This indeed equals S ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ $100 ⫺ $97.53 ⳱ $2.47, which conﬁrms put-call parity. For options on futures, we simply replace S by F , the current futures quote and r ⴱ by r , the domestic risk-free rate. The Black model for the valuation of options on futures gives the following formula: c ⳱ [FN (d1 ) ⫺ KN (d2 )]e⫺r τ

(6.14)

We should note that Equation (6.12) can be reinterpreted in view of the discounting formula in a risk-neutral world, Equation (6.11) c ⳱ ERN [e⫺r τ Max(ST ⫺ K, 0)] ⳱ e⫺r τ [

冮

⬁

K

Sf (S )dS ] ⫺ Ke⫺r τ [

冮

⬁

f (S )dS ]

(6.15)

K

Matching this up with (6.12), we see that the term multiplying K is also the risk-neutral probability of exercising the call, or that the option will end up in-the-money: Risk ⫺ neutral probability of exercise ⳱ N (d2 )

(6.16)

The variable d2 is indeed linked to the exercise price. Setting ST to K in Equation (6.10), we have ln(K ) ⳱ ln(S0 ) Ⳮ (r ⫺ σ 2 冫 2)τ Ⳮ σ 冪τ ⴱ Solving, we ﬁnd ⴱ ⳱ ⫺d2 . The area to the left of d2 is therefore the same as the area to the right of ⴱ , which represents the risk-neutral probability of exercising the call. It is interesting to take the limit of Equation (6.12) as the option moves more inthe-money, that is, when the spot price S is much greater than K . In this case, d1 and d2 become very large and the functions N (d1 ) and N (d2 ) tend to unity. The value of the call then tends to c (S ⬎⬎ K ) ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

⫺ Ke⫺r τ

(6.17)

which is the valuation formula for a forward contract, Equation (5.6). A call that is deep in-the-money is equivalent to a long forward contract, because we are almost certain to exercise.

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Finally, we should note that standard options involve a choice to exchange cash for the asset. This is a special case of an exchange option, which involves the surrender of an asset (call it B ) in exchange for acquiring another (call it A). The payoff on such a call is cT ⳱ Max(STA ⫺ STB , 0)

(6.18)

where S A and S B are the respective spot prices. Some ﬁnancial instruments involve the maximum of the value of two assets, which is equivalent to a position in one asset plus an exchange option: Max(StA , StB ) ⳱ STB Ⳮ Max(STA ⫺ STB , 0)

(6.19)

Margrabe (1978) has shown that the valuation formula is similar to the usual model, except that K is replaced by the price of asset B (SB ), and the risk-free rate by the yield on asset B (yB ).2 The volatility σ is now that of the difference between the two assets, which is 2 σAB ⳱ σA2 Ⳮ σB2 ⫺ 2ρAB σA σB

(6.20)

These options also involve the correlation coefﬁcient. So, if we have a triplet of options, involving A, B , and the option to exchange B into A, we can compute σA , σB , and σAB . This allows us to infer the correlation coefﬁcient. The pricing formula is called the Margrabe model.

6.2.4

Market vs. Model Prices

In practice, the BS model is widely used to price options. All of the parameters are observable, except for the volatility. If we observe a market price, however, we can solve for the volatility parameter that sets the model price equal to the market price. This is called the implied standard deviation (ISD). If the model were correct, the ISD should be constant across strike prices. In fact, this is not what we observe. Plots of the ISD against the strike price display what is called a volatility smile pattern, meaning that ISDs increase for low and high values of K . This effect has been observed in a variety of markets, and can even change over time. Before the stock market crash of October 1987, for instance, the effect was minor. Since then, it has become more pronounced. 2

Margrabe, W. (1978), The Value of an Option to Exchange One Asset for Another, Journal of Finance 33, 177–186. See also Stulz, R. (1982), Options on the Minimum or the Maximum of Two Risky Assets: Analysis and Applications, Journal of Financial Economics 10, 161–185.

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Example 6-11. FRM Exam 2001----Question 91 6-11. Using the Black-Scholes model, calculate the value of a European call option given the following information: Spot rate = 100; Strike price = 110; Risk-free rate = 10%; Time to expiry = 0.5 years; N(d1) = 0.457185; N(d2) = 0.374163. a) $10.90 b) $9.51 c) $6.57 d) $4.92

Example 6-12. FRM Exam 1999----Question 55/Capital Markets 6-12. If the Garman-Kohlhagen formula is used for valuing options on a dividend-paying stock, then to be consistent with its assumptions, upon receipt of the dividend, the dividend should be a) Placed into a noninterest bearing account b) Placed into an interest bearing account at the risk-free rate assumed in the G-K model c) Used to purchase more stock of the same company d) Placed into an interest bearing account, paying interest equal to the dividend yield of the stock

Example 6-13. FRM Exam 1998----Question 2/Quant. Analysis 6-13. In the Black-Scholes expression for a European call option the term used to compute option probability of exercise is a) d1 b) d2 c) N (d1 ) d) N (d2 )

6.3

Other Option Contracts

The options described so far are standard, plain-vanilla options. Since the 1970s, however, markets have developed more complex option types. Binary options, also called digital options pay a ﬁxed amount, say Q, if the asset price ends up above the strike price cT ⳱ Q ⫻ I (ST ⫺ K )

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where I (x) is an indicator variable that takes the value of 1 if x ⬎ 0 and 0 otherwise. Because the probability of ending in the money in a risk-neutral world is N (d2 ), the initial value of this option is simply c ⳱ Qe⫺r τ N (d2 )

(6.22)

These options involve a sharp discontinuity around the strike price. As a result, they are quite difﬁcult to hedge since the value of the option cannot be smoothly replicated by a changing position in the underlying asset. Another important class of options are barrier options. Barrier options are options where the payoff depends on the value of the asset hitting a barrier during a certain period of time. A knock-out option disappears if the price hits a certain barrier. A knock-in option comes into existence when the price hits a certain barrier. An example of a knock-out option is the down-and-out call. This disappears if S hits a speciﬁed level H during its life. In this case, the knock-out price H must be lower than the initial price S0 . The option that appears at H is the down-and-in call. With identical parameters, the two options are perfectly complementary. When one disappears, the other appears. As a result, these two options must add up to a regular call option. Similarly, an up-and-out call ceases to exist when S reaches H ⬎ S0 . The complementary option is the up-and-in call. Figure 6-9 compares price paths for the four possible combinations of calls. The left panels involve the same underlying sample path. For the down-and-out call, the only relevant part is the one starting from S (0) until it hits the barrier. In all ﬁgures, the dark line describes the relevant price path, during which the option is alive; the grey line describes the remaining path. The call is not exercised even though the ﬁnal price ST is greater than the strike price. Conversely, the down-and-in call comes into existence precisely when the other one dies. Thus at initiation, the value of these two options must add up to a regular European call c ⳱ cDO Ⳮ cDI

(6.23)

Because all these values are positive (or at worst zero), the value of cDO and cDI each must be no greater than that of c . A similar reasoning applies to the two options in the right panels. Similar combinations exist for put options. An up-and-out put ceases to exist when S reaches H ⬎ S0 . A down-and-out put ceases to exist when S reaches H ⬍ S0 .

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Barrier options are attractive because they are “cheaper” than the equivalent ordinary option. This, of course, reﬂects the fact that they are less likely to be exercised than other options. These options are also difﬁcult to hedge due to the fact that a discontinuity arises as the spot price get closer to the barrier. Just above the barrier, the option has positive value. For a very small movement in the asset price, going below the barrier, this value disappears. FIGURE 6-9 Paths for Knock-out and Knock-in Call Options

Down and out call

Up and out call Barrier

Strike

S(0)

S(0) Strike

Barrier Time

Time

Down and in call

Up and in call Barrier

Strike

S(0) Strike

S(0) Barrier Time

Time

Finally, another widely used class of options are Asian options. Asian options, or average rate options, generate payoffs that depend on the average value of the underlying spot price during the life of the option, instead of the ending value. The ﬁnal payoff for a call is cT ⳱ Max(SAVE (t, T ) ⫺ K, 0)

(6.24)

Because an average is less variable than an instantaneous value, such options are “cheaper” than regular options due to lower volatility. In fact, the price of the option can be treated like that of an ordinary option with the volatility set equal to σ 冫 冪3 and an adjustment to the dividend yield.3 As a result of the averaging process, such 3

This is only strictly true when the averaging is a geometric average. In practice, average options involve an arithmetic average, for which there is no analytic solution; the lower volatility adjustment is just an approximation.

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options are easier to hedge than ordinary options. Example 6-14. FRM Exam 1998----Question 4/Capital Markets 6-14. A knock-in barrier option is harder to hedge when it is a) In the money b) Out of the money c) At the barrier and near maturity d) At the inception of the trade

6.4

AM FL Y

Example 6-15. FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Derivatives 6-15. Knockout options are often used instead of regular options because a) Knockouts have a lower volatility. b) Knockouts have a lower premium. c) Knockouts have a shorter maturity on average. d) Knockouts have a smaller gamma.

Valuing Options by Numerical Methods

Some options have analytical solutions, such as the Black-Scholes models for Euro-

TE

pean vanilla options. For more general options, however, we need to use numerical methods.

The basic valuation formula for derivatives is Equation (6.11), which states that the current value is the discounted present value of expected cash ﬂows, where all assets grow at the risk-free rate and are discounted at the same risk-free rate. We can use the Monte Carlo simulation methods presented in Chapter 4 to generate sample paths, ﬁnal option values, and discount them into the present. Such simulation methods can be used for European or even path-dependent options, such as Asian options. Simulation methods, however, cannot account for the possibility of early exercise. Instead, binomial trees must be used to value American options. As explained previously, the method consists of chopping up the time horizon into n intervals ⌬t and setting up the tree so that the characteristics of price movements ﬁt the lognormal distribution. At each node, the initial price S can go up to uS with probability p or down to dS with probability (1 ⫺ p). The parameters u, d, p are chosen so that, for a small time interval, the expected return and variance equal those of the continuous process. One

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could choose, for instance, u ⳱ eσ 冪⌬t ,

d ⳱ (1冫 u),

p⳱

eµ ⌬t ⫺ d u⫺d

(6.25)

Since this a risk-neutral process, the total expected return must be equal to the riskfree rate r . Allowing for an income payment of r ⴱ , this gives µ ⳱ r ⫺ r ⴱ . The tree is built starting from the current time to maturity, from the left to the right. Next, the derivative is valued by starting at the end of the tree, and working backward to the initial time, from the right to the left. Consider ﬁrst a European call option. At time T (maturity) and node j , the call option is worth Max(ST j ⫺ K, 0). At time T ⫺ 1 and node j , the call option is the discounted expected value of the option at time T and nodes j and j Ⳮ 1: cT ⫺1,j ⳱ e⫺r ⌬t [pcT ,jⳭ1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ p)cT ,j ]

(6.26)

We then work backward through the tree until the current time. For American options, the procedure is slightly different. At each point in time, the holder compares the value of the option alive and dead (i.e., exercised). The American call option value at node T ⫺ 1, j is CT ⫺1,j ⳱ Max[(ST ⫺1,j ⫺ K ), cT ⫺1,j ]

(6.27)

Example: Computing an American option value Consider an at-the-money call on a foreign currency with a spot price of $100, a strike price of K ⳱ $100, and a maturity of six months. The annualized volatility is σ ⳱ 20%. The domestic interest rate is r ⳱ 5%; the foreign rate is r ⴱ ⳱ 8%. Note that we require an income payment for the American feature to be valuable. First, we divide the period into 4 intervals, for instance, so that ⌬t ⳱ 0.125. The discounting factor over one interval is e⫺r ⌬t ⳱ 0.9938. We then compute: u ⳱ eσ 冪⌬t ⳱ e0.20 冪0.125 ⳱ 1.0733, d ⳱ (1冫 u) ⳱ 0.9317, a ⳱ e(r ⫺r p⳱

ⴱ )⌬t

⳱ e(⫺0.03)0.125 ⳱ 0.9963,

a⫺d ⳱ (0.9963 ⫺ 0.9317)冫 (1.0733 ⫺ 0.9317) ⳱ 0.4559. u⫺d

The procedure is detailed in Table 6-3. First, we lay out the tree for the spot price, starting with S ⳱ 100 at time t ⳱ 0, then uS ⳱ 107.33 and dS ⳱ 93.17 at time t ⳱ 1, and so on.

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This allows us to value the European call. We start from the end, at time t ⳱ 4, and set the call price to c ⳱ S ⫺ K ⳱ 132.69 ⫺ 100.00 ⳱ 32.69 for the highest spot price, 15.19 for the next rate and so on, down to c ⳱ 0 if the spot price is below K ⳱ 100.00. At the previous step and highest node, the value of the call is c ⳱ 0.9938[0.4559 ⫻ 32.69 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ 0.4559) ⫻ 15.19] ⳱ 23.02 Continuing through the tree to time 0 yields a European call value of $4.43. The BlackScholes formula gives an exact value of $4.76. Note how close the binomial approximation is, with just 4 steps. A ﬁner partition would quickly improve the approximation. TABLE 6-3 Computation of American option value Spot Price St

European Call ct

0 y

100.00 Y

4.43

1 y

107.33 93.17 Y

8.10 1.41

2 y

3 y

115.19 100.00 86.81 Y

123.63 107.33 93.17 80.89 Y

14.15 3.12 0.00

23.02 6.88 0.00 0.00

4 y 132.69 115.19 100.00 86.81 75.36 Y 32.69 15.19 0.00 0.00 0.00

Exercised Call St ⫺ K

American Call Ct

0.00 Y

4.74

7.33 0.00 Y

8.68 1.50

15.19 0.00 0.00 Y

23.63 7.33 0.00 0.00 Y

15.19 3.32 0.00

23.63 7.33 0.00 0.00

32.69 15.19 0.00 0.00 0.00 Y 32.69 15.19 0.00 0.00 0.00

Next, we examine the American call. At time t ⳱ 4, the values are the same as above since the call expires. At time t ⳱ 3 and node j ⳱ 4, the option holder can either keep

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the call, in which case the value is still $23.02, or exercise. When exercised, the option payoff is S ⫺ K ⳱ 123.63 ⫺ 100.00 ⳱ 23.63. Since this is greater than the value of the option alive, the holder should optimally exercise the option. We replace the European option value by $23.63. Continuing through the tree in the same fashion, we ﬁnd a starting value of $4.74. The value of the American call is slightly greater than the European call price, as expected.

6.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 6-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 35/Capital Markets b) A short put position is equivalent to a long asset position plus shorting a call. To fund the purchase of the asset, we need to borrow. This is because the value of the call or put is small relative to the value of the asset. Example 6-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 15/Capital Markets d) By put-call parity, p ⳱ c ⫺ (S ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ) ⳱ 30 ⫺ (100 ⫺ 120exp(⫺0.5 ⫻ 0.5)) ⳱ 30 Ⳮ 17.04 ⳱ 47.04. In the absence of other information, we had to assume these are European options, and that the stock pays no dividend. Example 6-3. FRM Exam 2001----Question 90 c) Long positions in options can lose at worst the premium, so (b) is wrong. Spreads involve long and short positions in options and have limited downside loss, so (a) is wrong. Writing options exposes the seller to very large losses. In the case of puts, the worst loss is the strike price K , if the asset price goes to zero. In the case of calls, however, the worst loss is in theory unlimited because there is a small probability of a huge increase in S . Between (c) and (d), (c) is the best answer. Example 6-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 50/Capital Markets b) A covered call is long the asset plus a short call. This preserves the downside but eliminates the upside, which is equivalent to a short put. Example 6-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 33/Capital Markets a) The purpose of a bull spread is to create a proﬁt when the underlying price increases. The strategy involves the same options but with different strike prices. It can be achieved with calls or puts. Answer (c) is incorrect as a bull spread based on calls

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involves buying a call with high premium and selling another with lower premium. Answer (d) is incorrect as it mixes a call and a put. Among the two puts p(K ⳱ $55) must have higher value than p(K ⳱ $50). If the spot price ends up above 55, none of the puts is exercised. The proﬁt must be positive, which implies selling the put with K ⳱ 55 and buying a put with K ⳱ 50. Example 6-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 5/Capital Markets a) The proceeds from exercise are ($42 ⫺ $30) ⫺ ($42 ⫺ $40) ⳱ $10. ¿From this should be deducted the net cost of the options, which is $3 ⫺ $1.5 ⳱ $1.5, ignoring the time value of money. This adds up to a net proﬁt of $8.50. Example 6-7. FRM Exam 2001----Question 111 d) All of the puts will be exercised, leading to a payoff of Ⳮ(43 ⫺ 19) ⫺ 2(37 ⫺ 19) Ⳮ (32 ⫺ 19) ⳱ Ⳮ1. To this, we add the premiums, or ⫺6 Ⳮ 2(4) ⫺ 1 ⳱ Ⳮ1. Ignoring the time value of money, the total payoff is $2. The same result holds for any value of S lower than 32. The fact that the strategy creates a proﬁt if the price falls explain why it is called bearish. Example 6-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 58/Capital Markets d) Futures have an “implied” income stream equal to the risk-free rate. As a result, an American call may be exercised early. Similarly, the American put may be exercised early. Also, the put-call parity only works when there is no possibility of early exercise, or with European options. Example 6-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 34/Capital Markets b) The call lower bound, when there is no income, is St ⫺Ke⫺r τ ⳱ $90⫺$80exp(⫺0.05 ⫻ 1) ⳱ $90 ⫺ $76.10 ⳱ $13.90. Example 6-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 52/Capital Markets b) An American call will not be exercised early when there is no income payment on the underlying asset. Example 6-11. FRM Exam 2001----Question 91 c) We use Equation (6.12) assuming there is no income payment on the asset. This gives c ⳱ SN (d1 ) ⫺ K exp(⫺r τ )N (d2 ) ⳱ 100 ⫻ 0.457185 ⫺ 110exp(⫺0.1 ⫻ 0.5) ⫻ 0.374163 ⳱ $6.568.

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Example 6-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 55/Capital Markets c) The GK formula assumes that income payments are reinvested in the stock itself. Answers (a) and (b) assume reinvestment at a zero and risk-free rate, which is incorrect. Answer (d) is not feasible. Example 6-13: FRM Exam 1998----Question 2/Quant. Analysis d) This is the term multiplying the present value of the strike price, by Equation (6.13). Example 6-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 4/Capital Markets c) Knock-in or knock-out options involve discontinuities, and are harder to hedge when the spot price is close to the barrier. Example 6-15: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Derivatives b) Knockouts are no different from regular options in terms of maturity or underlying volatility, but are cheaper than the equivalent European option since they involve a lower probability of ﬁnal exercise.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 7 Fixed-Income Securities The next two chapters provide an overview of ﬁxed-income markets, securities, and their derivatives. Originally, ﬁxed-income securities referred to bonds that promise to make ﬁxed coupon payments. Over time, this narrow deﬁnition has evolved to include any security that obligates the borrower to make speciﬁc payments to the bondholder on speciﬁed dates. Thus, a bond is a security that is issued in connection with a borrowing arrangement. In exchange for receiving cash, the borrower becomes obligated to make a series of payments to the bondholder. Fixed-income derivatives are instruments whose value derives from some bond price, interest rate, or other bond market variable. Due to their complexity, these instruments are analyzed in the next chapter. Section 7.1 provides an overview of the different segments of the bond market. Section 7.2 then introduces the various types of ﬁxed-income securities. Section 7.3 reviews the basic tools for analyzing ﬁxed-income securities, including the determination of cash ﬂows, the measurement of duration, and the term structure of interest rates and forward rates. Because of their importance, mortgage-backed securities (MBSs) are analyzed separately in Section 7.4. The section also discusses collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs), which illustrate the creativity of ﬁnancial engineering.

7.1

Overview of Debt Markets

Table 7-1 breaks down the world debt securities market, which was worth $38 trillion at the end of 2001. This includes the bond markets, deﬁned as ﬁxed-income securities with remaining maturities beyond one year, and the shorter-term money markets, with maturities below one year. The table includes all publicly tradable debt securities sorted by country of issuer and issuer type as of December 2001. To help sort the various categories of the bond markets, Table 7-2 provides a broad classiﬁcation of bonds by borrower and currency type. Bonds issued by resident entities and denominated in the domestic currency are called domestic bonds. In

153

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Country of Issuer United States Japan Germany Italy France United Kingdom Canada Spain Belgium Brazil Korea (South) Denmark Sweden Netherlands Australia China Switzerland Austria India Subtotal Others Total Of which, Eurozone

Domestic 15,655 5,820 1,475 1,362 1,050 925 571 364 315 316 305 229 166 360 183 407 161 154 132 29,950 602 30,552

Public 8,703 4,576 686 963 642 407 406 266 222 261 79 73 85 159 66 291 56 92 131 18,161 703 18,864

5,080

3,029

Of which Financials Corporates 4,517 2,434 570 674 752 36 330 70 289 119 292 227 92 73 55 43 75 18 52 3 108 118 144 13 60 21 151 51 68 50 106 10 82 23 59 3 0 2 7,801 3,988 136 125 7,936 4,113 1,711

340

Int’l

Total

2,395 96 643 176 402 757 221 72 54 60 44 34 89 569 138 13 16 105 4 5,887 1,624 7,511

18,049 5,915 2,117 1,537 1,452 1,682 792 436 369 375 350 263 255 930 321 420 177 259 137 35,837 2,226 38,063

2,020

7,100

Source: Bank for International Settlements

contrast, foreign bonds are those ﬂoated by a foreign issuer in the domestic currency and subject to domestic country regulations (e.g., by the government of Sweden in dollars in the United States). Eurobonds are mainly placed outside the country of the currency in which they are denominated and are sold by an international syndicate of ﬁnancial institutions (e.g., a dollar-denominated bond issued by IBM and marketed in London). These should not be confused with Euro-denominated bonds. Foreign bonds and Eurobonds constitute the international bond market. Global bonds are placed at the same time in the Eurobond and one or more domestic markets with securities fungible between these markets.

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TABLE 7-2 Classiﬁcation of Bond Markets In domestic currency In foreign currency

By resident Domestic Bond Eurobond

By non-resident Foreign Bond Eurobond

Coupon payment frequencies can differ across markets. For instance, domestic dollar bonds pay interest semiannually. In contrast, Eurobonds pay interest annually only. Because investors are spread all over the world, less frequent coupons lower payment costs. Going back to Table 7-1, we see that U.S. entities have issued a total of $15,665 billion in domestic bonds and $2,395 billion in international bonds. This leads to a total principal amount of $18,049 billion, which is by far the biggest debt market. Next comes the Eurozone market, with a size of $7,100 billion, and the Japanese market, with $5,915 billion. The domestic bond market can be further decomposed into the categories representing the public and private bond markets: Government bonds, issued by central governments, or also called sovereign bonds (e.g., by the United States or Argentina) Government agency and guaranteed bonds, issued by agencies or guaranteed by the central government, (e.g., by Fannie Mae, a U.S. government agency) State and local bonds, issued by local governments, other than the central government, also known as municipal bonds (e.g., by the state or city of New York) Bonds issued by private ﬁnancial institutions, including banks, insurance companies, or issuers of asset-backed securities (e.g., by Citibank in the U.S. market) Corporate bonds, issued by private nonﬁnancial corporations, including industrials and utilities (e.g., by IBM in the U.S. market) As Table 7-1 shows, the public sector accounts for more than half of the debt markets. This sector includes sovereign debt issued by emerging countries in their own currencies, e.g. Mexican peso-denominated debt issued by the Mexican government. Few of these markets have long-term issues, because of their history of high inﬂation, which renders long-term bonds very risky. In Mexico, for instance, the market consists mainly of Cetes, which are peso-denominated, short-term Treasury Bills.

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The emerging market sector also includes dollar-denominated debt, such as Brady bonds, which are sovereign bonds issued in exchange for bank loans, and the Tesebonos, which are dollar-denominated bills issued by the Mexican government. Brady bonds are hybrid securities whose principal is collateralized by U.S. Treasury zerocoupon bonds. As a result, there is no risk of default on the principal, unlike on coupon payments. A large and growing proportion of the market consists of mortgage-backed securities. Mortgage-backed securities (MBSs), or mortgage pass-throughs, are securities issued in conjunction with mortgage loans, either residential or commercial. Payments on MBSs are repackaged cash ﬂows supported by mortgage payments made by property owners. MBSs can be issued by government agencies as well as by private

AM FL Y

ﬁnancial corporations. More generally, asset-backed securities (ABSs) are securities whose cash ﬂows are supported by assets such as credit card receivables or car loan payments.

Finally, the remainder of the market represents bonds raised by private, nonﬁnancial corporations. This sector, large in the United States but smaller in other countries, is growing rather quickly as corporations recognize that bond issuances are a lower-

TE

cost source of funds than bank debt. The advent of the common currency, the Euro, is also leading to a growing, more liquid and efﬁcient, corporate bond market in Europe.

7.2 7.2.1

Fixed-Income Securities Instrument Types

Bonds pay interest on a regular basis, semiannual for U.S. Treasury and corporate bonds, annual for others such as Eurobonds, or quarterly for others. The most common types of bonds are: Fixed-coupon bonds, which pay a ﬁxed percentage of the principal every period and the principal as a balloon, one-time, payment at maturity Zero-coupon bonds, which pay no coupons but only the principal; their return is derived from price appreciation only Annuities, which pay a constant amount over time which includes interest plus amortization, or gradual repayment, of the principal;

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Perpetual bonds or consols, which have no set redemption date and whose value derives from interest payments only Floating-coupon bonds, which pay interest equal to a reference rate plus a margin, reset on a regular basis; these are usually called ﬂoating-rate notes (FRN) Structured notes, which have more complex coupon patterns to satisfy the investor’s needs There are many variations on these themes. For instance, step-up bonds have coupons that start at a low rate and increase over time. It is useful to consider ﬂoating-rate notes in more detail. Take for instance a 10year $100 million FRN paying semiannually 6-month LIBOR in arrears.1 Here, LIBOR is the London Interbank Offer Rate, a benchmark short-term cost of borrowing for AA credits. Every semester, on the reset date, the value of 6-month LIBOR is recorded. Say LIBOR is initially at 6%. At the next coupon date, the payment will be ( 12 ) ⫻ $100 ⫻ 6% ⳱ $3 million. Simultaneously, we record a new value for LIBOR, say 8%. The next payment will then increase to $4 million, and so on. At maturity, the issuer pays the last coupon plus the principal. Like a cork at the end of a ﬁshing line, the coupon payment “ﬂoats” with the current interest rate. Among structured notes, we should mention inverse ﬂoaters, which have coupon payments that vary inversely with the level of interest rates. A typical formula for the coupon is c ⳱ 12% ⫺ LIBOR, if positive, payable semiannually. Assume the principal is $100 million. If LIBOR starts at 6%, the ﬁrst coupon will be (1冫 2) ⫻ $100 ⫻ (12% ⫺ 6%) ⳱ $3 million. If after six months LIBOR moves to 8%, the second coupon will be (1冫 2) ⫻ $100 ⫻ (12% ⫺ 8%) ⳱ $2 million. The coupon will go to zero if LIBOR moves above 12%. Conversely, the coupon will increase if LIBOR drops. Hence, inverse ﬂoaters do best in a falling interest rate environment. Bonds can also be issued with option features. The most important are: Callable bonds, where the issuer has the right to “call” back the bond at ﬁxed prices on ﬁxed dates, the purpose being to call back the bond when the cost of issuing new debt is lower than the current coupon paid on the bond 1

Note that the index could be deﬁned differently. The ﬂoating payment could be tied to a Treasury rate, or LIBOR with a different maturity–say 3-month LIBOR. The pricing of the FRN will depend on the index. Also, the coupon will typically be set to LIBOR plus some spread that depends on the creditworthiness of the issuer.

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Puttable bonds, where the investor has the right to “put” the bond back to the issuer at ﬁxed prices on ﬁxed dates, the purpose being to dispose of the bond should its price deteriorate Convertible bonds, where the bond can be converted into the common stock of the issuing company at a ﬁxed price on a ﬁxed date, the purpose being to partake in the good fortunes of the company (these will be covered in Chapter 9 on equities) The key to analyzing these bonds is to identify and price the option feature. For instance, a callable bond can be decomposed into a long position in a straight bond minus a call option on the bond price. The call feature is unfavorable for investors who will demand a lower price to purchase the bond, thereby increasing its yield. Conversely, a put feature will make the bond more attractive, increasing its price and lowering its yield. Similarly, the convertible feature allows companies to issue bonds at a lower yield than otherwise. Example 7-1: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 3/Capital Markets 7-1. The price of an inverse ﬂoater a) Increases as interest rates increase b) Decreases as interest rates increase c) Remains constant as interest rates change d) Behaves like none of the above Example 7-2: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 9/Capital Markets 7-2. An investment in a callable bond can be analytically decomposed into a a) Long position in a noncallable bond and a short position in a put option b) Short position in a noncallable bond and a long position in a call option c) Long position in a noncallable bond and a long position in a call option d) Long position in a noncallable and a short position in a call option

7.2.2

Methods of Quotation

Most bonds are quoted on a clean price basis, that is, without accounting for the accrued income from the last coupon. For U.S. bonds, this clean price is expressed as a percent of the face value of the bond with fractions in thirty-seconds, for instance 104 ⫺ 12 or 104 Ⳮ 12冫 32 for the 6.25% May 2030 Treasury bond. Transactions are expressed in number of units, e.g. $20 million face value. Actual payments, however, must account for the accrual of interest. This is factored into the gross price, also known as the dirty price, which is equal to the clean

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price plus accrued interest. In the U.S. Treasury market, accrued interest (AI) is computed on an actual/actual basis: AI ⳱ Coupon ⫻

Actual number of days since last coupon Actual number of days between last and next coupon

(7.1)

The fraction involves the actual number of days in both the numerator and denominator. For instance, say the 6.25% of May 2030 paid the last coupon on November 15 and will pay the next coupon on May 15. The denominator is, counting the number of days in each month, 15 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 29 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 30 Ⳮ 15 ⳱ 182. If the trade settles on April 26, there are 15 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 29 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 26 ⳱ 163 days into the period. The accrued is computed from the $3.125 coupon as $3.125 ⫻

163 ⳱ $2.798763 182

The total, gross price for this transaction is: ($20, 000, 000冫 100) ⫻ [(104 Ⳮ 12冫 32) Ⳮ 2.798763] ⳱ $21, 434, 753 Different markets have different day count conventions. A 30/360 convention, for example, considers that all months count for 30 days exactly. The computation of the accrued interest is tedious but must be performed precisely to settle the trades. We should note that the accrued interest in the LIBOR market is based on actual/360. For instance, the actual interest payment on a 6% $1 million loan over 92 days is $1, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.06 ⫻

92 ⳱ $15, 333.33 360

Another notable pricing convention is the discount basis for Treasury Bills. These bills are quoted in terms of an annualized discount rate (DR) to the face value, deﬁned as DR ⳱ (Face ⫺ P)冫 Face ⫻ (360冫 t )

(7.2)

where P is the price and t is the actual number of days. The dollar price can be recovered from P ⳱ Face ⫻ [1 ⫺ DR ⫻ (t 冫 360)]

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For instance, a bill quoted at 5.19% discount with 91 days to maturity could be purchased for $100 ⫻ [1 ⫺ 5.19% ⫻ (91冫 360)] ⳱ $98.6881. This price can be transformed into a conventional yield to maturity, using F 冫 P ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⫻ t 冫 365)

(7.4)

which gives 5.33% in this case. Note that the yield is greater than the discount rate because it is a rate of return based on the initial price. Because the price is lower than the face value, the yield must be greater than the discount rate.

Example 7-3: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 13/Capital Markets 7-3. A U.S. Treasury bill selling for $97,569 with 100 days to maturity and a face value of $100,000 should be quoted on a bank discount basis at a) 8.75% b) 8.87% c) 8.97% d) 9.09%

7.3 7.3.1

Analysis of Fixed-Income Securities The NPV Approach

Fixed-income securities can be valued by, ﬁrst, laying out their cash ﬂows and, second, discounting them at the appropriate discount rate. This approach can also be used to infer a more convenient measure of value for the bond, which is the bond’s own yield. Let us write the market value of a bond P as the present value of future cash ﬂows: T

P⳱

C

冱 (1 Ⳮty )t

t ⳱1

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where: Ct ⳱the cash ﬂow (coupon or principal) in period t , t ⳱the number of periods (e.g., half-years) to each payment, T ⳱the number of periods to ﬁnal maturity, y ⳱the yield to maturity for this particular bond, P ⳱the price of the bond, including accrued interest. Here, the yield is the internal rate of return that equates the NPV of the cash ﬂows to the market price of the bond. The yield is also the expected rate of return on the bond, provided all coupons are reinvested at the same rate. For a ﬁxed-rate bond with face value F , the cash ﬂow Ct is cF each period, where c is the coupon rate, plus F upon maturity. Other cash ﬂow patterns are possible. Figure 7-1 shows the time proﬁle of the cash ﬂows Ct for three bonds with initial market value of $100, 10 year maturity and 6% annual interest. The ﬁgure describes a straight coupon-paying bond, an annuity, and a zero-coupon bond. As long as the cash ﬂows are predetermined, the valuation is straightforward. FIGURE 7-1 Time Proﬁle of Cash Flows 120 100 80 60 40 20 0 16 14 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 200 180 160 140 120 100 80 60 40 20 0

Straight-coupon Principal Interest

Annuity

Zero-coupon

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Problems start to arise when the cash ﬂows are random or when the life of the bond could be changed due to option-like features. In this case, the standard valuation formula in Equation (7.5) fails. More precisely, the yield cannot be interpreted as a reinvestment rate. Particularly important examples are MBSs, which are detailed in a later section. It is also important to note that we discounted all cash ﬂows at the same rate, y . More generally, the fair value of the bond can be assessed using the term structure of interest rates. Deﬁne Rt as the spot interest rate for maturity t and this risk class (i.e., same currency and credit risk). The fair value of the bond is then: Pˆ ⳱

T

C

冱 (1 Ⳮ tRt )t

(7.6)

t ⳱1

To assess whether a bond is rich or cheap, we can add a ﬁxed amount s , called the static spread to the spot rates so that the NPV equals the current price: T

P⳱

C

冱 (1 Ⳮ Rtt Ⳮ s )t

(7.7)

t ⳱1

All else equal, a bond with a large static spread is preferable to another with a lower spread. It means the bond is cheaper, or has a higher expected rate of return. It is often simpler to compute a yield spread ⌬y , using yield to maturity, such that T

P⳱

C

冱 (1 Ⳮ y Ⳮt ⌬y )t

(7.8)

t ⳱1

The static spread and yield spread are conceptually similar, but the former is more accurate since the term structure is not necessarily ﬂat. When the term structure is ﬂat, the two measures are identical. Table 7-3 gives an example of a 7% coupon, 2-year bond. The term structure environment, consisting of spot rates and par yields, is described on the left side. The right side lays out the present value of the cash ﬂows (PVCF). Discounting the two cash ﬂows at the spot rates gives a fair value of Pˆ ⳱ $101.9604. In fact, the bond is selling at a price of P ⳱ $101.5000. So, the bond is cheap. We can convert the difference in prices to annual yields. The yield to maturity on this bond is 6.1798%, which implies a yield spread of ⌬y ⳱ 6.1798 ⫺ 5.9412 ⳱ 0.2386%. Using the static spread approach, we ﬁnd that adding s ⳱ 0.2482% to the

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spot rates gives the current price. The second measure is more accurate than the ﬁrst. In this case, the difference is small. This will not be the case, however, with longer maturities and irregular yield curves. TABLE 7-3 Bond Price and Term Structure Maturity (Year) i 1 2 Sum Price

Term Structure Spot Par Rate Yield Ri yi 4.0000 4.0000 6.0000 5.9412

Spot s⳱0 6.7308 95.2296 101.9604 101.5000

7% Bond PVCF Discounted at Yield+YS Spot+SS ⌬y ⳱ 0.2386 s ⳱ 0.2482 6.5926 6.7147 94.9074 94.7853 101.5000 101.5000 101.5000 101.5000

Cash ﬂows with different credit risks need to be discounted with different rates. For example, the principal on Brady bonds is collateralized by U.S. Treasury securities and carries no default risk, in contrast to the coupons. As a result, it has become common to separate the discounting of the principal from that of the coupons. Valuation is done in two steps. First, the principal is discounted into a present value using the appropriate Treasury yield. The present value of the principal is subtracted from the market value. Next, the coupons are discounted at what is called the stripped yield, which accounts for the credit risk of the issuer.

7.3.2

Duration

Armed with a cash ﬂow proﬁle, we can proceed to compute duration. As we have seen in Chapter 1, duration is a measure of the exposure, or sensitivity, of the bond price to movements in yields. When cash ﬂows are ﬁxed, duration is measured as the weighted maturity of each payment, where the weights are proportional to the present value of the cash ﬂows. Using the same notations as in Equation (7.5), recall that Macaulay duration is T

D⳱

冱

t ⳱1

T

t ⫻ wt ⳱

C 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t

冱 t ⫻ 冱 Ct t 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t .

t ⳱1

Key concept: Duration can only be viewed as the weighted average time to wait for each payment when the cash ﬂows are predetermined.

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More generally, duration is a measure of interest-rate exposure: dP D P ⳱ ⫺D ⴱ P ⳱⫺ dy (1 Ⳮ y )

(7.10)

where D ⴱ is modiﬁed duration. The second term D ⴱ P is also known as the dollar duration. Sometimes this sensitivity is expressed in dollar value of a basis point (also known as DV01), deﬁned as dP ⳱ DVBP 0.01%

(7.10)

For ﬁxed cash ﬂows, duration can be computed using Equation (7.9). Otherwise, we can infer duration from an understanding of the security. Consider a ﬂoating-rate note (FRN). Just before the reset date, we know that the coupon will be set to the prevailing interest rate. The FRN is then similar to cash, or a money market instrument, which has no interest rate risk and hence is selling at par with zero duration. Just after the reset date, the investor is locked into a ﬁxed coupon over the accrual period. The FRN is then economically equivalent to a zero-coupon bond with maturity equal to the time to the next reset date.

Key concept: The duration of a ﬂoating-rate note is the time to wait until the next reset period, at which time the FRN should be at par.

Example 7-4: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 53/Capital Markets 7-4. Consider a 9% annual coupon 20-year bond trading at 6% with a price of 134.41. When rates rise 10bps, price reduces to 132.99, and when rates decrease by 10bps, the price goes up to 135.85. What is the modiﬁed duration of the bond? a) 11.25 b) 10.61 c) 10.50 d) 10.73

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Example 7-5: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 31/Capital Markets 7-5. A 10-year zero-coupon bond is callable annually at par (its face value) starting at the beginning of year six. Assume a ﬂat yield curve of 10%. What is the bond duration? a) 5 years b) 7.5 years c) 10 years d) Cannot be determined based on the data given

Example 7-6: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 91/Market Risk 7-6. (Modiﬁed) duration of a ﬁxed-rate bond, in the case of ﬂat yield curve, can be interpreted as (where B is the bond price and y is the yield to maturity) a) ⫺ B1 ∂B ∂y 1 ∂B B ∂y c) ⫺ yB ∂B ∂y (1Ⳮy ) ∂B d) B ∂y

b)

Example 7-7: FRM Exam 1997----Ques:wtion 49/Market Risk 7-7. A money markets desk holds a ﬂoating-rate note with an eight-year maturity. The interest rate is ﬂoating at three-month LIBOR rate, reset quarterly. The next reset is in one week. What is the approximate duration of the ﬂoating-rate note? a) 8 years b) 4 years c) 3 months d) 1 week

7.4

Spot and Forward Rates

In addition to the cash ﬂows, we also need detailed information on the term structure of interest rates to value ﬁxed-income securities and their derivatives. This information is provided by spot rates, which are zero-coupon investment rates that start at the current time. From spot rates, we can infer forward rates, which are rates that start at a future date. Both are essential building blocks for the pricing of bonds. Consider for instance a one-year rate that starts in one year. This forward rate is deﬁned as F1,2 and can be inferred from the one-year and two-year spot rates, R1

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and R2 . The forward rate is the break-even future rate that equalizes the return on investments of different maturities. An investor has the choice to lock in a 2-year investment at the 2-year rate, or to invest for a term of one year and roll over at the 1-to-2 year forward rate. The two portfolios will have the same payoff when the future rate F1,2 is such that (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ R1 )(1 Ⳮ F1,2 )

(7.12)

For instance, if R1 ⳱ 4.00% and R2 ⳱ 4.62%, we have F1,2 ⳱ 5.24%. More generally, the T -period spot rate can be written as a geometric average of the spot and forward rates

AM FL Y

(1 Ⳮ RT )T ⳱ (1 Ⳮ R1 )(1 Ⳮ F1,2 )...(1 Ⳮ FT ⫺1,T )

(7.13)

where Fi,iⳭ1 is the forward rate of interest prevailing now (at time t ) over a horizon of i to i Ⳮ 1. Table 7-4 displays a sequence of spot rates, forward rates, and par yields, using annual compounding. The ﬁrst three years of this sequence are displayed in

TE

Figure 7-2.

FIGURE 7-2 Spot and Forward Rates

Spot rates: R3 R2 R1

Forward rates: F2,3 F1,2 F0,1

0

1

2

3

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Forward rates allow us to project future cash ﬂows that depend on future rates. The F1,2 forward rate, for example, can be taken as the market’s expectation of the second coupon payment on an FRN with annual payments and resets. We will also show later that positions in forward rates can be taken easily with derivative instruments. TABLE 7-4 Spot, Forward Rates and Par Yields Maturity (Year) i 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Spot Rate Ri 4.000 4.618 5.192 5.716 6.112 6.396 6.621 6.808 6.970 7.112

Forward Rate Fi ⫺1,i 4.000 5.240 6.350 7.303 7.712 7.830 7.980 8.130 8.270 8.400

Par Yield yi 4.000 4.604 5.153 5.640 6.000 6.254 6.451 6.611 6.745 6.860

Discount Function D (ti ) 0.9615 0.9136 0.8591 0.8006 0.7433 0.6893 0.6383 0.5903 0.5452 0.5030

Forward rates have to be positive, otherwise there would be an arbitrage opportunity. We abstract from transaction costs and assume we can invest and borrow at the same rate. For instance, R1 ⳱ 11.00% and R2 ⳱ 4.62% gives F1,2 ⳱ ⫺1.4%. This means that (1 Ⳮ R1 ) ⳱ 1.11 is greater than (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 ⳱ 1.094534. To take advantage of this discrepancy, we could borrow $1 million for two years and invest it for one year. After the ﬁrst year, the proceeds are kept in cash, or under the proverbial mattress, for the second period. The investment gives $1,110,000 and we have to pay back $1,094,534 only. This would create a proﬁt of $15,466 out of thin air, which is highly unlikely in practice. Interest rates must be positive for the same reason. The forward rate can be interpreted as a measure of the slope of the term structure. We can, for instance, expand both sides of Equation (7.12). After neglecting crossproduct terms, we have F1,2 ⬇ R2 Ⳮ (R2 ⫺ R1 )

(7.14)

Thus, with an upward sloping term structure, R2 is above R1 , and F1,2 will also be above R2 .

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We can also show that in this situation, the spot rate curve is above the par yield curve. Consider a bond with 2 payments. The 2-year par yield y2 is implicitly deﬁned from: P⳱

cF cF (cF Ⳮ F ) (cF Ⳮ F ) Ⳮ ⳱ Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ y2 ) (1 Ⳮ R1 ) (1 Ⳮ y2 )2 (1 Ⳮ R2 )2

where P is set to par P ⳱ F . The par yield can be viewed as a weighted average of spot rates. In an upward-sloping environment, par yield curves involve coupons that are discounted at shorter and thus lower rates than the ﬁnal payment. As a result, the par yield curve lies below the spot rate curve. For a formal proof, consider a 2-period par bond with a face value of $1 and coupon of y2 . We can write the price of this bond as 1 ⳱ y2 冫 (1 Ⳮ R1 ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ y2 )冫 (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 ⳱ y2 (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 冫 (1 Ⳮ R1 ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ y2 ) (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 ⳱ y2 (1 Ⳮ F1,2 ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ y2 ) 2R2 Ⳮ R22 ⳱ y2 (1 Ⳮ F1,2 ) Ⳮ y2 y2 ⳱ R2 (2 Ⳮ R2 )冫 (2 Ⳮ F1,2 ) In an upward-sloping environment, F1,2 ⬎ R2 and thus y2 ⬍ R2 . When the spot rate curve is ﬂat, the spot curve is identical to the par yield curve and to the forward curve. In general, the curves differ. Figure 7-3a displays the case of an upward sloping term structure. It shows the yield curve is below the spot curve while the forward curve is above the spot curve. With a downward sloping term structure, as shown in Figure 7-3b, the yield curve is above the spot curve, which is above the forward curve. Example 7-8: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 39/Capital Markets 7-8. Which of the following statements about yield curve arbitrage is true? a) No-arbitrage conditions require that the zero-coupon yield curve is either upward sloping or downward sloping. b) It is a violation of the no-arbitrage condition if the one-year interest rate is 10% or more, higher than the 10-year rate. c) As long as all discount factors are less than one but greater than zero, the curve is arbitrage free. d) The no-arbitrage condition requires all forward rates be nonnegative.

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FIGURE 7-3a Upward-Sloping Term Structure Interest rate 9

Forward curve

8

7

Spot curve

6

Par yield curve 5

4

3 0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

Maturity (Year) Example 7-9: FRM Exam 1997----Ques:wtion 1/Quantitative Techniques 7-9. Suppose a risk manager has made the mistake of valuing a zero-coupon bond using a swap (par) rate rather than a zero-coupon rate. Assume the par curve is upward sloping. The risk manager is therefore a) Indifferent to the rate used b) Over-estimating the value of the bond c) Under-estimating the value of the bond d) Lacking sufﬁcient information

Example 7-10: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 1/Quant. Analysis 7-10. Suppose that the yield curve is upward sloping. Which of the following statements is true? a) The forward rate yield curve is above the zero-coupon yield curve, which is above the coupon-bearing bond yield curve. b) The forward rate yield curve is above the coupon-bearing bond yield curve, which is above the zero-coupon yield curve. c) The coupon-bearing bond yield curve is above the zero-coupon yield curve, which is above the forward rate yield curve. d) The coupon-bearing bond yield curve is above the forward rate yield curve, which is above the zero-coupon yield curve.

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FIGURE 7-3b Downward-Sloping Term Structure 11

Interest rate

Par yield curve

10

Spot curve 9

Forward curve

8 0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

Maturity (Year)

7.5 7.5.1

Mortgage-Backed Securities Description

Mortgage-backed securities represent claims on repackaged mortgage loans. Their basic cash-ﬂow patterns start from an annuity, where the homeowner makes a monthly ﬁxed payment that covers principal and interest. Whereas mortgage loans are subject to credit risk, due to the possibility of default by the homeowner, most traded securities have third-party guarantees against credit risk. For instance, MBSs issued by Fannie Mae, an agency that is sponsored by the U.S. government, carry a guarantee of full interest and principal payment, even if the original borrower defaults. Even so, MBSs are complex securities due to the uncertainty in their cash ﬂows. Consider the traditional ﬁxed-rate mortgage. Homeowners have the possibility of making early payments of principal. This represents a long position in an option. In some cases, these prepayments are random, for instance when the homeowner sells the home due to changing job or family conditions. In other cases, these prepayments are more predictable. When interest rates fall, prepayments increase as homeowners can reﬁnance at a lower cost. This is similar to the rational early exercise of American call options.

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Generally, these factors affect reﬁnancing patterns: Age of the loan: Prepayment rates are generally low just after the mortgage loan has been issued and gradually increase over time until they reach a stable, or “seasoned,” level. This effect is known as seasoning. Spread between the mortgage rate and current rates: Like a callable bond, there is a greater beneﬁt to reﬁnancing if it achieves a signiﬁcant cost saving. Reﬁnancing incentives: The smaller the costs of reﬁnancing, the more likely homeowners will reﬁnance often. Previous path of interest rates: Reﬁnancing is more likely to occur if rates have been high in the past but recently dropped. In this scenario, past prepayments have been low but should rise sharply. In contrast, if rates are low but have been so for a while, most of the principal will already have been prepaid. This path dependence is usually referred to as burnout. Level of mortgage rates: Lower rates increase affordability and turnover. Economic activity: An economic environment where more workers change job location creates greater job turnover, which is more likely to lead to prepayments. Seasonal effects: There is typically more home-buying in the Spring, leading to increased prepayments in early Fall. The prepayment rate is summarized into what is called the conditional prepayment rate (CPR), which is expressed in annual terms. This number can be translated into a monthly number, known as the single monthly mortality (SMM) Rate using the adjustment: (1 ⫺ SMM)12 ⳱ (1 ⫺ CPR)

(7.15)

For instance, if CPR ⳱ 6% annually, the monthly proportion of principal paid early will be SMM ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ 0.06)1冫 12 ⳱ 0.005143, or 0.514% monthly. For a loan with a beginning monthly balance (BMB) of BMB = $50,525 and a scheduled principal payment of SP = $67, the prepayment will be 0.005143 ⫻ ($50,525 ⫺ $67) ⳱ $260. To price the MBS, the portfolio manager should describe the schedule of prepayments during the remaining life of the bond. This depends on many factors, including the age of the loan. Prepayments can be described using an industry standard, known as the Public Securities Association (PSA) prepayment model. The PSA model assumes a CPR of

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0.2% for the ﬁrst month, going up by 0.2% per month for the next 30 months, until 6% thereafter. Formally, this is: CPR ⳱ Min[6% ⫻ (t 冫 30), 6%]

(7.16)

This pattern is described in Figure 7-4 as the 100% PSA speed. By convention, prepayment patterns are expressed as a percentage of the PSA speed, for example 165% for a faster pattern and 70% PSA for a slower pattern.

Example: Computing the CPR Consider an MBS issued 20 months ago with a speed of 150% PSA. What are the CPR and SMM? The PSA speed is Min[6% ⫻ (20冫 30), 6%] ⳱ 0.04. Applying the 150 factor, we have CPR ⳱ 150% ⫻ 0.04 ⳱ 0.06. This implies SMM ⳱ 0.514%. FIGURE 7-4 Prepayment Pattern Annual CPR percentage 10 165% PSA 9 8 7 6 100% PSA 5 4

70% PSA

3 2 1 0 0

10

20 30 Mortgage age (months)

40

50

The next step is to project cash ﬂows based on the prepayment speed pattern. Figure 7-5 displays cash-ﬂow patterns for a 30-year MBS with a face amount of $100 million, 7.5% interest rate, and three months into its life. The horizontal, “0% PSA” line, describes the annuity pattern without any prepayment. The “100% PSA” line describes

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an increasing pattern of cash ﬂows, peaking in 27 months and decreasing thereafter. This point corresponds to the stabilization of the CPR at 6%. This pattern is more marked for the “165% PSA” line, which assumes a faster prepayment speed. Early prepayments create less payments later, which explains why the 100% PSA line is initially greater than the 0% line, then lower later as the principal has been paid off more quickly.

FIGURE 7-5 Cash Flows on MBS for Various PSA Cash flow ($ million) 1.6 1.4 1.2 1.0 0.8

0% PSA

0.6 100%PSA 0.4 0.2

165%PSA

0 0

60

120

180 240 Months to maturity

300

Example 7-11: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 51/Capital Markets 7-11. Suppose the annual prepayment rate CPR for a mortgage-backed security is 6%. What is the corresponding single-monthly mortality rate SMM? a) 0.514% b) 0.334% c) 0.5% d) 1.355%

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Example 7-12: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 14/Capital Markets 7-12. In analyzing the monthly prepayment risk of Mortgage-backed securities, an annual prepayment rate (CPR) is converted into a monthly prepayment rate (SMM). Which of the following formulas should be used for the conversion? a) SMM ⳱ (1 ⫺ CPR)1冫 12 b) SMM ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ CPR)1冫 12 c) SMM ⳱ 1 ⫺ (CPR)1冫 12 d) SMM ⳱ 1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ CPR)1冫 12

Example 7-13: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 87/Market Risk 7-13. A CMO bond class with a duration of 50 means that a) It has a discounted cash ﬂow weighted average life of 50 years. b) For a 100 bp change in yield, the bond’s price will change by roughly 50%. c) For a 1 bp change in yield, the bond’s price will change by roughly 5%. d) None of the above is correct.

Example 7-14: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 18/Capital Markets 7-14. Which of the following risks are common to both mortgage-backed securities and emerging market Brady bonds? I. Interest rate risk II. Prepayment risk III. Default risk IV. Political risk a) I only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) III and IV only

7.5.2

Prepayment Risk

Like other bonds, mortgage-backed securities are subject to market risk, due to ﬂuctuations in interest rates. They are also, however, subject to prepayment risk, which is the risk that the principal will be repaid early. Consider for instance an 8% MBS, which is illustrated in Figure 7-6. If rates drop to 6%, homeowners will rationally prepay early to reﬁnance the loan. Because the average life of the loan is shortened, this is called contraction risk. Conversely, if rates increase to 10%, homeowners will be less likely to reﬁnance early, and prepayments

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will slow down. Because the average life of the loan is extended, this is called extension risk. As shown in Figure 7-6, these features create “negative convexity”, which reﬂects the fact that the investor in an MBS is short an option. At point B, interest rates are very high and there is little likelihood that the homeowner will reﬁnance early. The option is nearly worthless and the MBS behaves like a regular bond, with positive convexity. At point A, the option pattern starts to affect the value of the MBS. Shorting an option creates negative gamma, or convexity. FIGURE 7-6 Negative Convexity of MBSs Market price 140 120 A 100

Positive convexity B

Negative convexity 80 60 40 20 0 5

6

7

8 9 Market yield

10

11

12

This changing cash-ﬂow pattern makes standard duration measures unreliable. Instead, sensitivity measures are computed using effective duration and effective convexity, as explained in Chapter 1. The measures are based on the estimated price of the MBS for three yield values, making suitable assumptions about how changes in rates should affect prepayments. Table 7-5 shows an example. In each case, we consider an upmove and downmove of 25bp. In the ﬁrst, “unchanged” panel, the PSA speed is assumed to be constant at 165 PSA. In the second, “changed” panel, we assume a higher PSA speed if rates drop and lower speed if rates increase. When rates drop, the MBS value goes up but not as

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much as if the prepayment speed had not changed, which reﬂects contraction risk. When rates increase, the MBS value drops by more than if the prepayment speed had not changed, which reﬂects extension risk. TABLE 7-5 Computing Effective Duration and Convexity Yield PSA Price Duration Convexity

Initial 7.50%

Unchanged PSA ⫺25bp +25bp 165PSA 165PSA 98.75 101.50 5.49y 0

100.125

Changed PSA ⫺25bp +25bp 150PSA 200PSA 98.7188 101.3438 5.24y ⫺299

As we have seen in Chapter 1, effective duration is measured as P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ) ⫺ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ) (2P0 ⌬y )

AM FL Y

DE ⳱

(7.17)

Effective convexity is measured as

冋

P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ) ⫺ P0 P ⫺ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ) ⫺ 0 (P0 ⌬y ) (P0 ⌬y )

册冫

⌬y

(7.18)

TE

CE ⳱

In the ﬁrst, “unchanged” panel, the effective duration is 5.49 years and convexity close to zero. In the second, “changed” panel, the effective duration is 5.24 years and convexity is negative, as expected, and quite large. Key concept: Mortgage-backed securities have negative convexity, which reﬂects the short position in an option granted to the homeowner to repay early. This creates extension risk when rates increase or contraction risk when rates fall. The option feature in MBSs increases their yield. To ascertain whether the securities represent good value, portfolio managers need to model the option component. The approach most commonly used is the option-adjusted spread (OAS). Starting from the static spread, the OAS method involves running simulations of various interest rate scenarios and prepayments to establish the option cost. The OAS is then OAS ⳱ Static spread ⫺ Option cost

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which represents the net richness or cheapness of the MBS. Within the same risk class, a security trading at a high OAS is preferable to others. The OAS is more stable over time than the spread, because the latter is affected by the option component. This explains why during market rallies (i.e., when long-term Treasury yields fall) yield spreads on current coupon mortgages often widen. These mortgages are more likely to be prepaid early, which makes them less attractive. Their option cost increases, pushing up the yield spread. Example 7-15: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 44/Capital Markets 7-15. The following are reasons that a prepayment model will not accurately predict future mortgage prepayments. Which of these will have the greatest effect on the convexity of mortgage pass-throughs? a) Reﬁnancing incentive b) Seasoning c) Reﬁnancing burnout d) Seasonality

Example 7-16: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 40/Capital Markets 7-16. Which attribute of a bond is not a reason for using effective duration instead of modiﬁed duration? a) Its life may be uncertain. b) Its cash ﬂow may be uncertain. c) Its price volatility tends to decline as maturity approaches. d) It may include changes in adjustable rate coupons with caps or ﬂoors.

Example 7-17: FRM Exam 2001----Ques:wtion 95 7-17. The option-adjusted duration of a callable bond will be close to the duration of a similar non-callable bond when the a) Bond trades above the call price. b) Bond has a high volatility. c) Bond trades much lower than the call price. d) Bond trades above parity.

7.5.3

Financial Engineering and CMOs

The MBS market has grown enormously in the last twenty years in the United States and is growing fast in other markets. MBSs allow capital to ﬂow from investors to borrowers, principally homeowners, in an efﬁcient fashion.

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One major drawback of MBSs, however, is their negative convexity. This makes it difﬁcult for investors, such as pension funds, to invest in MBSs because the life of these instruments is uncertain, making it more difﬁcult to match the duration of pension assets to the horizon of pension liabilities. In response, the ﬁnance industry has developed new classes of securities based on MBSs with more appealing characteristics. These are the collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs), which are new securities that redirect the cash ﬂows of an MBS pool to various segments. Figure 7-7 illustrates the process. The cash ﬂows from the MBS pool go into a special-purpose vehicle (SPV), which is a legal entity that issues different claims, or tranches with various characteristics, like slices in a pie. These are structured so that the cash ﬂow from the ﬁrst tranche, for instance, is more predictable than the original cash ﬂows. The uncertainty is then pushed into the other tranches. Starting from an MBS pool, ﬁnancial engineering creates securities that are better tailored to investors’ needs. It is important to realize, however, that the cash ﬂows and risks are fully preserved. They are only redistributed across tranches. Whatever transformation is brought about, the resulting package must obey basic laws of conservation for the underlying securities and package of resulting securities. We must have the same cash ﬂows at each point in time, except for fees paid to the issuer. As a result, we must have (1) The same market value (2) The same risk proﬁle As Lavoisier, the French chemist who was executed during the French revolution said, Rien ne se perd, rien ne se cr´ ee (nothing is lost, nothing is created). In particular, the weighted duration and convexity of the portfolio of tranches must add up to the original duration and convexity. If Tranche A has less convexity than the underlying securities, the other tranches must have more convexity. Similar structures apply to collateralized bond obligations (CBOs), collateralized loan obligations (CLOs), collateralized debt obligations (CDOs), which are a set of tradable bonds backed by bonds, loans, or debt (bonds and loans), respectively. These structures rearrange credit risk and will be explained in more detail in a later chapter. As an example of a two-tranche structure, consider a claim on a regular 5-year, 6% coupon $100 million note. This can be split up into a ﬂoater, that pays LIBOR on a

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FIGURE 7-7 Creating CMO Tranches Special Purpose Vehicle Cash Flow

Mortgage loans

Tranche A

Pass-Through:

Tranche B

Pool of Mortgage Obligations Tranche C

Tranche Z

notional of $50 million, and an inverse ﬂoater, that pays 12% ⫺ LIBOR on a notional of $50 million. The coupon on the inverse ﬂoater cannot go below zero: Coupon ⳱ Max(12%⫺LIBOR, 0). This imposes another condition on the ﬂoater Coupon ⳱ Min(LIBOR, 12%). We verify that the cash ﬂows exactly add up to the original. For each coupon payment, we have, in millions $50 ⫻ LIBOR Ⳮ $50 ⫻ (12% ⫺ LIBOR) ⳱ $100 ⫻ 6% ⳱ $6. At maturity, the total payments of twice $50 million add up to $100 million. We can also decompose the risk of the original structure into that of the two components. Assume a ﬂat term structure for the original note. Say the duration of the original 5-year note is D ⳱ 4.5 years. The portfolio dollar duration is: $50, 000, 000 ⫻ DF Ⳮ $50, 000, 000 ⫻ DIF ⳱ $100, 000, 000 ⫻ D Just before a reset, the duration of the ﬂoater is close to zero DF ⳱ 0. Hence, the duration of the inverse ﬂoater must be DIF ⳱ ($100, 000, 000冫 $50, 000, 000) ⫻ D ⳱ 2 ⫻ D , or twice that of the original note. Note that the duration is much greater than the maturity of the note. This illustrates the point that duration is an interest rate sensitivity measure. When cash ﬂows are uncertain, duration is not necessarily related to maturity. Intuitively, the ﬁrst tranche, the ﬂoater, has zero risk so that all of the

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risk must be absorbed into the second tranche, which must have a duration of 9 years. The total risk of the portfolio is conserved. This analysis can be easily extended to inverse ﬂoaters with greater leverage. Suppose the coupon the coupon is tied to twice LIBOR, for example 18% ⫺ 2 ⫻ LIBOR. The principal must be allocated in the amount x, in millions, for the ﬂoater and 100 ⫺ x for the inverse ﬂoater so that the coupon payment is preserved. We set x ⫻ LIBOR Ⳮ (100 ⫺ x) ⫻ (18% ⫺ 2 ⫻ LIBOR ) ⳱ $6

[x ⫺ (100 ⫺ x)2] ⫻ LIBOR Ⳮ (100 ⫺ x) ⫻ 18% ⳱ $6 This can only be satisﬁed if 3x ⫺ 200 ⳱ 0, or if x ⳱ $66.67 million. Thus, two-thirds of the notional must be allocated to the ﬂoater, and one-third to the inverse ﬂoater. The inverse ﬂoater now has three times the duration of the original note. Key concept: Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) rearrange the total cash ﬂows, total value, and total risk of the underlying securities. At all times, the total cash ﬂows, value, and risk of the tranches must equal those of the collateral. If some tranches are less risky than the collateral, others must be more risky. When the collateral is a mortgage-backed security, CMOs can be deﬁned by prioritizing the payment of principal into different tranches. This is deﬁned as sequentialpay tranches. Tranche A, for instance, will receive the principal payment on the whole underlying mortgages ﬁrst. This creates more certainty in the cash ﬂows accruing to Tranche A, which makes it more appealing to some investors. Of course, this is to the detriment of others. After principal payments to Tranche A are exhausted, Tranche B then receives all principal payments on the underlying MBS. And so on for other tranches. Another popular construction is the IO/PO structure. An interest-only (IO) tranche receives only the interest payments on the underlying MBS. The principal-only (PO) tranche then receives only the principal payments. As before, the market value of the IO and PO must exactly add to that of the MBS. Figure 7-8 describes the price behavior of the IO and PO. Note that the vertical addition of the two components always equals the value of the MBS.

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FIGURE 7-8 Creating an IO and PO from an MBS Market price 140 120 Pass-Through

100 80

Interest-Only (IO)

60 40

Principal-Only (PO) 20 0 5

6

7

8 9 Market yield

10

11

12

To analyze the PO, it is useful to note that the sum of all principal payments is constant (because we have no default risk). Only the timing is uncertain. In contrast, the sum of all interest payments depends on the timing of principal payments. Later principal payments create greater total interest payments. If interest rates fall, principal payments will come early, which reﬂects contraction risk. Because the principal is paid earlier and the discount rate decreases, the PO should appreciate sharply in value. On the other hand, the faster prepayments mean less interest payments over the life of the MBS, which is unfavorable to the IO. the IO should depreciate. Conversely, if interest rates rise, slower prepayments will slow down, which reﬂects extension risk. Because the principal is paid later and the discount rate increases, the PO should lose value. On the other hand, the slower prepayments mean more interest payments over the life of the MBS, which is favorable to the IO. The IO appreciates in value, up to the point where the higher discount rate effect dominates. Thus, IOs are bullish securities with negative duration, as shown in Figure 7-8.

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Example 7-18: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 13/Capital Markets 7-18. A CLO is generally a) A set of loans that can be traded individually in the market b) A pass-through c) A set of bonds backed by a loan portfolio d) None of the above

Example 7-19: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 121/Quant. Analysis 7-19. Which one of the following long positions is more exposed to an increase in interest rates? a) A Treasury Bill b) 10-year ﬁxed-coupon bond c) 10-year ﬂoater d) 10-year reverse ﬂoater

Example 7-20: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 32/Capital Markets 7-20. A 10-year reverse ﬂoater pays a semiannual coupon of 8% minus 6-month LIBOR. Assume the yield curve is 8% ﬂat, the current 10-year note has a duration of 7 years, and the interest rate on the note was just reset. What is the duration of the note? a) 6 months b) Shorter than 7 years c) Longer than 7 years d) 7 years

Example 7-21: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 79/Market Risk 7-21. Suppose that the coupon and the modiﬁed duration of a 10-year bond priced to par are 6.0% and 7.5, respectively. What is the approximate modiﬁed duration of a 10-year inverse ﬂoater priced to par with a coupon of 18% ⫺ 2 ⫻ LIBOR? a) 7.5 b) 15.0 c) 22.5 d) 0.0

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Example 7-22: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 3/Capital Markets 7-22. How would you describe the typical price behavior of a low premium mortgage pass-through security? a) It is similar to a U.S. Treasury bond. b) It is similar to a plain vanilla corporate bond. c) When interest rates fall, its price increase would exceed that of a comparable duration U.S. Treasury bond. d) When interest rates fall, its price increase would lag that of a comparable duration U.S. Treasury bond.

7.6

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 7-1: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 3/Capital Markets b) As interest rates increase, the coupon decreases. In addition, the discount factor increases. Hence, the value of the note must decrease even more than a regular ﬁxedcoupon bond. Example 7-2: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 9/Capital Markets d) With a callable bond the issuer has the option to call the bond early if its price would otherwise go up. Hence, the investor is short an option. A long position in a callable bond is equivalent to a long position in a noncallable bond plus a short position in a call option. Example 7-3: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 13/Capital Markets a) DR ⳱ (Face ⫺ Price)冫 Face ⫻ (360冫 t ) ⳱ ($100,000 ⫺ $97,569)冫 $100,000 ⫻ (360冫 100) ⳱ 8.75%. Note that the yield is 9.09%, which is higher. Example 7-4: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 53/Capital Markets b) Using Equation (7.8), we have D ⴱ ⳱ ⫺(dP 冫 P )冫 dy ⳱ [(135.85 ⫺ 132.99)冫 134.41]冫 [0.001 ⫻ 2] ⳱ 10.63. This is also a measure of effective duration. Example 7-5: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 31/Capital Markets c) Because this is a zero-coupon bond, it will always trade below par, and the call should never be exercised. Hence its duration is the maturity, 10 years.

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Example 7-6: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 91/Market Risk a) By Equation (7.8). Example 7-7: FRM Exam 1997----Ques:wtion 49/Market Risk d) Duration is not related to maturity when coupons are not ﬁxed over the life of the investment. We know that at the next reset, the coupon on the FRN will be set at the prevailing rate. Hence, the market value of the note will be equal to par at that time. The duration or price risk is only related to the time to the next reset, which is 1 week here. Example 7-8: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 39/Capital Markets d) Discount factors need to be below one, as interest rates need to be positive, but in addition forward rates also need to be positive. Example 7-9: FRM Exam 1997----Ques:wtion 1/Quantitative Techniques b) If the par curve is rising, it must be below the spot curve. As a result, the discounting will use rates that are too low, thereby overestimating the bond value. Example 7-10: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 1/Quant. Analysis a) See Figures 7-3a an 7-3b. The coupon yield curve is an average of the spot, zerocoupon curve, hence has to lie below the spot curve when it is upward-sloping. The forward curve can be interpreted as the spot curve plus the slope of the spot curve. If the latter is upward sloping, the forward curve has to be above the spot curve. Example 7-11: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 51/Capital Markets a) Using (1 ⫺ 6%) ⳱ (1 ⫺ SMM)12 , we ﬁnd SMM = 0.51%. Example 7-12: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 14/Capital Markets b) As (1 ⫺ SMM)12 ⳱ (1 ⫺ CPR). Example 7-13: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 87/Market Risk b) Discounted cash ﬂows are not useful for CMOs because they are uncertain. So, duration is a measure of interest rate sensitivity. We have (dP 冫 P ) ⳱ D ⴱ dy ⳱ 50 ⫻ 1% ⳱ 50%.

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Example 7-14: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 18/Capital Markets c) MBSs are subject to I, II, III (either homeowner or agency default). Brady bonds are subject to I, III, IV. Neither is exposed to currency risk. Example 7-15: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 44/Capital Markets a) The question is which factor has the greatest effect on the interest rate convexity, or increases the prepayment rate when rates fall . Seasoning and seasonality are not related to interest rates. Burnout lowers the prepayment rate. So, reﬁnancing incentives is the remaining factor that affects most the option feature. Example 7-16: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 40/Capital Markets c) Effective convexity is useful when the cash ﬂows are uncertain. All attributes are reasons for using effective convexity, except that the price risk decreases as maturity gets close. This holds for a regular coupon-paying bond anyway. Example 7-17: FRM Exam 2001----Ques:wtion 95 c) This question is applicable to MBSs as well as callable bonds. From Figure 7-6, we see that the callable bond behaves like a straight bond when market yields are high, or when the bond price is low. So, (c) is correct and (a) and (d) must be wrong. Example 7-18: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 13/Capital Markets c) Like a CMO, a CLO represents a set of tradable securities backed by some collateral, in this case a loan portfolio. Example 7-19: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 121/Quant. Analysis d) Risk is measured by duration. Treasury bills and ﬂoaters have very small duration. A 10-year ﬁxed-rate note will have a duration of perhaps 8 years. In contrast, an inverse (or reverse) ﬂoater has twice the duration. Example 7-20: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 32/Capital Markets c) The duration is normally about 14 years. Note that if the current coupon is zero, the inverse ﬂoater behaves like a zero-coupon bond with a duration of 10 years.

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Example 7-21: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 79/Market Risk c) Following the same reasoning as above, we must divide the ﬁxed-rate bonds into 2/3 FRN and 1/3 inverse ﬂoater. This will ensure that the inverse ﬂoater payment is related to twice LIBOR. As a result, the duration of the inverse ﬂoater must be 3 times that of the bond. Example 7-22: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 3/Capital Markets d) MBSs are unlike regular bonds, Treasuries, or corporates, because of their negative convexity. When rates fall, homeowners prepay early, which means that the price

TE

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appreciation is less than that of comparable duration regular bonds.

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Chapter 8 Fixed-Income Derivatives This chapter turns to the analysis of ﬁxed-income derivatives. These are instruments whose value derives from a bond price, interest rate, or other bond market variable. As discussed in Chapter 5, ﬁxed-income derivatives account for the largest proportion of the global derivatives markets. Understanding ﬁxed-income derivatives is also important because many ﬁxed-income securities have derivative-like characteristics. This chapter focuses on the use of ﬁxed-income derivatives, as well as their pricing. Pricing involves ﬁnding the fair market value of the contract. For risk management purposes, however, we also need to assess the range of possible movements in contract values. This will be further examined in the chapters on market risk and in Chapter 21, when discussing credit exposure. Section 8.1 discusses interest rate forward contracts, also known as forward rate agreements. Section 8.2 then turns to the discussion of interest rate futures, covering Eurodollar and Treasury Bond futures. Although these products are dollar-based, similar products exist on other capital markets. Swaps are analyzed in Section 8.3. Swaps are very important instruments due to their widespread use. Finally, interest rate options are covered in Section 8.4, including caps and ﬂoors, swaptions, and exchange-traded options.1

8.1

Forward Contracts

Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs) are over-the-counter ﬁnancial contracts that allow counterparties to lock in an interest rate starting at a future time. The buyers of an FRA lock in a borrowing rate, the sellers lock in a lending rate. In other words, the “long” beneﬁts from an increase in rates and the short beneﬁts from a fall in rates.

1

The reader should be aware that this chapter is very technical.

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As an example, consider an FRA that settles in one month on 3-month LIBOR. Such FRA is called 1 ⫻ 4. The ﬁrst number corresponds to the ﬁrst settlement date, the second to the time to ﬁnal maturity. Call τ the period to which LIBOR applies, 3 months in this case. On the settlement date, in one month, the payment to the long involves the net value of the difference between the spot rate ST (the prevailing 3month LIBOR rate) and of the locked-in forward rate F The payoff is ST ⫺ F , as with other forward contracts, present valued to the ﬁrst settlement date. This gives VT ⳱ (ST ⫺ F ) ⫻ τ ⫻ Notional ⫻ PV($1)

(8.1)

where PV($1) ⳱ $1冫 (1ⳭST τ ). The amount is cash settled. Figure 8-1 shows how a short position in an FRA, which locks in an investing rate, is equivalent to borrowing shortterm to ﬁnance a long-term investment. In both cases, there is no up-front investment. The duration is equal to the difference between the durations of the two legs. From Equation (8.1), the duration is τ and dollar duration DD ⳱ τ ⫻ Notional ⫻ PV($1).

FIGURE 8-1 Decompositions of an FRA

Spot rates: R2 R1 Position : borrow 1 yr, invest 2 yr

Forward rates: F1,2 Position : short FRA (receive fixed)

0

1

2

Example: Using an FRA A company will receive $100 million in 6 months to be invested for a 6-month period. The Treasurer is afraid rates will fall, in which case the investment return will

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be lower. The company could sell a 6 ⫻ 12 FRA on $100 million at the rate of F ⳱ 5%. This locks in an investment rate of 5% starting in six months. When the FRA expires in 6 months, assume that the prevailing 6-month spot rate is ST ⳱ 4%. This will lower the investment return on the cash received, which is the scenario the Treasurer feared. Using Equation (8.1), the FRA has a payoff of VT ⳱ ⫺(4% ⫺ 5%) ⫻ (6冫 12) ⫻ $100 million ⳱ $500,000, which multiplied by the present value factor gives $490,196. In effect, this payment offsets the lower return that the company would otherwise receive on a ﬂoating investment, guaranteeing a return equal to the forward rate. This contract is also equivalent to borrowing the present value of $100 million for 6 months and investing the proceeds for 12 months. Thus its duration is D12 ⫺ D6 ⳱ 12 ⫺ 6 ⳱ 6 months. Key concept: A short FRA position is similar to a long position in a bond. Its duration is positive and equal to the difference between the two maturities. Example 8-1: FRM Exam 2001----Question 70/Capital Markets 8-1. Consider the following 6 ⫻ 9 FRA. Assume the buyer of the FRA agrees to a contract rate of 6.35% on a notional amount of $10 million. Calculate the settlement amount of the seller if the settlement rate is 6.85%. Assume a 30/360 day count basis. a) ⫺12, 500 b) ⫺12, 290 c) Ⳮ12, 500 d) Ⳮ12, 290 Example 8-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 73/Capital Markets 8-2. The following instruments are traded, on an ACT/360 basis: 3-month deposit (91 days), at 4.5% 3 ⫻ 6 FRA (92 days), at 4.6% 6 ⫻ 9 FRA (90 days), at 4.8% 9 ⫻ 12 FRA (92 days), at 6% What is the 1-year interest rate on an ACT/360 basis? a) 5.19% b) 5.12% c) 5.07% d) 4.98%

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Example 8-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 54/Capital Markets 8-3. Roughly estimate the DV01 for a 2 ⫻ 5 CHF 100 million FRA in which a trader will pay ﬁxed and receive ﬂoating rate. a) CHF 1,700 b) CHF (1,700) c) CHF 2,500 d) CHF (2,500)

8.2

Futures

Whereas FRAs are over-the-counter contracts, futures are traded on organized exchanges. We will cover the most important types of futures contracts, Eurodollar and T-bond futures.

8.2.1

Eurodollar Futures

Eurodollar futures are futures contracts tied to a forward LIBOR rate. Since their creation on the Chicago Mercantile Exchange, Eurodollar futures have spread to equivalent contracts such as Euribor futures (denominated in euros),2 Euroswiss futures (denominated in Swiss francs), Euroyen futures (denominated in Japanese yen), and so on. These contracts are akin to FRAs involving 3-month forward rates starting on a wide range of dates, from near dates to ten years into the future. The formula for calculating the price of one contract is Pt ⳱ 10, 000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25(100 ⫺ FQt )] ⳱ 10, 000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25Ft ]

(8.2)

where FQt is the quoted Eurodollar futures price. This is quoted as 100.00 minus the interest rate Ft , expressed in percent, that is, FQt ⳱ 100 ⫺ Ft . The 0.25 factor represents the 3-month maturity, or 0.25 years. For instance, if the market quotes FQt ⳱ 94.47, the contract price is P ⳱ 10, 000[100 ⫺ 0.25 ⫻ 5.53] ⳱ $98, 175. At expiration, the contract price settles to PT ⳱ 10, 000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25ST ] 2

(8.3)

Euribor futures are based on the European Bankers Federations’ Euribor Offered Rate (EBF Euribor). The contracts differ from Euro LIBOR futures, which are based on the British Bankers’ Association London Interbank Offer Rate (BBA LIBOR), but are much less active.

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where ST is the 3-month Eurodollar spot rate prevailing at T . Payments are cash settled. As a result, Ft can be viewed as a 3-month forward rate that starts at the maturity of the futures contract. The formula for the contract price may look complicated but in fact is structured so that an increase in the interest rate leads to a decrease in the price of the contract, as is usual for ﬁxed-income instruments. Also, since the change in the price is related to the interest rate by a factor of 0.25, this contract has a constant duration of 3 months. The DV01 is DV01 ⳱ $10, 000 ⫻ 0.25 ⫻ 0.01 ⳱ $25.

Example: Using Eurodollar futures As in the previous section, the Treasurer wants to hedge a future investment of $100 million in 6 months for a 6-month period. He or she should sell Eurodollar futures to generate a gain if rates fall. If the futures contract trades at FQt ⳱ 95.00, the dollar value of the contract is P ⳱ 10,000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25(100 ⫺ 95)] ⳱ $987, 500. The duration of the Eurodollar futures is three months; that of the company’s investment is six months. Using the ratio of dollar durations, the number of contracts to sell is N⳱

0.50 ⫻ $100, 000, 000 DV V ⳱ ⳱ 202.53 0.25 ⫻ $987, 500 DF P

Rounding, the Treasurer needs to sell 203 contracts. Chapter 5 has explained that the pricing of forwards is similar to those of futures, except when the value of the futures contract is strongly correlated with the reinvestment rate. This is the case with Eurodollar futures. Interest rate futures contracts are designed to move like a bond, that is, lose value when interest rates increase. The correlation is negative. This implies that when interest rates rise, the futures contract loses value and in addition funds have to be provided precisely when the borrowing cost or reinvestment rate is higher. Conversely when rates drop, the contract gains value and the proﬁts can be withdrawn but are now reinvested at a lower rate. Relative to forward contracts, this marking-to-market feature is disadvantageous to long futures positions. This has to be offset by a lower value for the futures contract price. Given that Pt ⳱ 10, 000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25 ⫻ Ft ], this implies a higher Eurodollar futures rate Ft .

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The difference is called the convexity adjustment and can be described as3 Futures Rate ⳱ Forward Rate Ⳮ (1冫 2)σ 2 t1 t2

(8.4)

where σ is the volatility of the change in the short-term rate, t1 is the time to maturity of the futures contract, and t2 is the maturity of the rate underlying the futures contract.

Example: Convexity adjustment Consider a 10-year Eurodollar contract, for which t1 ⳱ 10, t2 ⳱ 10.25. The maturity of the futures contract itself is 10 years and that of the underlying rate is 10 years plus three months. Typically, σ ⳱ 1%, so that the adjustment is (1冫 2)0.012 ⫻ 10 ⫻ 10.25 ⳱ 0.51%. So, if the forward price is 6%, the equivalent futures rate would be 6.51%. Note that the effect is signiﬁcant for long maturities only. Changing t1 to one year and t2 to 1.25, for instance, reduces the adjustment to 0.006%, which is negligible.

Example 8-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Capital Markets 8-4. What are the differences between forward rate agreements (FRAs) and Eurodollar Futures? I. FRAs are traded on an exchange, whereas Eurodollar Futures are not. II. FRAs have better liquidity than Eurodollar Futures. III. FRAs have standard contract sizes, whereas Eurodollar Futures do not. a) I only b) I and II only c) II and III only d) None of the above

Example 8-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 40/Capital Markets 8-5. Roughly, how many 3-month LIBOR Eurodollar Futures contracts are needed to hedge a long 100 million position in 1-year U.S. Treasury Bills? a) Short 100 b) Long 4,000 c) Long 100 d) Short 400 3

This formula is derived from the Ho-Lee model. See for instance Hull (2000), Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives, Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice-Hall.

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Example 8-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 7/Capital Markets 8-6. For assets that are strongly positively correlated with interest rates, which one of the following is true? a) Long-dated forward contracts will have higher prices than long-dated futures contracts. b) Long-dated futures contracts will have higher prices than long-dated forward contracts. c) Long-dated forward and long-dated futures prices are always the same. d) The “convexity effect” can be ignored for long-dated futures contracts on that asset.

8.2.2

T-bond Futures

T-bond futures are futures contracts tied to a pool of Treasury bonds that consists of all bonds with a remaining maturity greater than 15 years (and noncallable within 15 years). Similar contracts exist on shorter rates, including 2-, 5-, and 10-year Treasury notes. Treasury futures also exist in other markets, including Canada, the United Kingdom, Eurozone, and Japanese government bonds. Futures contracts are quoted like T-bonds, for example 97-02, in percent plus thirty-seconds, with a notional of $100,000. Thus the price of the contract would be $100,000 ⫻ (97 Ⳮ 2冫 32)冫 100 ⳱ $97,062.50. The next day, if yields go up and the quoted price falls to 96-0, the new price would be $965,000, and the loss on a long position would be P2 ⫺ P1 ⳱ ⫺$1,062.50. It is important to note that the T-bond futures contract is settled by physical delivery. To ensure interchangeability between the deliverable bonds, the futures contract uses a conversion factor (CF) for delivery. This factor multiplies the futures price for payment to the short and attempts to equalize the net cost of delivering the eligible bonds. The conversion factor is needed due to the fact that bonds trade at widely different prices. High coupon bonds trade at a premium, low coupon bonds at a discount. Without this adjustment, the party with the short position (the“short”) would always deliver the same, cheap bond and there would be little exchangeability between bonds. This exchangeability minimizes the possibility of market squeezes. A squeeze occurs when holders of the short position cannot acquire or borrow the securities required for delivery under the terms of the contract.

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So, the “short” delivers a bond and receives the quoted futures price times a CF that is speciﬁc to the delivered bond (plus accrued interest). The “short” picks the bond that minimizes the net cost, Cost ⳱ Price ⫺ Futures Quote ⫻ CF

(8.5)

The bond with the lowest net cost is called cheapest to deliver (CTD). In practice, the CF is set by the exchange at initiation of the contract. It is computed by discounting the bond cash ﬂows at a notional 6% rate, assuming a ﬂat term structure. So, high coupon bonds receive a high conversion factor. The net cost calculations are illustrated in Table 8-1 for three bonds. The 10 5/8% coupon bond has a high factor, at 1.4533. The 5 1/2% bond in contrast has a factor less than one. Note how the CF adjustment brings the cost of all bonds much closer to each other than their original prices. Still, small differences remain due to the fact that the term structure is not perfectly ﬂat at 6%.4 The ﬁrst bond is the CTD. TABLE 8-1 Calculation of CTD Bond 8 7/8% Aug 2017 10 5/8% Aug 2015 5 1/2% Nov 2028

Price 127.094 141.938 91.359

Futures 97.0625 97.0625 97.0625

CF 1.3038 1.4533 0.9326

Cost 0.544 0.877 0.839

As a ﬁrst approximation, this CTD bond drives the characteristics of the futures contract. The equilibrium futures price is given by Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St ⫺ PV(D )

(8.6)

where St is the gross price of the CTD and PV(D ) is the present value of the coupon payments. This has to be further divided by the conversion factor for this bond. The duration of the futures contract is also given by that of the CTD. In fact, these relations are only approximate because the “short” has an option to deliver the cheapest of a 4

The adjustement is not perfect when current yields are far from 6%, or when the term structure is not ﬂat, or when bonds do not trade at their theoretical prices. When rates are below 6%, discounting cash ﬂows at 6% creates an downside bias for CF that increases for longer-term bonds. This tends to favor short-term bonds for delivery. When the term structure is upward sloping, the opposite occurs, and there is a tendency for long-term bonds to be delivered. Every so often, the exchange changes the coupon on the notional to reﬂect market conditions. The recent fall in yields explains why, for instance, the Chicago Board of Trade changed the notional coupon from 8% to 6% in 1999.

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group of bonds. The value of this delivery option should depress the futures price since the party who is long the futures is also short the option, which is unfavorable. Unfortunately, this complex option is not easy to evaluate. Example 8-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 11/Capital Markets 8-7. The Chicago Board of Trade has reduced the notional coupon of its Treasury futures contracts from 8% to 6%. Which of the following statements are likely to be true as a result of the change? a) The cheapest to deliver status will become more unstable if yields hover near the 6% range. b) When yields fall below 6%, higher duration bonds will become cheapest to deliver, whereas lower duration bonds will become cheapest to deliver when yields range above 6%. c) The 6% coupon would decrease the duration of the contract, making it a more effective hedge for the long end of the yield curve. d) There will be no impact at all by the change.

8.3

Swaps

Swaps are agreements by two parties to exchange cash ﬂows in the future according to a prearranged formula. Interest rate swaps have payments tied to an interest rate. The most common type of swap is the ﬁxed-for-ﬂoating swap, where one party commits to pay a ﬁxed percentage of notional against a receipt that is indexed to a ﬂoating rate, typically LIBOR. The risk is that of a change in the level of rates. Other types of swaps are basis swaps, where both payments are indexed to a ﬂoating rate. For instance, the swap can involve exchanging payments tied to 3-month LIBOR against a 3-month Treasury Bill rate. The risk is that of a change in the spread between the reference rates.

8.3.1

Deﬁnitions

Consider two counterparties, A and B, that can raise funds either at ﬁxed or ﬂoating rates, $100 million over ten years. A wants to raise ﬂoating, and B wants to raise ﬁxed. Table 8-2a displays capital costs. Company A has an absolute advantage in the two markets as it can raise funds at rates systematically lower than B. Company A, however, has a comparative advantage in raising ﬁxed as the cost is 1.2% lower than

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for B. In contrast, the cost of raising ﬂoating is only 0.70% lower than for B. Conversely, company B must have a comparative advantage in raising ﬂoating. TABLE 8-2a Cost of Capital Comparison Company A B

Fixed 10.00% 11.20%

Floating LIBOR + 0.30% LIBOR + 1.00%

This provides a rationale for a swap that will be to the mutual advantage of both parties. If both companies directly issue funds in their ﬁnal desired market, the total cost will be LIBOR + 0.30% (for A) and 11.20% (for B), for a total of LIBOR + 11.50%. In contrast, the total cost of raising capital where each has a com-

AM FL Y

parative advantage is 10.0% (for A) and LIBOR + 1.00% (for B), for a total of LIBOR + 11.00%. The gain to both parties from entering a swap is 11.50% ⫺ 11.00% = 0.50%. For instance, the swap described in Tables 8-2b and 8-2c splits the beneﬁt equally between the two parties.

TABLE 8-2b Swap to Company A Fixed Pay 10.00% Receive 10.00%

TE

Operation Issue debt Enter swap Net Direct cost Savings

Floating

Pay LIBOR + 0.05% Pay LIBOR + 0.05% Pay LIBOR + 0.30% 0.25%

Company A issues ﬁxed debt at 10.00%, and then enters a swap whereby it promises to pay LIBOR + 0.05% in exchange for receiving 10.00% ﬁxed payments. Its effective funding cost is therefore LIBOR + 0.05%, which is less than the direct cost by 25bp. TABLE 8-2c Swap to Company B Operation Issue debt Enter swap Net Direct cost Savings

Floating Pay LIBOR + 1.00% Receive LIBOR + 0.05%

Fixed Pay 10.00% Pay 10.95% Pay 11.20% 0.25%

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Similarly, Company B issues ﬂoating debt at LIBOR + 1.0%, and then enters a swap whereby it receives LIBOR + 0.05% in exchange for paying 10.0% ﬁxed. Its effective funding cost is therefore 10.95%, which is less than the direct cost by 25bp. Both parties beneﬁt from the swap. In terms of actual cash ﬂows, payments are typically netted against each other. For instance, if the ﬁrst LIBOR rate is at 9% assuming annual payments, Company A would be owed 10% ⫻ $100 ⳱ $1 million, and have to pay 9.05% ⫻ $100 ⳱ $0.905 million. This gives a net receipt of $95,000. There is no need to exchange principals since both involve the same amount.

8.3.2

Quotations

Swaps are often quoted in terms of spreads relative to the yield of similar-maturity Treasury notes. For instance, a dealer may quote 10-year swap spreads as 31冫 34bp against LIBOR. If the current note yield is 6.72, this means that the dealer is willing to pay 6.72Ⳮ0.31 ⳱ 7.03% against receiving LIBOR, or that the dealer is willing to receive 6.72 Ⳮ 0.34 ⳱ 7.06% against paying LIBOR. Of course, the dealer makes a proﬁt from the spread, which is rather small, at 3bp only. Swap rates are quoted for AA-rated counterparties. For lower rated counterparties the spread would be higher.

8.3.3

Pricing

Consider, for instance, a 3-year $100 million swap, where we receive a ﬁxed coupon of 5.50% against LIBOR. Payments are annual and we ignore credit spreads. We can price the swap using either of two approaches, taking the difference between two bond prices or valuing a sequence of forward contracts. This is illustrated in Figure 8-2. This swap is equivalent to a long position in a ﬁxed-rate, 5.5% 3-year bond and a short position in a 3-year ﬂoating-rate note (FRN). If BF is the value of the ﬁxed-rate bond and Bf is the value of the FRN, the value of the swap is V ⳱ BF ⫺ Bf . The value of the FRN should be close to par. Just before a reset, Bf will behave exactly like a cash investment, as the coupon for the next period will be set to the prevailing interest rate. Therefore, its market value should be close to the face value. Just after a reset, the FRN will behave like a bond with a 6-month maturity. But overall, ﬂuctuations in the market value of Bf should be small. Consider now the swap value. If at initiation the swap coupon is set to the prevailing par yield, BF is equal to the face value, BF ⳱ 100. Because Bf ⳱ 100 just before

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FIGURE 8-2 Alternative Decompositions for Swap Cash Flows $100m

Long fixedrate bond

5.5% × $100m LIBOR × $100m

Short floatingrate bond

$100m

5.5% × $100m Long forward contracts L× $100m 0

1

2

3

Year

the reset on the ﬂoating leg, the value of the swap is zero, V ⳱ BF ⫺ Bf ⳱ 0. This is like a forward contract at initiation. After the swap is consummated, its value will be affected by interest rates. If rates fall, the swap will move in the money, since it receives higher coupons than prevailing market yields. BF will increase whereas Bf will barely change. Thus the duration of a receive-ﬁxed swap is similar to that of a ﬁxed-rate bond, including the ﬁxed coupons and principal at maturity. This is because the duration of the ﬂoating leg is close to zero. The fact that the principals are not exchanged does not mean that the duration computation should not include the principal. Duration should be viewed as an interest rate sensitivity.

Key concept: A position in a receive-ﬁxed swap is equivalent to a long position in a bond with similar coupon characteristics and maturity offset by a short position in a ﬂoating-rate note. Its duration is close to that of the ﬁxed-rate note.

We now value the 3-year swap using term-structure data from the preceding chapter. The time is just before a reset, so Bf ⳱ $100 million. We compute BF (in millions) as

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BF ⳱

199

$5.5 $5.5 $105.5 Ⳮ Ⳮ ⳱ $100.95 2 (1 Ⳮ 4.000%) (1 Ⳮ 4.618%) (1 Ⳮ 5.192%)3

The outstanding value of the swap is therefore V ⳱ $100.95 ⫺ $100 ⳱ $0.95 million. Alternatively, the swap can be valued as a sequence of forward contracts. Recall that the valuation of a unit position in a long forward contract is given by Vi ⳱ (Fi ⫺ K )exp(⫺ri τi )

(8.7)

where Fi is the market forward rate, K the prespeciﬁed rate, and ri the spot rate for time τi , using continuous compounding. Extending this to multiple maturities, the swap can be valued as V ⳱

冱 ni (Fi ⫺ K )exp(⫺ri τi )

(8.8)

i

where ni is the notional amount for maturity i . Since the contract increases in value if market rates, i.e., Fi , go up, this corresponds to a pay-ﬁxed position. We have to adapt this to our receive-ﬁxed swap and annual compounding. Using the forward rates listed in Table 7-4, we ﬁnd V ⳱⫺

$100(4.000% ⫺ 5.50%) $100(5.240% ⫺ 5.50%) $100(6.350% ⫺ 5.50%) ⫺ ⫺ (1 Ⳮ 4.000%) (1 Ⳮ 4.618%)2 (1 Ⳮ 5.192%)3

V ⳱ Ⳮ1.4423 Ⳮ 0.2376 ⫺ 0.7302 ⳱ $0.95 million This is identical to the previous result, as should be. The swap is in-the-money primarily because of the ﬁrst payment, which pays a rate of 5.5% whereas the forward rate is only 4.00%. Thus, interest rate swaps can be priced and hedged using a sequence of forward rates, such as those implicit in Eurodollar contracts. In practice, the practice of daily marking-to-market futures induces a slight convexity bias in futures rates, which have to be adjusted downward to get forward rates. Figure 8-3 compares a sequence of quarterly forward rates with the ﬁve-year swap rate prevailing at the same time. Because short-term forward rates are less than the swap rate, the near payments are in-the-money. In contrast, the more distant payments are out-of-the-money. The current market value of this swap is zero, which implies that all the near-term positive values must be offset by distant negative values.

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FIGURE 8-3 Sequence of Forward Rates and Swap Rate Interest rate 5.00 Forward rates 4.00

Fixed swap rate

3.00

2.00

1.00

0 0

1

2 Time (years)

3

4

5

Example 8-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 55/Credit Risk 8-8. Bank One enters into a 5-year swap contract with Mervin Co. to pay LIBOR in return for a ﬁxed 8% rate on a nominal principal of $100 million. Two years from now, the market rate on three-year swaps at LIBOR is 7%; at this time Mervin Co. declares bankruptcy and defaults on its swap obligation. Assume that the net payment is made only at the end of each year for the swap contract period. What is the market value of the loss incurred by Bank One as result of the default? a) $1.927 million b) $2.245 million c) $2.624 million d) $3.011 million

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Example 8-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 42/Capital Markets 8-9. A multinational corporation is considering issuing a ﬁxed-rate bond. However, by using interest swaps and ﬂoating-rate notes, the issuer can achieve the same objective. To do so, the issuer should consider a) Issuing a ﬂoating-rate note of the same maturity of and enter into an interest rate swap paying ﬁxed and receiving ﬂoat b) Issuing a ﬂoating-rate note of the same maturity of and enter into an interest rate swap paying ﬂoat and receiving ﬁxed c) Buying a ﬂoating-rate note of the same maturity of and enter into an interest rate swap paying ﬁxed and receiving ﬂoat d) Buying a ﬂoating-rate note of the same maturity of and enter into an interest rate swap paying ﬂoat and receiving ﬁxed

Example 8-10: FRM Exam 1998----Question 46/Capital Markets 8-10. Which of the following positions has the same exposure to interest rates as the receiver of the ﬂoating rate on a standard interest rate swap? a) Long a ﬂoating-rate note with the same maturity b) Long a ﬁxed-rate note with the same maturity c) Short a ﬂoating-rate note with the same maturity d) Short a ﬁxed-rate note with the same maturity

Example 8-11: FRM Exam 1999----Question 59/Capital Markets 8-11. (Complex) If an interest rate swap is priced off the Eurodollar futures strip without correcting the rates for convexity, the resulting arbitrage can be exploited by a a) Receive-ﬁxed swap + short Eurodollar futures position b) Pay-ﬁxed swap + short Eurodollar futures position c) Receive-ﬁxed swap + long Eurodollar futures position d) Pay-ﬁxed swap + long Eurodollar futures position

8.4

Options

There is a large variety of ﬁxed-income options. We will brieﬂy describe here caps and ﬂoors, swaptions, and exchange-traded options. In addition to these stand alone instruments, ﬁxed-income options are embedded in many securities. For instance, a callable bond can be viewed as a regular bond plus a short position in an option.

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When considering ﬁxed-income options, the underlying can be a yield or a price. Due to the negative price-yield relationship, a call option on a bond can also be viewed as a put option on the underlying yield.

8.4.1

Caps and Floors

A cap is a call option on interest rates with unit value CT ⳱ Max[iT ⫺ iC , 0]

(8.9)

where iC is the cap rate and iT is the rate prevailing at maturity. In practice, caps are issued jointly with the issuance of ﬂoating-rate notes that pay LIBOR plus a spread on a periodic basis for the term of the note. By purchasing the cap, the issuer ensures that the cost of capital will not exceed the capped rate. Such caps are really a combination of individual options, called caplets. The payment on each caplet is determined by CT , the notional, and an accrual factor. Payments are made in arrears, that is, at the end of the period. For instance, take a one-year cap on a notional of $1 million and a 6-month LIBOR cap rate of 5%. The agreement period is from January 15 to the next January with a reset on July 15. Suppose that on July 15, LIBOR is at 5.5%. On the following January, the payment is $1 million ⫻ (0.055 ⫺ 0.05)(184冫 360) ⳱ $2, 555.56 using Actual 冫 360 interest accrual. If the cap is used to hedge an FRN, this would help to offset the higher coupon payment, which is now 5.5%. A ﬂoor is a put option on interest rates with value PT ⳱ Max[iF ⫺ iT , 0]

(8.10)

where iF is the ﬂoor rate. A collar is a combination of buying a cap and selling a ﬂoor. This combination decreases the net cost of purchasing the cap protection. When the cap and ﬂoor rates converge to the same value, the overall debt cost becomes ﬁxed instead of ﬂoating. By put-call parity, we have Long Cap(iC ⳱ K ) ⫺ Short Floor(iF ⳱ K ) ⳱ Long Pay ⫺ Fixed Swap

(8.11)

Caps are typically priced using a variant of the Black model, assuming that interest rate changes are lognormal. The value of the cap is set equal to a portfolio of K caplets, which are European-style individual options on different interest rates with

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regularly spaced maturities K

c⳱

冱 ck

(8.12)

k⳱1

Each caplet is priced according to the Black model, per dollar and year ck ⳱ [FN (d1 ) ⫺ KN (d2 )]PV($1)

(8.13)

where F is the current forward rate for the period tk to tkⳭ1 , K is the cap rate, and PV($1) is the discount factor to time tkⳭ1 . To obtain a dollar amount, we must adjust for the notional amount as well as the length of the accrual period. The volatility entering the function, σ , is that of the forward rate between now and the expiration of the option contract, that is, at tk . Generally, volatilities are quoted as one number for all caplets within a cap, which is called ﬂat volatilities. σk ⳱ σ Alternatively, volatilities can be quoted separately for each forward rate in the caplet, which is called spot volatilities.

Example: Computing the value of a cap Consider the previous cap on $1 million at the capped rate of 5%. Assume a ﬂat term structure at 5.5% and a volatility of 20% pa. The reset is on July 15, in 181 days; the accrual period is 184 days. Since the term structure is ﬂat, the six-month forward rate starting in six months is also 5.5%. First, we compute the present value factor, which is PV($1) ⳱ 1冫 (1 Ⳮ 0.055 ⫻ 365冫 360) ⳱ 0.9472, and the volatility, which is σ冪τ ⳱ 0.20 冪181冫 360 ⳱ 0.1418. We then compute the value of d1 ⳱ln[F 冫 K ]冫σ冪τⳭσ冪τ 冫 2 ⳱ ln[0.055冫 0.05]冫0.1418Ⳮ 0.1418冫 2 ⳱ 0.7430 and d2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ冪τ ⳱ 0.7430 ⫺ 0.1418 ⳱ 0.6012. We ﬁnd N (d1 ) ⳱ 0.7713 and N (d2 ) ⳱ 0.7261. The value of the call is c ⳱ [F N (d1 ) ⫺ KN (d2 )]PV($1) ⳱ 0.5789%. Finally, the total price of the call is $1million ⫻ 0.5789% ⫻ (184冫 360) ⳱ $2,959. Figure 8-3 can be taken as an illustration of the sequence of forward rates. If the cap rate is the same as the prevailing swap rate, the cap is said to be at-the-money. In

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the ﬁgure, the near caplets are out-of-the-money because Fi ⬍ K . The distant caplets, however, are in-the-money. Example 8-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 54/Capital Markets 8-12. The cap-ﬂoor parity can be stated as a) Short cap + Long ﬂoor = Fixed-rate bond. b) Long cap + Short ﬂoor = Fixed swap. c) Long cap + Short ﬂoor = Floating-rate bond. d) Short cap + Short ﬂoor = Interest rate collar.

Example 8-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 60/Capital Markets 8-13. For a 5-year ATM cap on the 3-month LIBOR, what can be said about the individual caplets, in a downward sloping term-structure environment? a) The short maturity caplets are ITM, long maturity caplets are OTM. b) The short maturity caplets are OTM, long maturity caplets are ITM. c) All the caplets are ATM. d) The moneyness of the individual caplets also depends on the volatility term structure.

8.4.2

Swaptions

Swaptions are OTC options that give the buyer the right to enter a swap at a ﬁxed point in time at speciﬁed terms, including a ﬁxed coupon rate. These contracts take many forms. A European swaption is exercisable on a single date at some point in the future. On that date, the owner has the right to enter a swap with a speciﬁc rate and term. Consider for example a “1Y x 5Y” swaption. This gives the owner the right to enter in one year a long or short position in a 5-year swap. A ﬁxed-term American swaption is exercisable on any date during the exercise period. In our example, this would be during the next year. If, for instance, exercise occurs after six months, the swap would terminate in 5 years and six months. So, the termination date of the swap depends on the exercise date. In contrast, a contingent American swaption has a prespeciﬁed termination date, for instance exactly six years from now. Finally, a Bermudan option gives the holder the right to exercise on a speciﬁc set of dates during the life of the option. As an example, consider a company that, in one year, will issue 5-year ﬂoatingrate debt. The company wishes to swap the ﬂoating payments into ﬁxed payments.

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The company can purchase a swaption that will give it the right to create a 5-year pay-ﬁxed swap at the rate of 8%. If the prevailing swap rate in one year is higher than 8%, the company will exercise the swaption, otherwise not. The value of the option at expiration will be PT ⳱ Max[V (iT ) ⫺ V (iK ), 0]

(8.14)

where V (i ) is the value of a swap to pay a ﬁxed rate i , iT is the prevailing swap rate at swap maturity, and iK is the locked-in swap rate. This contract is called a European 6/1 put swaption, or 1 into 5-year payer option. Such a swap is equivalent to an option on a bond. As this swaption creates a proﬁt if rates rise, it is akin to a one-year put option on a 6-year bond. Conversely, a swaption that gives the right to receive ﬁxed is akin to a call option on a bond. Table 8-3 summarizes the terminology for swaps, caps and ﬂoors, and swaptions. Swaptions are typically priced using a variant of the Black model, assuming that interest rates are lognormal. The value of the swaption is then equal to a portfolio of options on different interest rates, all with the same maturity. In practice, swaptions are traded in terms of volatilities instead of option premiums.

TABLE 8-3 Summary of Terminology for OTC Swaps and Options Product Fixed/Floating Swap Cap Floor Put Swaption (payer option) Call Swaption (receiver option)

Buy (long) Pay ﬁxed Receive ﬂoating Pay premium Receive Max(i ⫺ iC , 0) Pay premium Receive Max(iF ⫺ i, 0) Pay premium Option to pay ﬁxed and receive ﬂoating Pay premium Option to pay ﬂoating and receive ﬁxed

Sell (short) Pay ﬂoating Receive ﬁxed Receive premium Pay Max(i ⫺ iC , 0) Receive premium Pay Max(iF ⫺ i, 0) Receive premium If exercised, receive ﬁxed and pay ﬂoating Receive premium If exercised, receive ﬂoating and pay ﬁxed

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Example 8-14: FRM Exam 1997----Question 18/Derivatives 8-14. The price of an option that gives you the right to receive ﬁxed on a swap will decrease as a) Time to expiry of the option increases. b) Time to expiry of the swap increases. c) The swap rate increases. d) Volatility increases.

TE

AM FL Y

Example 8-15: FRM Exam 2000----Question 10/Capital Markets 8-15. Consider a 2 into 3-year Bermudan swaption (i.e., an option to obtain a swap that starts in 2 years and matures in 5 years). Consider the following statements: I. A lower bound on the Bermudan price is a 2 into 3-year European swaption. II. An upper bound on the Bermudan price is a cap that starts in 2 years and matures in 5 years. III. A lower bound on the Bermudan price is a 2 into 5-year European option. Which of the following statements is (are) true? a) I only b) II only c) I and II d) III only

8.4.3

Exchange-Traded Options

Among exchange-traded ﬁxed-income options, we describe options on Eurodollar futures and on T-bond futures. Options on Eurodollar futures give the owner the right to enter a long or short position in Eurodollar futures at a ﬁxed price. The payoff on a put option, for example, is PT ⳱ Notional ⫻ Max[K ⫺ FQT , 0] ⫻ (90冫 360)

(8.15)

where K is the strike price and FQT the prevailing futures price quote at maturity. In addition to the cash payoff, the option holder enters a position in the underlying futures. Since this is a put, it creates a short position after exercise, with the counterparty taking the opposing position. Note that, since futures are settled daily, the value of the contract is zero.

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Since the futures price can also be written as FQT ⳱ 100 ⫺ iT and the strike price as K ⳱ 100 ⫺ iC , the payoff is also PT ⳱ Notional ⫻ Max[iT ⫺ iC , 0] ⫻ (90冫 360)

(8.16)

which is equivalent to that of a cap on rates. Thus a put on Eurodollar futures is equivalent to a caplet on LIBOR. In practice, there are minor differences in the contracts. Options on Eurodollar futures are American style instead of European style. Also, payments are made at the expiration date of Eurodollar futures options instead of in arrears. Options on T-Bond futures give the owner the right to enter a long or short position in futures at a ﬁxed price. The payoff on a call option, for example, is CT ⳱ Notional ⫻ Max[FT ⫺ K, 0]

(8.17)

An investor who thinks that rates will fall, or that the bond market will rally, could buy a call on T-Bond futures. In this manner, he or she will participate in the upside, without downside risk.

8.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 8-1: FRM Exam 2001----Question 70/Capital Markets b) The seller of an FRA agrees to receive ﬁxed. Since rates are now higher than the contract rate, this contract must show a loss. The loss is $10, 000, 000 ⫻ (6.85% ⫺ 6.35%) ⫻ (90冫 360) ⳱ $12, 500 when paid in arrears, i.e. in 9 months. On the settlement date, i.e. in 6 months, the loss is $12, 500冫 (1 Ⳮ 6.85%0.25) ⳱ $12, 290.

Example 8-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 73/Capital Markets c) The 1-year spot rate can be inferred from the sequence of 3-month spot and consecutive 3-month forward rates. We can compute the future value factor for each leg: for 3-mo, (1 Ⳮ 4.5% ⫻ 91冫 360) ⳱ 1.011375, for 3 ⫻ 6, (1 Ⳮ 4.6% ⫻ 92冫 360) ⳱ 1.011756, for 6 ⫻ 9, (1 Ⳮ 4.8% ⫻ 90冫 360) ⳱ 1.01200, for 9 ⫻ 12, (1 Ⳮ 6.0% ⫻ 92冫 360) ⳱ 1.01533. The product is 1.05142 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ r ⫻ 365冫 360), which gives r ⳱ 5.0717%.

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Example 8-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 54/Capital Markets c) The duration is 5 ⫺ 2 = 3 months. If rates go up, the position generates a proﬁt. So the DV01 must be positive and 100 ⫻ 0.01% ⫻ 0.25 ⳱ 2,500. Example 8-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Capital Markets d) FRAs are OTC contracts, so (I) is wrong. Since Eurodollar futures are the most active contracts in the world, liquidity is excellent and (II) is wrong. Eurodollar contracts have ﬁxed contract sizes, $1 million, so (III) is wrong. Example 8-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 40/Capital Markets d) We need to short Eurodollars in an amount that accounts for the notional and durations of the inventory and hedge. The duration of the 1-year Treasury Bills is 1 year. The DV01 of Eurodollar futures is $1, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.25 ⫻ 0.0001 ⳱ $25. The DV01 of the portfolio is $100, 000, 000 ⫻ 1.00 ⫻ 0.0001 ⳱ $10, 000. This gives a ratio of 400. Alternatively, (VP 冫 VF ) ⫻ (DP 冫 DF ) ⳱ (100冫 1) ⫻ (1冫 0.25) ⳱ 400. Example 8-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 7/Capital Markets b) For assets whose value is negatively related to interest rates, such as Eurodollar futures, the futures rate must be higher than the forward rate. Because rates and prices are inversely related, the futures price quote is lower than the forward price quote. The question deals with a situation where the correlation is positive, rather than negative. Hence, the futures price quote must be above the forward price quote. Example 8-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 11/Capital Markets a) The goal of the CF is to equalize differences between various deliverable bonds. In the extreme, if we discounted all bonds using the current term structure, the CF would provide an exact offset to all bond prices, making all of the deliverable bonds equivalent. This reduction from 8% to 6% notional reﬂects more closely recent interest rates. It will lead to more instability in the CTD, which is exactly the effect intended. (b) is not correct as yields lower than 6% imply that the CF for long-term bonds is lower than otherwise. This will tend to favor bonds with high conversion factors, or shorter bonds. Also, a lower coupon increases the duration of the contract, so (c) is not correct.

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Example 8-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 55/Credit Risk c) Using Equation (8.8) for three remaining periods, we have the discounted value of the net interest payment, or (8% ⫺ 7%)$100,000,000 ⳱ $1,000,000, discounted at 7%, which is $934, 579 Ⳮ $873, 439 Ⳮ $816, 298 ⳱ $2, 624, 316. Example 8-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 42/Capital Markets a) Receiving a ﬂoating rate on the swap will offset the payment on the note, leaving a net obligation at a ﬁxed rate. Example 8-10: FRM Exam 1998----Question 46/Capital Markets d) Paying ﬁxed on the swap is the same as being short a ﬁxed-rate note. Example 8-11: FRM Exam 1999----Question 59/Capital Markets a) (Complex) A receive-ﬁxed swap is equivalent to a long position in a bond, which can be hedged by a short Eurodollar position. Conversely, a pay-ﬁxed swap is hedged by a long Eurodollar position. So, only (a) and (d) are correct. The convexity adjustment should correct futures rates downward. Without this adjustment, forward rates will be too high. This implies that the valuation of a pay-ﬁxed swap is too high. To arbitrage this, we should short the asset that is priced too high, i.e. enter a receive-ﬁxed swap, and buy the position that is cheap, i.e. take a short Eurodollar position. Example 8-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 54/Capital Markets a) With the same strike price, a short cap/long ﬂoor loses money if rates increase, which is equivalent to a long position in a ﬁxed-rate bond. Example 8-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 60/Capital Markets a) In a downward-sloping rate environment, forward rates are higher for short maturities. Caplets involves the right to buy at the same ﬁxed rate for all caplets. Hence short maturities are ITM. Example 8-14: FRM Exam 1997----Question 18/Derivatives c) The value of a call increases with the maturity of the call and the volatility of the underlying asset value (which here also increases with the maturity of the swap contract). So (a) and (d) are wrong. In contrast, the value of the right to receive an asset at K decreases as K increases.

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Example 8-15: FRM Exam 2000----Question 10/Capital Markets c) A swaption is a one-time option that can be exercised either at one point in time (European), at any point during the exercise period (American), or on a discrete set of dates during the exercise period (Bermudan). As such the Bermudan option must be more valuable than the European option, ceteris paribus. Also, a cap is a series of options. As such, it must be more valuable than any option that is exercisable only once. Answers (I) and (II) match the exercise date of the option and the ﬁnal maturity. Answer (III), in contrast, describes an option that matures in 7 years, so cannot be compared with the original swaption.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 9 Equity Markets Having covered ﬁxed-income instruments, we now turn to equities and equity linked instruments. Equities, or common stocks, represent ownership shares in a corporation. Due to the uncertainty in their cash ﬂows, as well as in the appropriate discount rate, equities are much more difﬁcult to value than ﬁxed-income securities. They are also less amenable to the quantitative analysis that is used in ﬁxed-income markets. Equity derivatives, however, can be priced reasonably precisely in relation to underlying stock prices. Section 9.1 introduces equity markets and presents valuation methods. Section 9.2 brieﬂy discusses convertible bonds and warrants. These differ from the usual equity options in that exercising them creates new shares. In contrast, the exercise of options on individual stocks simply transfers shares from one counterpart to another. Section 9.3 then provides an overview of important equity derivatives, including stock index futures, stock options, stock index options, and equity swaps. As the basic valuation methods have been covered in a previous chapter, this section instead focuses on applications.

9.1 9.1.1

Equities Overview

Common stocks, also called equities, are securities that represent ownership in a corporation. Bonds are senior to equities, that is, have a prior claim on the ﬁrm’s assets in case of bankruptcy. Hence equities represent residual claims to what is left of the value of the ﬁrm after bonds, loans, and other contractual obligations have been paid off. Another important feature of common stocks is their limited liability, which means that the most shareholders can lose is their original investment. This is unlike

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owners of unincorporated businesses, whose creditors have a claim on the personal assets of the owner should the business turn bad. Table 9-1 describes the global equity markets. The total market value of common stocks was worth approximately $35 trillion at the end of 1999. The United States accounts for the largest proportion, followed by the Eurozone, Japan, and the United Kingdom. TABLE 9-1 Global Equity Markets - 1999 (Billions of U.S. Dollars) United States Eurozone Japan United Kingdom Other Europe Other Paciﬁc Canada Developed Emerging World

15,370 5,070 4,693 2,895 1,589 1,216 763 31,594 2,979 34,573

Source: Morgan Stanley Capital International

Preferred stocks differ from common stock because they promise to pay a speciﬁc stream of dividends. So, they behave like a perpetual bond, or consol. Unlike bonds, however, failure to pay these dividends does not result in bankruptcy. Instead, the corporation cannot pay dividends to common stock holders until the preferred dividends have been paid out. In other words, preferred stocks are junior to bonds, but senior to common stocks. With cumulative preferred dividends, all current and previously postponed dividends must be paid before any dividends on common stock shares can be paid. Preferred stocks usually have no voting rights. Unlike interest payments, preferred stocks dividends are not tax-deductible expenses. Preferred stocks, however, have an offsetting tax advantage. Corporations that receive preferred dividends only pay taxes on 30% of the amount received, which lowers their income tax burden. As a result, most preferred stocks are held by corporations. The market capitalization of preferred stocks is much lower than that of common stocks, as seen from the IBM example below. Trading volumes are also much lower.

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Example: IBM Preferred Stock IBM issued 11.25 million preferred shares in June 1993. These are traded as 45 million “depositary” shares, each representing one-fourth of the preferred, under the ticker “IBM-A” on the NYSE. Dividends accrue at the rate of $7.50 per annum, or $1.875 per depositary share. As of April 2001, the depositary shares were trading at $25.4, within a narrow 52-week trading range of [$25.00, $26.25]. Using the valuation formula for a consol, the shares trade at an implied yield of 7.38%. The total market capitalization of the IBM-A shares amounts to approximately $260 million. In comparison, the market value of the common stock is $214,602 million, which is more than 800 times larger.

9.1.2

Valuation

Common stocks are extremely difﬁcult to value. Like any other asset, their value derives from their future beneﬁts, that is, from their stream of future cash ﬂows (i.e., dividend payments) or future stock price. We have seen that valuing Treasury bonds is relatively straightforward, as the stream of cash ﬂows, coupon and principal payments, can be easily laid out and discounted into the present. This is an entirely different affair for common stocks. Consider for illustration a “simple” case where a ﬁrm pays out a dividend D over the next year that grows at the constant rate of g . We ignore the ﬁnal stock value and discount at the constant rate of r , such that r ⬎ g . The ﬁrm’s value, P , can be assessed using the net present value formula, like a bond P⳱ ⳱

⬁

冱 Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ r )t

t ⳱1 ⬁

冱 D(1 Ⳮ g)(t ⫺1)冫 (1 Ⳮ r )t

t ⳱1

⳱ [D 冫 (1 Ⳮ r )]

⬁

冱 [(1 Ⳮ g)冫 (1 Ⳮ r )]t

t ⳱0

⳱ [D 冫 (1 Ⳮ r )] ⫻

冋

1 1 ⫺ (1 Ⳮ g )冫 (1 Ⳮ r )

册

⳱ [D 冫 (1 Ⳮ r )] ⫻ [(1 Ⳮ r )冫 (r ⫺ g )]

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This is also the so-called “Gordon-growth” model, P⳱

D r ⫺g

(9.1)

as long as the discount rate exceeds the growth rate of dividends, r ⬎ g . The problem with equities is that the growth rate of dividends is uncertain and that, in addition, it is not clear what the required discount rate should be. To make things even harder, some companies simply do not pay any dividend and instead create value from the appreciation of their share price. Still, this valuation formula indicates that large variations in equity prices can arise from small changes in the discount rate or in the growth rate of dividends, explaining the large volatility of equities. More generally, the risk and expected return of the equity depends on the underlying business fundamentals as well as on the amount of leverage, or debt in the capital structure. For ﬁnancial intermediaries for which the value of underlying assets can be measured precisely, we can value the equity based on the capital structure. In this situation, however, the equity is really valued as a derivative on the underlying assets. Example 9-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 50/Capital Markets 9-1. A hedge fund leverages its $100 million of investor capital by a factor of three and invests it into a portfolio of junk bonds yielding 14%. If its borrowing costs are 8%, what is the yield on investor capital? a) 14% b) 18% c) 26% d) 42%

9.1.3

Equity Indices

It is useful to summarize the performance of a group of stocks by an index. A stock index summarizes the performance of a representative group of stocks. Most commonly, this is achieved by mimicking the performance of a buy-and-hold strategy where each stock is weighted by its market capitalization. Deﬁne Ri as the price appreciation return from stock i , from the initial price Pi 0 to the ﬁnal price Pi 1 . Ni is the number of shares outstanding, which is ﬁxed over the period. The portfolio value at the initial time is 冱 i Ni Pi 0 . The performance of the index is computed from the rate of change in the portfolio value

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冱 Ni Pi1 ⫺ (冱 Ni Pi0)]冫 (冱 Ni Pi0)

RM 1 ⳱ [

i

i

i

冱 Ni (Pi1 ⫺ Pi0)]冫 (冱 Ni Pi0)

⳱[

i

i

冱 Ni Pi0(Pi1 ⫺ Pi0)冫 Pi0]冫 (冱 Ni Pi0)

⳱[

i

⳱

冱[Ni Pi0冫 (冱 Ni Pi0)](Pi1 ⫺ Pi0)冫 Pi0 i

⳱

i

i

冱[wi ](Pi1 ⫺ Pi0)冫 Pi0 i

Here, Ni Pi 0 is the market capitalization of stock i , and wi ⳱ [Ni Pi 0 冫 (冱 i Ni Pi 0 )] is the market-cap weight of stock i in the index. This gives RM 1 ⳱

冱 wi Ri1

(9.2)

i

From this, the level of the index can be computed, starting from I0 , as I1 ⳱ I0 ⫻ (1 Ⳮ RM 1 )

(9.3)

and so on for the next periods. Thus, most stock indices are constructed using market value weights, also called capitalization weights. Notable exceptions are the Dow and Nikkei 225 indices, which are price weighted, or simply involve a summation of share prices for companies in the index. Among international indices, the German DAX is also unusual because it includes dividend payments. These indices can be used to assess general market risk factors for equities.

9.2 9.2.1

Convertible Bonds and Warrants Deﬁnitions

We now turn to convertible bonds and warrants. While these instruments have option like features, they differ from regular options. When a call option is exercised, for instance, the “long” purchases an outstanding share from the “short.” There is no net creation of shares. In contrast, the exercise of convertible bonds, of warrants, (and of executive stock options) entails the creation of new shares, as the option is sold by the corporation itself. In this case, the existing shares are said to be diluted by the creation of new shares.

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Warrants are long-term call options issued by a corporation on its own stock. They are typically created at the time of a bond issue, but they trade separately from the bond to which they were originally attached. When a warrant is exercised, it results in a cash inﬂow to the ﬁrm which issues more shares. Convertible bonds are bonds issued by a corporation that can be converted into equity at certain times using a predetermined exchange ratio. They are equivalent to a regular bond plus a warrant. This allows the company to issue debt with a lower coupon than otherwise. For example, a bond with a conversion ratio of 10 allows its holder to convert one bond with par value of $1,000 into 10 shares of the common stock. The conversion price, which is really the strike price of the option, is $1,000/10 = $100. The corpora-

AM FL Y

tion will typically issue the convertible deep out of the money, for example when the stock price is at $50. When the stock price moves, for instance to $120, the bond can be converted into stock for an immediate option proﬁt of ($120 ⫺ $100) ⫻ 10 ⳱ $200. Figure 9-1 describes the relationship between the value of the convertible bond and the conversion value, deﬁned as the current stock price times the conversion ratio. The convertible bond value must be greater than the price of an otherwise identical

TE

straight bond and the conversion value.

For high values of the stock price, the ﬁrm is unlikely to default and the straight bond price is constant, reﬂecting the discounting of cash ﬂows at the risk-free rate. In this situation, it is almost certain the option will be exercised and the convertible value is close to the conversion value. For low values of the stock price, the ﬁrm is likely to FIGURE 9-1 Convertible Bond Price and Conversion Value

Conversion value

Convertible bond price

Straight bond price

Conversion value: stock price times conversion ratio

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default and the straight bond price drops, reﬂecting the likely loss upon default. In this situation, it is almost certain the option will not be exercised, and the convertible value is close to the straight bond value. In the intermediate region, the convertible value depends on both the conversion and straight bond values. The convertible is also sensitive to interest rate risk.

Example: A Convertible Bond Consider a 8% annual coupon, 10-year convertible bond with face value of $1,000. The yield on similar maturity straight debt issued by the company is currently 8.50%, which gives a current value of straight debt of $967. The bond can be converted into common stock at a ratio of 10-to-1. Assume ﬁrst that the stock price is $50. The conversion value is then $500, much less than the straight debt value of $967. This corresponds to the left area of Figure 9-1. If the convertible trades at $972, its promised yield is 8.42%. This is close to the yield of straight debt, as the option has little value. Assume next that the stock price is $150. The conversion value is then $1,500, much higher than the straight debt value of $967. This corresponds to the right area of Figure 9-1. If the convertible trades at $1,505, its promised yield is 2.29%. In this case, the conversion option is in-the-money, which explains why the yield is so low.

9.2.2

Valuation

Warrants can be valued by adapting standard option pricing models to the dilution effect of new shares. Consider a company with N outstanding shares and M outstanding warrants, each allowing the holder to purchase γ shares at the ﬁxed price of K . At origination, the value of the ﬁrm includes the warrant, or V0 ⳱ NS0 Ⳮ MW0

(9.4)

where S0 is the initial stock price just before issuing the warrant, and W0 is the upfront value of the warrant. After dilution, the total value of the ﬁrm includes the value of the ﬁrm before exercise (including the original value of the warrants) plus the proceeds from exercise, i.e. VT Ⳮ MγK . The number of shares then increases to N Ⳮ γM . The total payoff to the warrant holder is WT ⳱ γ

VT Ⳮ MγK

冢 N Ⳮ γM

⫺K

冣

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which must be positive. After simpliﬁcation, this is also WT ⳱ γ

VT ⫺ NK

冢 N Ⳮ γM 冣 ⳱ N Ⳮ γM (V

which is equivalent to n ⳱

γ

T

γN NⳭγM

⫺ NK ) ⳱

冢

γN VT ⫺K N Ⳮ γM N

冣

(9.6)

options on the stock price. The warrant can be valued

by standard option models with the asset value equal to the stock price plus the warrant proceeds, multiplied by the factor n,

冢

W0 ⳱ n ⫻ c S0 Ⳮ

M W , K, τ, σ , r , d N 0

with the usual parameters and the unit asset value is

V0 N

冣

(9.7)

⳱ S0 Ⳮ M N W0 . This must be

solved iteratively since W0 appears on both sides. If, however, M is small relative to the current ﬂoat, or number of outstanding shares N , the formula reduces to a simple call option in the amount γ W0 ⳱ γ c (S0 , K, τ, σ , r , d )

(9.8)

Example: Pricing a Convertible Bond Consider a zero-coupon, 10-year convertible bond with face value of $1,000. The yield on similar maturity straight debt issued by the company is currently 8.158%, using continuous compounding, which gives a straight debt value of $442.29. The bond can be converted into common stock at a ratio of 10-to-1 at expiration only. This gives a strike price of K ⳱ $100. The current stock price is $60. The stock pays no dividend and has annual volatility of 30%. The risk-free rate is 5%, also continuously compounded. Ignoring dilution effects, the Black-Scholes model gives an option value of $216.79. So, the theoretical value for the convertible bond is P ⳱ $442.29Ⳮ$216.79 ⳱ $659.08. If the market price is lower than $659, the convertible is said to be cheap. This, of course, assumes that the pricing model and input assumptions are correct. One complication is that most convertibles are also callable at the discretion of the ﬁrm. Convertible securities can be called for several reasons. First, an issue can be called to force conversion into common stock when the stock price is high enough. Bondholders have typically a month during which they can still convert, in which case this is a forced conversion. This call feature gives the corporation more control over conversion and allows it to raise equity capital. Second, the call may be exercised when the option value is worthless and the ﬁrm can reﬁnance its debt at a lower coupon. This is similar to the call of a non-convertible

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bond, except that the convertible must be busted, which occurs when the stock price is much lower than the conversion price. Example 9-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 52/Market Risk 9-2. A convertible bond trader has purchased a long-dated convertible bond with a call provision. Assuming there is a 50% chance that this bond will be converted into stock, which combination of stock price and interest rate level would constitute the worst case scenario? a) Decreasing rates and decreasing stock prices b) Decreasing rates and increasing stock prices c) Increasing rates and decreasing stock prices d) Increasing rates and increasing stock prices Example 9-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 119 9-3. A corporate bond with face value of $100 is convertible at $40 and the corporation has called it for redemption at $106. The bond is currently selling at $115 and the stock’s current market price is $45. Which of the following would a bondholder most likely do? a) Sell the bond b) Convert the bond into common stock c) Allow the corporation to call the bond at 106 d) None of the above Example 9-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 117 9-4. What is the main reason why convertible bonds are generally issued with a call? a) To make their analysis less easy for investors b) To protect against unwanted takeover bids c) To reduce duration d) To force conversion if in-the-money

9.3

Equity Derivatives

Equity derivatives can be traded on over-the-counter markets as well as organized exchanges. We only consider a limited range of popular instruments.

9.3.1

Stock Index Futures

Stock index futures are actively traded all over the world. In fact, the turnover corresponding to the notional amount is often greater than the total amount of trading in

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physical stocks in the same market. The success of thee contracts can be explained by their versatility for risk management. Stock index futures allow investors to manage their exposure to broad stock market movements. Speculators can take efﬁciently directional bets, on the upside or downside. Hedgers can protect the value of their investments. Perhaps the most active contract is the S&P 500 futures contract on the Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME). The contract notional is deﬁned as $250 times the index level. Table 9-2 displays quotations as of December 31, 1999. TABLE 9-2 Sample S&P Futures Quotations Maturity March June

Open 1480.80 1498.00

Settle 1484.20 1503.10

Change +3.40 +3.60

Volume 34,897 410

Open Interest 356,791 8,431

The table shows that most of the volume was concentrated in the “near” contract, that is, March in this case. Translating the trading volume in number of contracts into a dollar equivalent, we ﬁnd $250 ⫻ 1484.2 ⫻ 34, 897, which gives $12.9 billion. In 2001, average daily volume was worth $35 billion, which is close to the trading volume of $42 billion on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE). We can also compute the daily proﬁt on a long position, which would have been $250 ⫻ (Ⳮ3.40), or $850. This is rather small, as the daily move was Ⳮ3.4冫 1480.8, which is only 0.23%. The typical daily standard deviation is about 1%, which gives a typical proﬁt or loss of $3,710.50. These contracts are cash settled. They do not involve delivery of the underlying stocks at expiration. In terms of valuation, the futures contract is priced according to the usual cash-and-carry relationship, Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St e⫺yτ

(9.9)

where y is now the dividend yield deﬁned per unit time. For instance, the yield on the S&P was y ⳱ 0.94 percent per annum. Here, we assume that the dividend yield is known in advance and paid on a continuous basis. In general, this is not necessarily the case but can be viewed as a good approximation. With a large number of ﬁrms in the index, dividends will be spread reasonably evenly over the quarter. To check if the futures contract was fairly valued, we need the spot price, S ⳱ 1469.25; the short-term interest rate, r ⳱ 5.3%; and the number of days to maturity,

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which was 76 (to March 16). Note that rates are not continuously compounded. The present value factor is PV($1) ⳱ 1冫 (1Ⳮr τ ) ⳱ 1冫 (1Ⳮ5.3%(76冫 365)) ⳱ 0.9891. Similarly, the present value of the dividend stream is 1冫 (1 Ⳮ yτ ) ⳱ 1冫 (1 Ⳮ 0.94%(76冫 365)) ⳱ 0.9980. The fair price is then F ⳱ [S 冫 (1 Ⳮ yτ )] (1 Ⳮ r τ ) ⳱ [1469.25 ⫻ 0.9980]冫 0.9891 ⳱ 1482.6 This is rather close to the settlement value of F ⳱ 1484.2. The discrepancy is probably due to the fact that the quotes were not measured simultaneously. Figure 9-2 displays the convergence of futures and cash prices for the December 1999 S&P 500 futures contract traded on the CME. The futures price is always the spot price. The correlation between the two prices is very high, reﬂecting the cashand-carry relationship in Equation (9.9). Because ﬁnancial institutions engage in stock index arbitrage, we would expect the cash-and-carry relationship to hold very well, One notable exception was during the market crash of October 19, 1987. The market lost more than 20% in a single day. Throughout the day, however, futures prices were more up-to-date than cash prices because of execution delays and closing in cash markets. As a result, the S&P stock index futures value was very cheap compared with the underlying cash market. Arbitrage, however, was made difﬁcult due to chaotic market conditions. FIGURE 9-2 Futures and Cash Prices for S&P500 Futures 1500

Price index

1400 Futures price 1300

1200

Cash price

1100

1000

900 9/30/98

11/30/98

1/31/99

3/31/99

5/31/99

7/31/99

9/29/99

11/29/99

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Example 9-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 9/Capital Markets 9-5. To prevent arbitrage proﬁts, the theoretical future price of a stock index should be fully determined by which of the following? I. Cash market price II. Financing cost III. Inﬂation IV. Dividend yield a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I, II and IV only d) All of the above Example 9-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 12/Capital Markets 9-6. Suppose the price for a 6-month S&P index futures contract is 552.3. If the risk-free interest rate is 7.5% per year and the dividend yield on the stock index is 4.2% per year, and the market is complete and there is no arbitrage, what is the price of the index today? a) 543.26 b) 552.11 c) 555.78 d) 560.02

9.3.2

Single Stock Futures

In late 2000, the United States passed legislation authorizing trading in single stock futures, which are futures contracts on individual stocks. Such contracts were already trading in Europe and elsewhere. In the United States, electronic trading started in November 2002.1 Each contract gives the obligation to buy or sell 100 shares of the underlying stock. Delivery involves physical settlement. Relative to trading in the underlying stocks, single stock futures have many advantages. Positions can be established more efﬁciently due to their low margin requirements, which are generally 20% of the cash value. Margin for stocks are higher. Also, short selling eliminates the costs and inefﬁciencies associated with the stock loan process. Other than physical settlement, these contracts trade like stock index futures. 1 Two electronic exchanges are currently competing, “OneChicago”, a joint venture of Chicago exchanges, and “Nasdaq Liffe”, a joint venture of NASDAQ, the main electronic stock exchange in the United States, and Liffe, the U.K. derivatives exchange.

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Equity Options

Options can be traded on individual stocks, on stock indices, or on stock index futures. In the United States, stock options trade, for example, on the Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE). Each option gives the right to buy or sell a round lot of 100 shares. Exercise of stock options involves physical delivery, or the exchange of the underlying stock. Traded options are typically American-style, so their valuation should include the possibility of early exercise. In practice, however, their values do not differ much from those of European options, which can be priced by the Black-Scholes model. When the stock pays no dividend, the values are the same. For more precision, we can use numerical models such as binomial trees to take into account dividend payments. The most active index options in the United States are options on the S&P 100 and S&P 500 index traded on the CBOE. The former are American-style, while the latter are European-style. These options are cash settled, as it would be too complicated to deliver a basket of 100 or 500 underlying stocks. Each contract is for $100 times the value of the index. European options on stock indices can be priced using the BlackScholes formula, using y as the dividend yield on the index as we have done in the previous section for stock index futures. Finally, options on S&P 500 stock index futures are also popular. These give the right to enter a long or short futures position at a ﬁxed price. Exercise is cash settled.

9.3.4

Equity Swaps

Equity swaps are agreements to exchange cash ﬂows tied to the return on a stock market index in exchange for a ﬁxed or ﬂoating rate of interest. An example is a swap that provides the return on the S&P 500 index every six months in exchange for payment of LIBOR plus a spread. The swap will be typically priced so as to have zero value at initiation. Equity swaps can be valued as portfolios of forward contracts, as in the case of interest rate swaps. We will later see how to price currency swaps. The same method can be used for equity swaps. These swaps are used by investment managers to acquire exposure to, for example, an emerging market without having to invest in the market itself. In some cases, these swaps can also be used to defeat restrictions on foreign investments.

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 9-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 50/Capital Markets c) The fund borrows $200 million and invest $300 million, which creates a yield of $300 ⫻ 14% ⳱ $42 million. Borrowing costs are $200 ⫻ 8% ⳱ $16 million, for a difference of $26 million on equity of $100 million, or 26%. Note that this is a yield, not expected rate of return if we expect some losses from default. This higher yield also implies higher risk. Example 9-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 52/Market Risk c) Abstracting from the convertible feature, the value of the ﬁxed-coupon bond will fall if rates increase; also, the value of the convertible feature falls as the stock price decreases. Example 9-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 119 a) The conversion rate is expressed here in terms of the conversion price. The conversion rate for this bond is $100 into $40, or 1 bond into 2.5 shares. Immediate conversion will yield 2.5 ⫻ $45 ⳱ $112.5. The call price is $106. Since the market price is higher than the call price and the conversion value, and the bond is being called, the best value is achieved by selling the bond. Example 9-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 117 d) Companies issue convertible bonds because the coupon is lower than for regular bonds. In addition, these bonds are callable in order to force conversion into the stock at a favorable ratio. In the previous question, for instance, conversion would provide equity capital to the ﬁrm at the price of $40, while the market price is at $45. Example 9-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 9/Capital Markets c) The futures price depends on S , r , y , and time to maturity. The rate of inﬂation is not in the cash-and-carry formula, although it is embedded in the nominal interest rate. Example 9-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 12/Capital Markets a) This is the cash-and-carry relationship, solved for S . We have Se⫺yτ ⳱ F e⫺r τ , or S ⳱ 552.3 ⫻ exp(⫺7.5冫 200)冫 exp(⫺4.2冫 200) ⳱ 543.26. We verify that the forward price is greater than the spot price since the dividend yield is less than the risk-free rate.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 10 Currencies and Commodities Markets This chapter turns to currency and commodity markets. The foreign exchange markets are by far the largest ﬁnancial markets in the world, with daily turnover estimated at $1,210 billion in 2001. The forex markets consist of the spot, forward, options, futures, and swap markets. Commodity markets consist of agricultural products, metals, energy, and other products. They are traded cash and through derivatives instruments. Commodities differ from ﬁnancial assets as their holding provides an implied beneﬁt known as convenience yield but also incurs storage costs. Section 10.1 presents a brief introduction to currency markets. Contracts such as futures, forward, and options have been developed in previous chapters and do not require special treatment. In contrast, currency swaps are analyzed in some detail in Section 10.2 due to their unique features and importance. Section 10.3 then discusses commodity markets.

10.1

Currency Markets

The global currency markets are without a doubt the most active ﬁnancial markets in the world. Their size and growth is described in Table 10-1. This trading activity dwarfs that of bond or stock markets. In comparison, the daily trading volume on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) is approximately $40 billion. Even though the largest share of these transaction is between dealers, or with other ﬁnancial institutions, the volume of trading with other, nonﬁnancial institutions is still quite large, at $156 billion daily. Spot transactions are exchanges of two currencies for settlement as soon as practical, typically in two business days. They account for about 40% of trading volume.

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TABLE 10-1 Activity in Global Currency Markets Average Daily Trading Volume (Billions of U.S. Dollars) Year

Spot

1989 350 1992 416 1995 517 1998 592 2001 399 Of which, between: Dealers Financials Others

Forwards & forex swaps 240 404 673 898 811

Total 590 820 1,190 1,490 1,210 689 329 156

Source: Bank for International Settlements surveys.

AM FL Y

Other transactions are outright forward contracts and forex swaps. Outright forward contracts are agreements to exchange two currencies at a future date, and account for about 9% of the total market. Forex swaps involve two transactions, an exchange of currencies on a given date and a reversal at a later date, and account for 51% of the total market.1

TE

In addition to these contracts, there is also some activity in forex options ($60 billion daily) and exchange-traded derivatives ($9 billion daily), as measured in April 2001. The most active currency futures are traded on the Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME) and settled by physical delivery. Options on currencies are available over-thecounter (OTC), on the Philadelphia Stock Exchange (PHLX), and are also cash settled. The CME also trades options on currency futures. As we have seen before, currency forwards, futures, and options can be priced according to standard valuation models, specifying the income payment to be a continuous ﬂow deﬁned by the foreign interest rate, r ⴱ . Currencies are generally quoted in European terms, that is, in units of the foreign currency per dollar. The yen, for example, could be quoted as 120 yen per U.S. dollar. Two notable exceptions are the British pound (sterling) and the euro, which are quoted in American terms, that is in dollars per unit of the foreign currency The pound, for example, could be quoted as 1.6 dollar per pound. 1

Forex swaps are typically of a short-term nature and should not be confused with long-term currency swaps, which involve a stream of payments over longer horizons.

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Currency Swaps

Currency swaps are agreements by two parties to exchange a stream of cash ﬂows in different currencies according to a prearranged formula.

10.2.1

Deﬁnitions

Consider two counterparties, company A and company B that can raise funds either in dollars or in yen, $100 million or Y10 billion at the current rate of 100Y/$, over ten years. Company A wants to raise dollars, and company B wants to raise yen. Table 10-2a displays borrowing costs. This example is similar to that of interest rate swaps, except that rates now apply to different currencies. Company A has an absolute advantage in the two markets as it can raise funds at rates systematically lower than company B. Company B, however, has a comparative advantage in raising dollars as the cost is only 0.50% higher than for company A, compared to the relative cost of 1.50% in yen. Conversely, company A must have a comparative advantage in raising yen. TABLE 10-2a Cost of Capital Comparison Company A B

Yen

Dollar

5.00% 6.50%

9.5% 10.0%

This provides the basis for a swap which will be to the mutual advantage of both parties. If both institutions directly issue funds in their ﬁnal desired market, the total cost will be 9.5% (for A) and 6.5% (for B), for a total of 16.0%. In contrast, the total cost of raising capital where each has a comparative advantage is 5.0% (for A) and 10.0% (for B), for a total of 15.0%. The gain to both parties from entering a swap is 16.0 ⫺ 15.0 = 1.00%. For instance, the swap described in Tables 10-2b and 10-2c splits the beneﬁt equally between the two parties. TABLE 10-2b Swap to Company A Operation Issue debt Enter swap Net Direct cost Savings

Yen Pay yen 5.0% Receive yen 5.0%

Dollar Pay dollar 9.0% Pay dollar 9.0% Pay dollar 9.5% 0.50%

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Company A issues yen debt at 5.0%, then enters a swap whereby it promises to pay 9.0% in dollar in exchange for receiving 5.0% yen payments. Its effective funding cost is therefore 9.0%, which is less than the direct cost by 50bp. TABLE 10-2c Swap to Company B Operation Issue debt Enter swap Net Direct cost Savings

Dollar Pay dollar 10.0% Receive dollar 9.0%

Yen Pay yen 5.0% Pay yen 6.0% Pay yen 6.5% 0.50%

Similarly, company B issues dollar debt at 10.0%, then enters a swap whereby it receives 9.0% dollar in exchange for paying 5.0% yen. If we add up the difference in dollar funding cost of 1.0% to the 5.0% yen funding costs, the effective funding cost is therefore 6.0%, which is less than the direct cost by 50bp.2 Both parties beneﬁt from the swap. While payments are typically netted for an interest rate swap, since they are in the same currency, this is not the case for currency swaps. At initiation and termination, there is exchange of principal in different currencies. Full interest payments are also made in different currencies. For instance, assuming annual payments, company A will receive 5.0% on a notional of Y10b, which is Y500 million in exchange for paying 9.0% on a notional of $100 million, or $9 million every year.

10.2.2

Pricing

Consider now the pricing of the swap to company A. This involves receiving 5.0% yen in exchange for paying 9.0% dollars. As with interest rate swaps, we can price the swap using either of two approaches, taking the difference between two bond prices or valuing a sequence of forward contracts. This swap is equivalent to a long position in a ﬁxed-rate, 5% 10-year yen denominated bond and a short position in a 10-year 9% dollar denominated bond. The value of the swap is that of a long yen bond minus a dollar bond. Deﬁning S as the dollar price of the yen and P and P ⴱ as the dollar and yen bond, we have: V ⳱ S ($冫 Y )P ⴱ (Y ) ⫺ P ($) 2

(10.1)

Note that B is somewhat exposed to currency risk, as funding costs cannot be simply added when they are denominated in different currencies. The error, however, is of second-order magnitude.

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Here, we indicate the value of the yen bond by an asterisk, P ⴱ . In general, the bond value can be written as P (c, r , F ) where the coupon is c , the yield is r and the face value is F . Our swap is initially worth (in millions) V ⳱ (1冫 100)P (5%, 5%, Y 10000) ⫺ P (9%, 9%, $100) ⳱ ($1冫 Y 100)Y 10000 ⫺ $100 ⳱ $0 Thus, the initial value of the swap is zero. Here, we assumed a ﬂat term structure for both countries and no credit risk. We can identify conditions under which the swap will be in-the-money. This will happen: (1) If the value of the yen S appreciates (2) If the yen interest rate r ⴱ falls (3) If the dollar interest rate r goes up Thus the swap is exposed to three risk factors, the spot rate, and two interest rates. The latter exposures are given by the duration of the equivalent bond. Key concept: A position in a receive-foreign currency swap is equivalent to a long position in a foreign currency bond offset by a short position in a dollar bond. The swap can be alternatively valued as a sequence of forward contracts. Recall that the valuation of a forward contract on one yen is given by Vi ⳱ (Fi ⫺ K )exp(⫺ri τi )

(10.2)

using continuous compounding. Here, ri is the dollar interest rate, Fi is the prevailing forward rate (in $/yen), K is the locked-in rate of exchange deﬁned as the ratio of the dollar to yen payment on this maturity. Extending this to multiple maturities, the swap is valued as V ⳱

冱 ni (Fi ⫺ K )exp(⫺ri τi )

(10.3)

i

where ni Fi is the dollar value of the yen payments translated at the forward rate and the other term ni K is the dollar payment in exchange. Table 10-3 compares the two approaches for a 3-year swap with annual payments. Market rates have now changed and are r ⳱ 8% for U.S. yields, r ⴱ ⳱ 4% for yen yields. We assume annual compounding. The spot exchange rate has moved from 100Y/$ to 95Y/$, reﬂecting a depreciation of the dollar (or appreciation of the yen).

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Dollar Yen Exchange rate: initial market

Time (year) 1 2 3 Total Swap ($) Value

Time (year) 1 2 3 Value

Speciﬁcations Notional Swap Amount Coupon (millions) $100 9% Y10,000 5%

Market Yield 8% 4%

100Y/$ 95Y/$

Valuation Using Bond Approach (millions) Dollar Bond Yen Bond Dollar Yen Payment PV($1) PV(CF) Payment PV(Y1) PV(CF) 9 0.9259 8.333 500 0.9615 480.769 9 0.8573 7.716 500 0.9246 462.278 109 0.7938 86.528 10500 0.8890 9334.462 $102.58 Y10,277.51 ⫺$102.58 $108.18 $5.61 Valuation Using Forward Contract Approach (millions) Forward Yen Yen Dollar Difference Rate Receipt Receipt Payment CF (Y/$) (Y) ( $) ($) ($) ⫺9.00 ⫺3.534 91.48 500 5.47 ⫺9.00 ⫺3.324 88.09 500 5.68 84.83 10500 123.78 ⫺109.00 14.776

PV(CF) ($) ⫺3.273 ⫺2.850 11.730 $5.61

The middle panel shows the valuation using the difference between the two bonds. First, we discount the cash ﬂows in each currency at the newly prevailing yield. This gives P ⳱ $102.58 for the dollar bond and Y10,277.51 for the yen bond. Translating the latter at the new spot rate of Y95, we get $108.18. The swap is now valued at $108.18 ⫺ $102.58, which is a positive value of V ⳱ $5.61 million. The appreciation of the swap is principally driven by the appreciation of the yen. The bottom panel shows how the swap can be valued by a sequence of forward contracts. First, we compute the forward rates for the three maturities. For example,

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the 1-year rate is 95 ⫻ (1 Ⳮ 4%)冫 (1 Ⳮ 8%) ⳱ 91.48 Y 冫 $, by interest rate parity. Next, we convert each yen receipt into dollars at the forward rate, for example Y500 million in one year, which is $5.47 million. This is offset against a payment of $9 million, for a net planned cash outﬂow of ⫺$3.53 million. Discounting and adding up the planned cash ﬂows, we get V ⳱ $5.61 million, which must be exactly equal to the value found using the alternative approach. Example 10-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 37/Capital Markets 10-1. The table below shows quoted ﬁxed borrowing rates (adjusted for taxes) in two different currencies for two different ﬁrms:

Company A Company B

Yen 2% 3%

Pounds 4% 6%

Which of the following is true? a) Company A has a comparative advantage borrowing in both yen and pounds. b) Company A has a comparative advantage borrowing in pounds. c) Company A has a comparative advantage borrowing in yen. d) Company A can arbitrage by borrowing in yen and lending in pounds. Example 10-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 67 10-2. Consider the following currency swap: Counterparty A swaps 3% on $25 million for 7.5% on 20 million Sterling. There are now 18 months remaining in the swap, the term structures of interest rates are ﬂat in both countries with dollar rates currently at 4.25% and Sterling rates currently at 7.75%. The current $/Sterling exchange rate is $1.65. Calculate the value of the swap. Use continuous compounding. Assume 6 months until the next annual coupon and use current market rates to discount. a) ⫺$1, 237, 500 b) ⫺$4, 893, 963 c) ⫺$9, 068, 742 d) ⫺$8, 250, 000

10.3

Commodities

10.3.1

Products

Commodities are typically traded on exchanges. Contracts include spot, futures, and options on futures. There is also an OTC market for long-term commodity swaps, where payments are tied to the price of a commodity against a ﬁxed or ﬂoating rate.

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Commodity contracts can be classiﬁed into: ● Agricultural products, including grains and oilseeds (corn, wheat, soybean) food and ﬁber (cocoa, coffee, sugar, orange juice) ● Livestock and meat (cattle, hogs) ● Base metals (aluminum, copper, nickel, and zinc) ● Precious metals (gold, silver, platinum), and ● Energy products (natural gas, heating oil, unleaded gasoline, crude oil) The Goldman Sachs Commodity Index (GSCI) is a broad index of commodity price performance, containing 49% energy products, 9% industrial/base metals, 3% precious metals, 28% agricultural products, and 12% livestock products. The CME trades futures and options contracts on the GSCI. In the last ﬁve years, active markets have developed for electricity products, electricity futures for delivery at speciﬁc locations, for instance California/Oregon border (COB), Palo Verde, and so on. These markets have mushroomed following the deregulation of electricity prices, which has led to more variability in electricity prices. More recently, OTC markets and exchanges have introduced weather derivatives, where the payout is indexed to temperature or precipitation. On the CME, for instance, contract payouts are based on the “Degree Day Index” over a calendar month. This index measures the extent to which the daily temperature deviates from the average. These contracts allow users to hedge situations where their income is negatively affected by extreme weather. Markets are also evolving in newer products, such as indices of consumer bankruptcy and catastrophe insurance contracts. Such commodity markets allow participants to exchange risks. Farmers, for instance, can sell their crops at a ﬁxed price on a future date, insuring themselves against variations in crop prices. Likewise, consumers can buy these crops at a ﬁxed price.

10.3.2

Pricing of Futures

Commodities differ from ﬁnancial assets in two notable dimensions: they may be expensive, even impossible, to store and they may generate a ﬂow of beneﬁts that are not directly measurable. The ﬁrst dimension involves the cost of carrying a physical inventory of commodities. For most ﬁnancial instruments, this cost is negligible. For bulky commodities, this cost may be high. Other commodities, like electricity cannot be stored easily.

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The second dimension involves the beneﬁt from holding the physical commodity. For instance, a company that manufactures copper pipes beneﬁts from an inventory of copper which is used up in its production process. This ﬂow is also called convenience yield for the holder. For a ﬁnancial asset, this ﬂow would be a monetary income payment for the investor. Consider the ﬁrst factor, storage cost only. The cash-and-carry relationship should be modiﬁed as follows. We compare two positions. In the ﬁrst, we buy the commodity spot plus pay up front the present value of storage costs PV(C ). In the second, we enter a forward contract and invest the present value of the forward price. Since the two positions are identical at expiration, they must have the same initial value: Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St Ⳮ PV(C )

(10.4)

where e⫺r τ is the present value factor. Alternatively, if storage costs are incurred per unit time and deﬁned as c , we can restate this relationship as Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St ecτ

(10.5)

Due to these costs, the forward rate should be much greater than the spot rate, as the holder of a forward contract beneﬁts not only from the time value of money but also from avoiding storage costs.

Example: Computing the forward price of gold Let us use data from December 1999. The spot price of gold is S ⳱ $288, the 1-year interest rate is r ⳱ 5.73% (continuously compounded), and storage costs are $2 per ounce per year, paid up front. The fair price for a 1-year forward contract should be F ⳱ [S Ⳮ PV(C )]er τ ⳱ [$288 Ⳮ $2]e5.73% ⳱ $307.1. Let us now turn to the convenience yield, which can be expressed as y per unit time. In fact, y represents the net beneﬁt from holding the commodity, after storage costs. Following the same reasoning as before, the forward price on a commodity should be given by Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St e⫺yτ

(10.6)

where e⫺yτ is an actualization factor. This factor may have an economically identiﬁable meaning, reﬂecting demand and supply conditions in the cash and futures markets. Alternatively, it can be viewed as a plug-in that, given F , S , and e⫺r τ , will make Equation (10.6) balance.

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FIGURE 10-1 Spot and Futures Prices for Crude Oil Price ($/barrel) 30

25 Dec-99 20 Dec-97 15 Dec-98 10

5

0 0

5

10

15 20 Months to expiration

25

30

Figure 10-1, for example, displays the shape of the term structure of spot and futures prices for the New York Mercantile Exchange (NYMEX) crude oil contract. On December 1997, the term structure is relatively ﬂat. On December 1998, the term structure becomes strongly upward sloping. Part of this slope can be explained by the time value of money (the term e⫺r τ in the equation). In contrast, the term structure is downward sloping on December 1999. This can be interpreted in terms of a large convenience yield from holding the physical asset (in other words, the term e⫺yτ in the equation dominates). Let us focus for example on the 1-year contract. Using S ⳱ $25.60, F ⳱ $20.47, r ⳱ 5.73% and solving for y , y ⳱r⫺

1 ln(F 冫 S ) τ

(10.7)

we ﬁnd y ⳱ 28.10%, which is quite large. In fact, variations in y can be substantial. Just one year before, a similar calculation would have given y ⳱ ⫺9%, which implies a negative convenience yield, or a storage cost. Table 10-4 displays futures prices for selected contracts. Futures prices are generally increasing with maturity, reﬂecting the time value of money, storage cost and low convenience yields. There are some irregularities, however, reﬂecting anticipated

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TABLE 10-4 Futures Prices as of December 30, 1999 Maturity Jan Mar July Sept Dec Mar01 ... Dec01

Corn

Sugar

204.5 218.0 224.0 233.8 241.5

18.24 19.00 19.85 18.91 18.90

Copper 85.25 86.30 87.10 87.90 88.45 88.75

253.5

Gold 288.5 290.6 294.9 297.0 300.1 303.2

Nat.Gas

312.9

2.688

2.328 2.377 2.418 2.689 2.494

Gasoline .6910 .6750 .6675 .6245

imbalances between demand and supply. For instance, gasoline futures prices increase in the summer due to increased driving. Natural gas displays the opposite pattern, where prices increase during the winter due to the demand for heating. Agricultural products can also be highly seasonal. In contrast, futures prices for gold are going up monotonically with time, since this is a perfectly storable good.

10.3.3

Futures and Expected Spot Prices

An interesting issue is whether today’s futures price gives the best forecast of the future spot price. If so, it satisﬁes the expectations hypothesis, which can be written as: F t ⳱ E t [S T ]

(10.8)

The reason this relationship may hold is as follows. Say that the 1-year oil futures price is F ⳱ $20.47. If the market forecasts that oil prices in one year will be at $25, one could make a proﬁt by going long a futures contract at the cheap futures price of F ⳱ $20.47, waiting a year, then buying oil at $20.47, and reselling it at the higher price of $25. In other words, deviations from this relationship imply speculative proﬁts. To be sure, these proﬁts are not risk-free. Hence, they may represent some compensation for risk. For instance, if the market is dominated by producers who want to hedge by selling oil futures, F will be abnormally low compared with expectations. Thus the relationship between futures prices and expected spot prices can be complex. For ﬁnancial assets for which the arbitrage between cash and futures is easy, the futures or forward rate is solely determined by the cash-and-carry relationship, i.e. the

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interest rate and income on the asset. For commodities, however, the arbitrage may not be so easy. As a result, the futures price may deviate from the cash-and-carry relationship through this convenience yield factor. Such prices may reﬂect expectations of futures spot prices, as well as speculative and hedging pressures. A market is said to be in contango when the futures price trades at a premium relative to the spot price, as shown in Figure 10-2. Using Equation (10.7), this implies that the convenience yield is smaller than the interest rate y ⬍ r . A market is said to be in backwardation (or inverted) when forward prices trade at a discount relative to spot prices. This implies that the convenience yield is greater than the interest rate y ⬎ r . In other words, a high convenience yields puts a higher price on the cash market, as there is great demand for immediate consumption of the

AM FL Y

commodity. With backwardation, the futures price tends to increase as the contract nears maturity. In such a situation, a roll-over strategy should be proﬁtable, provided prices do not move too much. This involves by buying a long maturity contract, waiting, and then selling it at a higher price in exchange for buying a cheaper, longer-term contract. This strategy is comparable to riding the yield curve when positively sloped. This

TE

involves buying long maturities and waiting to have yields fall due to the passage of

FIGURE 10-2 Patterns of Contango and Backwardation Futures price

Backwardation

Contango

Maturity

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time. If the shape of the yield curve does not change too much, this will generate a capital gain from bond price appreciation. This was basically the strategy followed by Metallgesellschaft Reﬁning & Marketing (MGRM), the U.S. subsidiary of Metallgesellschaft, which rolled over purchases of WTI crude oil futures as a hedge against OTC sales to customers. The problem was that the basis S ⫺ F , which had been generally positive, turned negative, creating losses for the company. In addition, these losses caused cash ﬂow, or liquidity problems. MGRM ended up liquidating the positions, which led to a realized loss of $1.3 billion. Example 10-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 32/Capital Markets 10-3. The spot price of corn on April 10th is 207 cents/bushels. The futures price of the September contract is 241.5 cents/bushels. If hedgers are net short, which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the expected spot price of corn in September? a) The expected spot price of corn is higher than 207. b) The expected spot price of corn is lower than 207. c) The expected spot price of corn is higher than 241.5. d) The expected spot price of corn is lower than 241.5. Example 10-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 24/Capital Markets 10-4. In commodity markets, the complex relationships between spot and forward prices are embodied in the commodity price curve. Which of the following statements is true? a) In a backwardation market, the discount in forward prices relative to the spot price represents a positive yield for the commodity supplier. b) In a backwardation market, the discount in forward prices relative to the spot price represents a positive yield for the commodity consumer. c) In a contango market, the discount in forward prices relative to the spot price represents a positive yield for the commodity supplier. d) In a contango market, the discount in forward prices relative to the spot price represents a positive yield for the commodity consumer. Example 10-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 48/Capital Markets 10-5. If a commodity is more expensive for immediate delivery than for future delivery, the commodity curve is said to be in a) Contango b) Backwardation c) Reversal d) None of the above

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Example 10-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 45/Market Risk 10-6. In the commodity markets being long the future and short the cash exposes you to which of the following risks? a) Increasing backwardation b) Increasing contango c) Change in volatility of the commodity d) Decreasing convexity Example 10-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 27/Capital Markets 10-7. Metallgesellschaft AG’s oil hedging program used a stack-and-roll strategy that eventually led to large losses. What can be said about this strategy? The strategy involved a) Buying short-dated futures or forward contracts to hedge long-term exposure, hence expecting the short-term oil price would not decline b) Buying short-dated futures or forward contracts to hedge long-term exposure, hence expecting the short-term oil price would decline c) Selling short-dated futures or forward contracts to hedge long-term exposure, hence expecting the short-term oil price would not decline d) Selling short-dated futures or forward contracts to hedge long-term exposure, hence expecting the short-term oil price would decline

10.4

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 10-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 37/Capital Markets b) A company can only have a comparative advantage in one currency, that with the greatest difference in capital cost, 2% for pounds versus 1% for yen. Example 10-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 67 c) As in Table 10-3, we use the bond valuation approach. The receive-dollar swap is equivalent to a long position in the dollar bond and a short position in the sterling bond.

Time (year) 1 2 Total Dollars Value

Dollar Payment 750,000 25,750,000

Dollar Bond PV($1) (4.25%) 0.97897 0.93824

PV(CF) (dollars) 734,231 24,159,668 24,893,899 Ⳮ$24, 893, 899

Sterling Payment 1,500,000 21,500,000

Sterling Bond PV(GBP1) (7.75%) 0.96199 0.89025

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Example 10-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 32/Capital Markets c) If hedgers are net short, they are selling corn futures even if it involves a risk premium such that the selling price is lower than the expected future spot price. Thus the expected spot price of corn is higher than the futures price. Note that the current spot price is irrelevant. Example 10-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 24/Capital Markets b) First, forward prices are only at a discount versus spot prices in a backwardation market. The high spot price represents a convenience yield to the consumer of the product, who holds the physical asset. Example 10-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 48/Capital Markets b) Backwardation means that the spot price is greater than futures price. Example 10-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 45/Market Risk a) Shorting the cash exposes the position to increasing cash prices, assuming, for instance, ﬁxed futures prices, hence increasing backwardation. Example 10-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 27/Capital Markets a) Because MG was selling oil forward to clients, it had to hedge by buying short-dated futures oil contracts. In theory, price declines in one market were to be offset by gains in another. In futures markets, however, losses are realized immediately, which may lead to liquidity problems (and did so). Thus, the expectation was that oil prices would stay constant.

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PART

three

Market Risk Management

Chapter 11 Introduction to Market Risk Measurement This chapter provides an introduction to the measurement of market risk. Market risk is primarily measured with value at risk (VAR). VAR is a statistical measure of downside risk that is simple to explain. VAR measures the total portfolio risk, taking into account portfolio diversiﬁcation and leverage. In theory, risk managers should report the entire distribution of proﬁts and losses over the speciﬁed horizon. In practice, this distribution is summarized by one number, the worst loss at a speciﬁed conﬁdence level, such as 99 percent. VAR, however, is only one of the measures that risk managers focus on. It should be complemented by stress testing, which identiﬁes potential losses under extreme market conditions, which are associated with much higher conﬁdence levels. Section 16.1 gives a brief overview of the history of risk measurement systems. Section 16.2 then shows how to compute VAR for a very simple portfolio. It also discusses caveats, or pitfalls to be aware of when interpreting VAR numbers. Section 16.3 turns to the choice of VAR parameters, that is, the conﬁdence level and horizon. Next, Section 16.4 describes the broad components of a VAR system. Section 16.5 shows to complement VAR by stress tests. Finally, Section 16.6 shows how VAR methods, primarily developed for ﬁnancial institutions, are now applied to measures of cash ﬂow at risk.

11.1

Introduction to Financial Market Risks

Market risk measurement attempts to quantify the risk of losses due movements in ﬁnancial market variables. The variables include interest rates, foreign exchange rates, equities, and commodities. Positions can include cash or derivative instruments.

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In the past, risks were measured using a variety of ad hoc tools, none of which was satisfactory. These included notional amounts, sensitivity measures, and scenarios. While these measures provide some intuition of risk, they do not measure what matters, that is, the downside risk for the total portfolio. They fail to take into account correlations across risk factors. In addition, they do not account for the probability of adverse moves in the risk factors. Consider for instance a 5-year inverse ﬂoater, which pays a coupon equal to 16 percent minus twice current LIBOR, if positive, on a notional principal of $100 million. The initial market value of the note is $100 million. This investment is extremely sensitive to movements in interest rates. If rates go up, the present value of the cash ﬂows will drop sharply. In addition, discount rate also increases. The combination of a decrease in the numerator terms and an increase in the denominator terms will push the price down sharply. The question is, how much could an investor lose on this investment over a speciﬁed horizon? The notional amount only provide an indication of the potential loss. The worst case scenario is one where interest rates rise above 8 percent. In this situation, the coupon will drop to zero and the bond becomes a deeply-discounted bond. Discounting at 8 percent, the value of the bond will drop to $68 million. This gives a loss of $100 ⫺ $68 ⳱ $32 million, which is much less than the notional. A sensitivity measure such as duration is more helpful. As we have seen in Chapter 7, the bond has three times the duration of a similar 5-year note. This gives a modiﬁed duration of D ⳱ 3 ⫻ 4 ⳱ 12 years. This duration measure reveals the extreme sensitivity of the bond to interest rates but does not answer the question of whether such a disastrous movement in interest rates is likely. It also ignores the nonlinearity between the note price and yields. Scenario analysis provides some improvement, as it allows the investor to investigate nonlinear, extreme effects in price. But again, the method does not associate the loss with a probability. Another general problem is that these sensitivity or scenario measures do not allow the investor to aggregate risk across different markets. Let us say that this investor also holds a position in a bond denominated in Euros. Do the risks add up, or diversify each other? The great beauty of value at risk (VAR) is that it provides a neat answer to all these questions. One number aggregates the risks across the whole portfolio, taking into

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account leverage and diversiﬁcation, and providing a risk measure with an associated probability. If the worst increase in yield at the 95% level is 1.645, we can compute VAR as VAR ⳱ Market value ⫻ Modiﬁed Duration ⫻ Worst yield increase

(11.1)

This gives VAR ⳱ $100 ⫻ 12 ⫻ 0.0165 ⳱ $19.8 millions. Or, we could reprice the note on the target date under the worst increase in yield scenario. The investor can now make a statement such as the worst loss at the 95% conﬁdence level is approximately $20 million, with appropriate caveats. This is a huge improvement over traditional risk measurement methods, as it expresses risk in an intuitive fashion, bringing risk transparency to the masses. The VAR revolution started in 1993 when it was endorsed by the Group of Thirty (G-30) as part of “best practices” for dealing with derivatives. The methodology behind VAR, however, is not new. It results from a merging of ﬁnance theory, which focuses on the pricing and sensitivity of ﬁnancial instruments, and statistics, which studies the behavior of the risk factors. As Table 11-1 shows, VAR could not have happened without its predecessor tools. VAR revolutionized risk management by applying consistent ﬁrm-wide risk measures to the market risk of an institution. These methods are now extended to credit risk, operational risk, and the holy grail of integrated, or ﬁrm-wide, risk management.

TABLE 11-1 The Evolution of Analytical Risk-Management Tools 1938 1952 1963 1966 1973 1988 1993 1994 1997 1998 1998

Bond duration Markowitz mean-variance framework Sharpe’s capital asset pricing model Multiple factor models Black-Scholes option pricing model, “Greeks” Risk-weighted assets for banks Value at Risk RiskMetrics CreditMetrics, CreditRisk+ Integration of credit and market risk Risk budgeting

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11.2

VAR as Downside Risk

11.2.1

VAR: Deﬁnition

VAR is a summary measure of the downside risk, expressed in dollars. A general deﬁnition is VAR is the maximum loss over a target horizon such that there is a low, prespeciﬁed probability that the actual loss will be larger. Consider for instance a position of $4 billion short the yen, long the dollar. This position corresponds to a well-known hedge fund that took a bet that the yen would fall in value against the dollar. How much could this position lose over a day?

AM FL Y

To answer this question, we could use 10 years of historical daily data on the yen/dollar rate and simulate a daily return. The simulated daily return in dollars is then

Rt ($) ⳱ Q0 ($)[St ⫺ St ⫺1 ]冫 St ⫺1

(11.2)

TE

where Q0 is the current dollar value of the position and S is the spot rate in yen per dollar measured over two consecutive days. For instance, for two hypothetical days S1 ⳱ 112.0 and S2 ⳱ 111.8. We then have a hypothetical return of R2 ($) ⳱ $4, 000million ⫻ [111.8 ⫺ 112.0]冫 112.0 ⳱ ⫺$7.2million So, the simulated return over the ﬁrst day is ⫺$7.2 million. Repeating this operation over the whole sample, or 2,527 trading days, creates a time-series of ﬁctitious returns, which is plotted in Figure 11-1. We can now construct a frequency distribution of daily returns. For instance, there are four losses below $160 million, three losses between $160 million and $120 million, and so on. The histogram, or frequency distribution, is graphed in Figure 11-2. We can also order the losses from worst to best return. We now wish to summarize the distribution by one number. We could describe the quantile, that is, the level of loss that will not be exceeded at some high conﬁdence level. Select for instance this conﬁdence level as c = 95 percent. This corresponds to a right-tail probability. We could as well deﬁne VAR in terms of a left-tail probability, which we write as p ⳱ 1 ⫺ c .

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FIGURE 11-1 Simulated Daily Returns

Return ($ million)

$150

$100

$50

$0

-$50

-$100

-$150 1/2/90 1/2/91 1/2/92 1/2/93 1/2/94 1/2/95 1/2/96 1/2/97 1/2/98 1/2/99

FIGURE 11-2 Distribution of Daily Returns

400

Frequency

350 300 250

VAR 5% of observations

200 150 100 50 0 -$160 -$120 -$80

-$40 $0 $40 Return ($ million)

$80

$120

$160

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Deﬁning x as the dollar proﬁt or loss, VAR can be deﬁned implicitly from c⳱

冮

⬁

⫺VAR

xf (x)dx

(11.3)

Note that VAR measures a loss and therefore taken as a positive number. When the outcomes are discrete, VAR is the smallest loss such that the right-tail probability is at least c . Sometimes, VAR is reported as the deviation between the mean and the quantile. This second deﬁnition is more consistent than the usual one. Because it considers the deviation between two values on the target date, it takes into account the time value of money. In most applications, however, the time horizon is very short and the mean, or expected proﬁt is close to zero. As a result, the two deﬁnitions usually give similar values. In this hedge fund example, we want to ﬁnd the cutoff value R ⴱ such that the probability of a loss worse than R ⴱ is p ⳱ 1 ⫺ c = 5 percent. With a total of T ⳱ 2, 527 observations, this corresponds to a total of pT ⳱ 0.05 ⫻ 2527 ⳱ 126 observations in the left tail. We pick from the ordered distribution the cutoff value, which is R ⴱ ⳱ $47.1 million. We can now make a statement such as: The maximum loss over one day is about $47 million at the 95 percent conﬁdence level. This vividly describes risk in a way that notional amounts or exposures cannot convey. From the conﬁdence level, we can determine the number of expected exceedences n over a period of N days: n⳱p⫻N Example 11-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 89/Market Risk 11-1. What is the correct interpretation of a $3 million overnight VAR ﬁgure with 99% conﬁdence level? The institution a) Can be expected to lose at most $3 million in 1 out of next 100 days b) Can be expected to lose at least $3 million in 95 out of next 100 days c) Can be expected to lose at least $3 million in 1 out of next 100 days d) Can be expected to lose at most $6 million in 2 out of next 100 days

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VAR: Caveats

VAR is a useful summary measure of risk. Its application, however, is subject to some caveats. VAR does not describe the worst loss. This is not what VAR is designed to measure. Indeed we would expect the VAR number to be exceeded with a frequency of p, that is 5 days out of a hundred for a 95 percent conﬁdence level. This is perfectly normal. In fact, backtesting procedures are designed to check whether the frequency of exceedences is in line with p. VAR does not describe the losses in the left tail. VAR does not say anything about the distribution of losses in its left tail. It just indicates the probability of such a value occurring. For the same VAR number, however, we can have very different distribution shapes. In the case of Figure 11-2, the average value of the losses worse than $47 million is around $74 million, which is 60 percent worse than the VAR. So, it would be unusual to sustain many losses beyond $200 million. Instead, Figure 11-3 shows a distribution with the same VAR, but with 125 occurrences of large losses beyond $160 million. This graph shows that, while the VAR number is still $47 million, there is a high probability of sustaining very large losses. VAR is measured with some error. The VAR number itself is subject to normal sampling variation. In our example, we used ten years of daily data. Another sample period, or a period of different length, will lead to a different VAR number. Different statistical methodologies or simpliﬁcations can also lead to different VAR numbers. One can experiment with sample periods and methodologies to get a sense of the precision in VAR. Hence, it is useful to remember that there is limited precision in VAR numbers. What matters is the ﬁrst-order magnitude.

11.2.3

Alternative Measures of Risk

The conventional VAR measure is the quantile of the distribution measured in dollars. This single number is a convenient summary, but its very simplicity may be dangerous. We have seen in Figure 11-3 that the same VAR can hide very different distribution patterns. The appendix reviews desirable properties for risk measures and shows that VAR may be inconsistent under some conditions. In particular, the VAR of a

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FIGURE 11-3 Altered Distribution with Same VAR

400

Frequency

350 300 250

VAR 5% of observations

200 150 100 50 0 -$160 -$120 -$80

-$40 $0 $40 Return ($ million)

$80

$120

$160

portfolio can be greater than the sum of subportfolios VARs. If so, merging portfolios can increase risk, which is a strange result. Alternative measures of risk are The entire distribution In our example, VAR is simply one quantile in the distribution. The risk manager, however, has access to the whole distribution and could report a range of VAR numbers for increasing conﬁdence levels. The conditional VAR A related concept is the expected value of the loss when it exceeds VAR. This measures the average of the loss conditional on the fact that it is greater than VAR. Deﬁne the VAR number as q . Formally, the conditional VAR (CVAR) is E [X 兩 X ⬍ q ] ⳱

冮

q

⫺⬁

xf (x)dx

冫冮

q

⫺⬁

f (x)dx

(11.5)

Note that the denominator represents the probability of a loss exceeding VAR, which is also c . This ratio is also called expected shortfall, tail conditional expectation, conditional loss, or expected tail loss. It tells us how much we could lose if we are “hit” beyond VAR. For example, for our yen position, this value is CVAR ⳱ $74 million

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This is measured as the average loss beyond the $47 million VAR. The standard deviation A simple summary measure of the distribution is the usual standard deviation (SD) ⱍ SD(X ) ⳱ ⱍ

冪

N 1 [x ⫺ E (X )]2 (N ⫺ 1) i ⳱1 i

冱

(11.6)

The advantage of this measure is that it takes into account all observations, not just the few around the quantile. Any large negative value, for example, will affect the computation of the variance, increasing SD(X ). If we are willing to take a stand on the shape of the distribution, say normal or Student’s t , we do know that the standard deviation is the most efﬁcient measure of dispersion. For example, for our yen position, this value is SD ⳱ $29.7 million Using a normal approximation and α ⳱ 1.645, we get a VAR estimate of $49 million, which is not far from the empirical quantile of $47 million. Under these conditions, VAR inherits all properties of the standard deviation. In particular, the SD of a portfolio must be smaller than the sum of the SDs of subportfolios. The disadvantage of the standard deviation is that it is symmetrical and cannot distinguish between large losses or gains. Also, computing VAR from SD requires a distributional assumption, which may not be valid. The semi-standard deviation This is a simple extension of the usual standard deviation that considers only data points that represent a loss. Deﬁne NL as the number of such points. The measure is ⱍ SDL (X ) ⳱ ⱍ

冪

N 1 [Min(xi , 0) ⫺ E (X )]2 (NL ⫺ 1) i ⳱1

冱

where the data are averaged over NL . In practice, this is rarely used. Example 11-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Capital Markets 11-2. Considering arbitrary portfolios A and B , and their combined portfolio C , which of the following relationships always holds for VARs of A, B , and C ? a) VARA Ⳮ VARB ⳱ VARC b) VARA Ⳮ VARB ⱖ VARC c) VARA Ⳮ VARB ⱕ VARC d) None of the above

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VAR: Parameters

To measure VAR, we ﬁrst need to deﬁne two quantitative parameters, the conﬁdence level and the horizon.

11.3.1

Conﬁdence Level

The higher the conﬁdence level c , the greater the VAR measure. Varying the conﬁdence level provides useful information about the return distribution and potential extreme losses. It is not clear, however, whether one should stop at 99%, 99.9%, 99.99% and so on. Each of these values will create an increasingly larger loss, but less likely. Another problem is that, as c increases, the number of occurrences below VAR shrinks, leading to poor measures of large but unlikely losses. With 1000 observations, for example, VAR can be taken as the 10th lowest observation for a 99% conﬁdence level. If the conﬁdence level increases to 99.9%, VAR is taken from the lowest observation only. Finally, there is no simple way to estimate a 99.99% VAR from this sample. The choice of the conﬁdence level depends on the use of VAR. For most applications, VAR is simply a benchmark measure of downside risk. If so, what really matters is consistency of the VAR conﬁdence level across trading desks or time. In contrast, if the VAR number is being used to decide how much capital to set aside to avoid bankruptcy, then a high conﬁdence level is advisable. Obviously, institutions would prefer to go bankrupt very infrequently. This capital adequacy use, however, applies to the overall institution and not to trading desks. Another important point is that VAR models are only useful insofar as they can be veriﬁed. This is the purpose of backtesting, which systematically checks whether the frequency of losses exceeding VAR is in line with p ⳱ 1 ⫺ c . For this purpose, the risk manager should not choose a value of c that is too high. Picking, for instance, c ⳱ 99.99% should lead, on average, to one exceedence out of 10,000 trading days, or 40 years. In other words, it is going to be impossible to verify if the true probability associated with VAR is indeed 99.99 percent. For all these reasons, the usual recommendation is to pick a conﬁdence level that is not too high, such as 95 to 99 percent.

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Horizon

The longer the horizon (T ), the greater the VAR measure. This extrapolation depends on two factors, the behavior of the risk factors, and the portfolio positions. To extrapolate from a one-day horizon to a longer horizon, we need to assume that returns are independently and identically distributed. This allows us to transform a daily volatility to a multiple-day volatility by multiplication by the square root of time. We also need to assume that the distribution of daily returns is unchanged for longer horizons, which restricts the class of distribution to the so-called “stable” family, of which the normal is a member. If so, we have VAR(T days) ⳱ VAR(1 day) ⫻ 冪T

(11.8)

This requires (1) the distribution to be invariant to the horizon (i.e., the same α, as for the normal), (2) the distribution to be the same for various horizons (i.e., no time decay in variances), and (3) innovations to be independent across days.

Key concept: VAR can be extended from a 1⫺day horizon to T days by multiplication by the square root of time. This adjustement is valid with i.i.d. returns that have a normal distribution.

The choice of the horizon also depends on the characteristics of the portfolio. If the positions change quickly, or if exposures (e.g., option deltas) change as underlying prices change, increasing the horizon will create “slippage” in the VAR measure. Again, the choice of the horizon depends on the use of VAR. If the purpose is to provide an accurate benchmark measure of downside risk, the horizon should be relatively short, ideally less than the average period for major portfolio rebalancing. In contrast, if the VAR number is being used to decide how much capital to set aside to avoid bankruptcy, then a long horizon is advisable. Institutions will want to have enough time for corrective action as problems start to develop. In practice, the horizon cannot be less than the frequency of reporting of profits and losses. Typically, banks measure P&L on a daily basis, and corporates on a longer interval (ranging from daily to monthly). This interval is the minimum horizon for VAR.

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Another criteria relates to the backtesting issue. Shorter time intervals create more data points matching the forecast VAR with the actual, subsequent P&L. As the power of the statistical tests increases with the number of observations, it is advisable to have a horizon as short as possible. For all these reasons, the usual recommendation is to pick a horizon that is as short as feasible, for instance 1 day for trading desks. The horizon needs to be appropriate to the asset classes and the purpose of risk management. For institutions such as pension funds, for instance, a 1-month horizon may be more appropriate. For capital adequacy purposes, institutions should select a high conﬁdence level and a long horizon. There is a trade-off, however, between these two parameters. Increasing one or the other will increase VAR. Example 11-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 7/Risk Measurement 11-3. To convert VAR from a one-day holding period to a ten-day holding period the VAR number is generally multiplied by a) 2.33 b) 3.16 c) 7.25 d) 10.00

Example 11-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 114 11-4. Rank the following portfolios from least risky to most risky. Assume 252 trading days a year and there are 5 trading days per week. Portfolio 1 2 3 4 5 6 a) b) c) d)

VAR 10 10 10 10 10 10

Holding Period in Days

10 10 15 15

Conﬁdence Interval 99 95 99 95 99 95

5,3,6,1,4,2 3,4,1,2,5,6 5,6,1,2,3,4 2,1,5,6,4,3

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Application: The Basel Rules

The Basel market risk charge requires VAR to be computed with the following parameters: a. A horizon of 10 trading days, or two calendar weeks b. A 99 percent conﬁdence interval c. An observation period based on at least a year of historical data and updated at least once a quarter The Market Risk Charge (MRC) is measured as follows:

冢

⳱ Max k MRCIMA t

冣

1 60 VARt ⫺i , VARt ⫺1 Ⳮ SRCt 60 i ⳱1

冱

(11.9)

which involves the average of the market VAR over the last 60 days, times a supervisordetermined multiplier k (with a minimum value of 3), as well as yesterday’s VAR, and a speciﬁc risk charge SRC .1 The Basel Committee allows the 10-day VAR to be obtained from an extrapolation of 1-day VAR ﬁgures. Thus VAR is really VARt (10, 99%) ⳱ 冪10 ⫻ VARt (1, 99%) Presumably, the 10-day period corresponds to the time required for corrective action by bank regulators should an institution start to run into trouble. Presumably as well, the 99 percent conﬁdence level corresponds to a low probability of bank failure due to market risk. Even so, one occurrence every 100 periods implies a high frequency of failure. There are 52冫 2 ⳱ 26 two-week periods in one year. Thus, one failure should be expected to happen every 100冫 26 ⳱ 3.8 years, which is still much too frequent. This explains why the Basel Committee has applied a multiplier factor, k ⱖ 3 to guarantee further safety. 1

The speciﬁc risk charge is designed to provide a buffer against losses due to idiosyncractic factors related to the individual issuer of the security. It includes the risk that an individual debt or equity moves by more or less than the general market, as well as event risk. Consider for instance a corporate bond issued by Ford Motor, a company with a credit rating of “BBB”. component should capture the effect of movements in yields for an index of BBB-rated corporate bonds. In contrast, the SRC should capture the effect of credit downgrades for Ford. The SRC can be computed from the VAR of sub-portfolios of debt and equity positions that contain speciﬁc risk.

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Example 11-5: FRM Exam 1997----Question 16/Regulatory 11-5. Which of the following quantitative standards is not required by the Amendment to the Capital Accord to Incorporate Market Risk? a) Minimum holding period of 10 days b) 99th percentile, one-tailed conﬁdence interval c) Minimum historical observation period of two years d) Update of data sets at least quarterly

11.4

Elements of VAR Systems

We now turn to the analysis of elements of a VAR system. As described in Figure 11-4,

AM FL Y

a VAR system combines the following steps: FIGURE 11-4 Elements of a VAR System

Risk factors

Model

TE

Historical data

Distribution of risk factors

Portfolio Portfolio positions

Mapping

VAR method

Exposures

VAR

1. From market data, choose the distribution of risk factors (e.g., normal, empirical, or other). 2. Collect the portfolio positions and map them onto the risk factors. 3. Choose a VAR method (delta-normal, historical, Monte Carlo) and compute the portfolio VAR. These methods will be explained in a subsequent chapter.

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Portfolio Positions

We start with portfolio positions. The assumption will be that the positions are constant over the horizon. This, of course, cannot be true in an environment where traders turn over their portfolio actively. Rather, it is a simpliﬁcation. The true risk can be greater or lower than the VAR measure. It can be greater if VAR is based on close-to-close positions that reﬂect lower trader limits. If traders take more risks during the day, the true risk will be greater than indicated by VAR. Conversely, the true risk can be lower if management enforces loss limits, in other words cuts down the risk that traders can take if losses develop. Example 11-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Regulatory 11-6. The standard VAR calculation for extension to multiple periods also assumes that positions are ﬁxed. If risk management enforces loss limits, the true VAR will be a) The same b) Greater than calculated c) Less than calculated d) Unable to be determined

11.4.2

Risk Factors

The risk factors represent a subset of all market variables that adequately span the risks of the current, or allowed, portfolio. There are literally tens of thousands of securities available, but a much more restricted set of useful risk factors. The key is to choose market factors that are adequate for the portfolio. For a simple ﬁxed-income portfolio, one bond market risk factor may be enough. In contrast, for a highly leveraged portfolio, multiple risk factors are needed. For an option portfolio, volatilities should be added as risk factors. In general, the more complex the portfolio, the greater the number of risk factors that should be used.

11.4.3

VAR Methods

Similarly, the choice of the method depends on the nature of the portfolio. For a ﬁxed-income portfolio, a linear method may be adequate. In contrast, if the portfolio contains options, we need to include nonlinear effects. For simple, plain vanilla options, we may be able to approximate their price behavior with a ﬁrst and second

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derivative (delta and gamma). For more complex options, such as digital or barrier options, this may not be sufﬁcient. This is why risk management is as much an art as a science. Risk managers need to make reasonable approximations to come up with a cost-efﬁcient measure of risk. They also need to be aware of the fact that traders could be induced to ﬁnd “holes” in the risk management system. A VAR system alone will not provide effective protection against market risk. It needs to be used in combination with limits on notionals and on exposures and, in addition, should be supplemented by stress tests. Example 11-7: FRM Exam 1997----Question 9/Regulatory 11-7. A trading desk has limits only in outright foreign exchange and outright interest rate risk. Which of the following products can not be traded within the current limit structure? a) Vanilla interest rate swaps, bonds, and interest rate futures b) Interest rate futures, vanilla interest rate swaps, and callable interest rate swaps c) Repos and bonds d) Foreign exchange swaps, and back-to-back exotic foreign exchange options

11.5

Stress-Testing

As shown in the yen example in Figure 11-2, VAR does not purport to measure the worst-ever loss that could happen. It should be complemented by stress-testing, which aims at identifying situations that could create extraordinary losses for the institution. Stress-testing is a key risk management process, which includes (i) scenario analysis, (ii) stressing models, volatilities and correlations, and (iii) developing policy responses. Scenario analysis submits the portfolio to large movements in ﬁnancial market variables. These scenarios can be created: Moving key variables one at a time, which is a simple and intuitive method. Unfortunately, it is difﬁcult to assess realistic comovements in ﬁnancial variables. It is unlikely that all variables will move in the worst possible direction at the same time.

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Using historical scenarios, for instance the 1987 stock market crash, the devaluation of the British pound in 1992, the bond market debacle of 1984, and so on. Creating prospective scenarios, for instance working through the effects, direct and indirect, of a U.S. stock market crash. Ideally, the scenario should be tailored to the portfolio at hand, assessing the worst thing that could happen to current positions. The goal of stress-testing is to identify areas of potential vulnerability. This is not to say that the institution should be totally protected against every possible contingency, as this would make it impossible to take any risk. Rather, the objective of stress-testing and management response should be to ensure that the institution can withstand likely scenarios without going bankrupt. Example 11-8: FRM Exam 1997----Question 4/Risk Measurement 11-8. The use of scenario analysis allows one to a) Assess the behavior of portfolios under large moves. b) Research market shocks which occurred in the past. c) Analyze the distribution of historical P/L in the portfolio. d) Perform effective backtesting. Example 11-9: FRM Exam 1998----Question 20/Regulatory 11-9. VAR measures should be supplemented by portfolio stress-testing because a) VAR measures indicate that the minimum loss will be the VAR; they don’t indicate how large the losses can be. b) Stress-testing provides a precise maximum loss level. c) VAR measures are correct only 95% of the time. d) Stress-testing scenarios incorporate reasonably probable events. Example 11-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 105/Market Risk 11-10. Value-at-risk (VAR) analysis should be complemented by stress-testing because stress testing a) Provides a maximum loss, expressed in dollars b) Summarizes the expected loss over a target horizon within a minimum conﬁdence interval c) Assesses the behavior of portfolio at a 99 percent conﬁdence level d) Identiﬁes losses that go beyond the normal losses measured by VAR

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Cash Flow at Risk

VAR methods have been developed to measure the mark-to-market risk of commercial bank portfolios. By now, these methods have spread to other ﬁnancial institutions (e.g., investment banks, savings and loans), and the investment management industry (e.g., pension funds). In each case, the objective function is the market value of the portfolio, assuming ﬁxed positions. VAR methods, however, are now also spreading to other sectors (e.g., corporations), where the emphasis is on periodic earnings. Cash ﬂow at risk (CFAR) measures the worst shortfall in cash ﬂows due to unfavorable movements in market risk factors. This involves quantities, Q, unit revenues, P , and unit costs, C . Simplifying, we can write CF ⳱ Q ⫻ (P ⫺ C )

(11.10)

Suppose we focus on the exchange rate, S , as the market risk factor. Each of these variables can be affected by S . Revenues and costs can be denominated in the foreign currency, partially or wholly. Quantities can also be affected by the exchange rate through foreign competition effects. Because quantities are random, this creates quantity uncertainty. The risk manager needs to model the relationship between quantities and risk factors. Once this is done, simulations can be used to project the cash-ﬂow distribution and identify the worst loss at some conﬁdence level. Next, the ﬁrm can decide whether to hedge and if so, the best instrument to use. A classic example is the value of a farmer’s harvest, say corn. At the beginning of the year, costs are ﬁxed and do not contribute to risk. The price of corn and the size of harvest in the fall, however, are unknown. Suppose price movements are primarily driven by supply shocks, such as the weather. If there is a drought during the summer, quantities will fall and prices will increase. Conversely if there is an exceptionally abundant harvest. Because of the negative correlation between Q and P , total revenues will ﬂuctuate less than if quantities were ﬁxed. Such relationships need to be factored into the risk measurement system because they will affect the hedging program.

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 11-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 89/Market Risk c) There will be a loss worse than VAR in, on average, n ⳱ 1% ⫻ 100 ⳱ 1 day out of 100. Example 11-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Capital Markets d) This is the correct answer given the “always” requirement and the fact that VAR is not always subadditive. Otherwise, (b) is not a bad answer, but it requires some additional distributional assumptions. Example 11-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 7/Risk Measurement b) Square root of 10 is 3.16. Example 11-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 114 a) We assume a normal distribution and i.i.d. returns, which lead to the square root of time rule and compute the daily standard deviation. For instance, for portfolio 1, T ⳱ 5, and σ ⳱ 10冫 ( 冪52.33) ⳱ 1.922. This gives, respectively, 1.922, 2.719, 1.359, 1.923, 1.110, 1.570. So, portfolio 5 has the lowest risk and so on. Example 11-5: FRM Exam 1997----Question 16/Regulatory c) The Capital Accord requires a minimum historical observation period of one year. Example 11-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Regulatory c) Less than calculated. Loss limits cut down the positions as losses accumulate. This is similar to a long position in an option, where the delta increases as the price increases, and vice versa. Long positions in options have shortened left tails, and hence involve less risk than an unprotected position. Example 11-7: FRM Exam 1997----Question 9/Regulatory b) Callable interest rate swaps involve options, for which there is no limit. Also note that back-to-back options are perfectly hedged and have no market risk. Example 11-8: FRM Exam 1997----Question 4/Risk Measurement a) Stress-testing evaluates the portfolio under large moves in ﬁnancial variables.

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Example 11-9: FRM Exam 1998----Question 20/Regulatory a) The goal of stress-testing is to identify losses that go beyond the “normal” losses measured by VAR. Example 11-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 105/Market Risk d) Stress testing identiﬁes low-probability losses beyond the usual VAR measures. It does not, however, provide a maximum loss.

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Appendix: Desirable Properties for Risk Measures The purpose of a risk measure is to summarize the entire distribution of dollar returns X by one number, ρ (X ). Artzner et al. (1999) list four desirable properties of risk measures for capital adequacy purposes.2 Monotonicity: if X1 ⱕ X2 , ρ (X1 ) ⱖ ρ (X2 ). In other words, if a portfolio has systematically lower values than another (in each state of the world), it must have greater risk. Translation Invariance: ρ (X Ⳮ k) ⳱ ρ (X ) ⫺ k. In other words, adding cash k to a portfolio should reduce its risk by k. This reduces the lowest portfolio value. As with X , k is measured in dollars. Homogeneity: ρ (bX ) ⳱ bρ (X ). In other words, increasing the size of a portfolio by a factor b should scale its risk measure by the same factor b. This property applies to the standard deviation.3 Subadditivity: ρ (X1 Ⳮ X2 ) ⱕ ρ (X1 ) Ⳮ ρ (X2 ). In other words, the risk of a portfolio must be less than the sum of separate risks. Merging portfolios cannot increase risk. The usefulness of these criteria is that they force us to think about ideal properties and, more importantly, potential problems with simpliﬁed risk measures. Indeed, Artzner et al. show that the quantile-based VAR measure fails to satisfy the last property. They give some pathological examples of positions that combine to create portfolios with larger VAR. They also show that the conditional VAR, E [⫺X 兩 X ⱕ ⫺VAR], satisﬁes all these desirable coherence properties. Assuming a normal distribution, however, the standard deviation-based VAR satisﬁes the subadditivity property. This is because the volatility of a portfolio is less than the sum of volatilities: σ (X1 Ⳮ X2 ) ⱕ σ (X1 ) Ⳮ σ (X2 ). We only have a strict equality when the correlation is perfect (positive for long positions). More generally, this property holds for elliptical distributions, for which contours of equal density are ellipsoids. 2

See Artzner, P., Delbaen F., Eber J.-M., and Heath D. (1999), Coherent Measures of Risk. Mathematical Finance, 9 (July), 203–228. 3 This assumption, however, may be questionable in the case of huge portfolios that could not be liquidated without substantial market impact. Thus, it ignores liquidity risk.

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Example: Why VAR is not necessarily subadditive Consider a trader with an investment in a corporate bond with face value of $100,000 and default probability of 0.5%. Over the next period, we can either have no default, with a return of zero, or default with a loss of $100,000. The payoffs are thus ⫺$100,000 with probability of 0.5% and +$0 with probability 99.5%. Since the probability of getting $0 is greater than 99%, the VAR at the 99 percent conﬁdence level is $0, without taking the mean into account. This is consistent with the deﬁnition that VAR is the smallest loss such that the right-tail probability is at least 99%. Now, consider a portfolio invested in three bonds (A,B,C) with the same characteristics and independent payoffs. The VAR numbers add up to 冱 i VARi ⳱ $0. To compute the portfolio VAR, we tabulate the payoffs and probabilities: State No default 1 default 2 defaults 3 defaults

Bonds A,B,C AB,AC,BC ABC

0.995 3 ⫻ 0.005 3 ⫻ 0.005 0.005

⫻ ⫻ ⫻ ⫻

Probability 0.995 ⫻ 0.995 ⳱ 0.9850749 0.995 ⫻ 0.995 ⳱ 0.0148504 0.005 ⫻ 0.995 ⳱ 0.0000746 0.005 ⫻ 0.005 ⳱ 0.0000001

Payoff $0 ⫺$100,000 ⫺$200,000 ⫺$300,000

Here, the probability of zero or one default is 0.9851Ⳮ0.0148 ⳱ 99.99%. The portfolio VAR is therefore $100,000, which is the lowest number such that the probability exceeds 99%. Thus the portfolio VAR is greater than the sum of individual VARs. In this example, VAR is not subadditive. This is an undesirable property because it creates disincentives to aggregate the portfolio, since it appears to have higher risk. Admittedly, this example is a bit contrived. Nevertheless, it illustrates the danger of focusing on VAR as a sole measure of risk. The portfolio may be structured to display a low VAR. When a loss occurs, however, this may be a huge loss. This is an issue with asymmetrical positions, such as short positions in options or undiversiﬁed portfolios exposed to credit risk.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 12 Identiﬁcation of Risk Factors The ﬁrst step in the measurement of market risk is the identiﬁcation of the key drivers of risk. These include ﬁxed income, equity, currency, and commodity risks. Later chapters will discuss in more detail the quantitative measurement of risk factors as well as the portfolio risk. Section 12.g1 presents a general overview of market risks. Downside risk can be viewed as resulting from two sources, exposure and the risk factor. This decomposition is essential because it separates risk into a component over which the risk manager has control (exposure) and another component that is exogenous (the risk factors). Section 12.g2 illustrates this decomposition in the context of a simple asset, a ﬁxed-coupon bond. An important issue is whether the exposure is constant. If so, the distribution of asset returns can be obtained from a simple transformation of the underlying risk-factor distribution. If not, the measurement of market risk becomes more complex. This section also discusses general and speciﬁc risk. Next, Section 12.g3 discusses discontinuities in returns and event risk. Macroeconomic events can be traced, for instance, to political and economic policies in emerging markets, but also in industrial countries. A related form of ﬁnancial risk that applies to all instruments is liquidity risk, which is covered in Section 4. This can take the form of asset liquidity risk or funding risk.

12.1

Market Risks

Market risk is the risk of ﬂuctuations in portfolio values because of movements in the level or volatility of market prices.

12.1.1

Absolute and Relative Risk

It is useful to distinguish between absolute and relative risks.

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Absolute risk is measured in terms of shortfall relative to the initial value of the investment, or perhaps an alternative investment in cash. It should be expressed in dollar terms (or in the relevant base currency). Let us use the standard deviation as the risk measure and deﬁne P as the initial portfolio value and RP as the rate of return. Absolute risk in dollar terms is σ (⌬P ) ⳱ σ (⌬P 冫 P ) ⫻ P ⳱ σ (RP ) ⫻ P

(12.1)

Relative risk is measured relative to a benchmark index and represents active management risk. Deﬁning B as the benchmark, the deviation is e ⳱ RP ⫺ RB . In dollar terms, this is e ⫻ P . The risk is σ ⳱ [σ (RP ⫺ RB )] ⫻ P ⳱ [σ (⌬P 冫 P ⫺ ⌬B 冫 B )] ⫻ P ⳱ ω ⫻ P

(12.2)

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where ω is called tracking error volatility (TEV).

For example, if a portfolio returns ⫺6% over the year but the benchmark dropped by ⫺10%, the excess return is positive e ⳱ ⫺6% ⫺ (⫺10%) ⳱ 4%, even though the absolute performance is negative. On the other hand, a portfolio could return 6%, which is good using absolute measures, but not so good if the benchmark went up by 10%.

TE

Using absolute or relative risk depends on how the trading or investment operation is judged. For bank trading portfolios or hedge funds, market risk is measured in absolute terms. These are sometimes called total return funds. For institutional portfolio managers that are given the task of beating a benchmark or peer group, market risk should be measured in relative terms. To evaluate the performance of portfolio managers, the investor should look not only at the average return, but also the risk. The Sharpe ratio (SR) measures the ratio of the average rate of return, µ (RP ), in excess of the risk-free rate RF , to the absolute risk SR ⳱ [µ (RP ) ⫺ RF ]冫 σ (RP )

(12.3)

The information ratio (IR) measures the ratio of the average rate of return in excess of the benchmark to the TEV IR ⳱ [µ (RP ) ⫺ µ (RB )]冫 ω

(12.4)

Table 12-1 gives some examples using annual data, which is the convention for performance measurement. Assume the interest rate is 3%. The Sharpe Ratio of the port-

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folio is SR ⳱ (⫺6% ⫺ 3%)冫 30% ⳱ ⫺0.30, which is bad because it is negative and large. In contrast, the Information Ratio is IR ⳱ (⫺6% ⫺ (⫺10%))冫 8% ⳱ 0.5, which is positive. It reﬂects the performance relative to the benchmark. This number is typical of the performance of the top 25th percentile of money managers and is considered “good.”1 TABLE 12-1 Absolute and Relative Performance Cash Portfolio P Benchmark B Deviation e

12.1.2

Average 3% -6% -10% 4%

Volatility 0% 30% 20% 8%

Performance SR ⳱ ⫺0.30 SR ⳱ ⫺0.65 IR ⳱ 0.5

Directional and Nondirectional Risk

Market risk can be further classiﬁed into directional and nondirectional risks. Directional risks involve exposures to the direction of movements in major ﬁnancial market variables. These directional exposures are measured by ﬁrst-order or linear approximations such as - Beta for exposure to general stock market movements - Duration for exposure to the level of interest rates - Delta for exposure of options to the price of the underlying asset Nondirectional risks involve other remaining exposures, such as nonlinear exposures, exposures to hedged positions or to volatilities. These nondirectional exposures are measured by exposures to differences in price movements, or quadratic exposures such as - Basis risk when dealing with differences in prices or in interest rates - Residual risk when dealing with equity portfolios - Convexity when dealing with second-order effects for interest rates - Gamma when dealing with second-order effects for options - Volatility risk when dealing with volatility effects This classiﬁcation is to some extent arbitrary. Generally, it is understood that directional risks are greater than nondirectional risks. Some strategies avoid ﬁrst-order, directional risks and instead take positions in nondirectional risks in the hope of controlling risks better. 1

See Grinold and Kahn (2000), Active Portfolio Management, McGraw-Hill, New York.

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Limiting risk also limits rewards, however. As a result, these strategies are often highly leveraged in order to multiply gains from taking nondirectional bets. Perversely, this creates other types of risks, such as liquidity risk and model risk. This strategy indeed failed for long-term capital management (LTCM), a highly leveraged hedge fund that purported to avoid directional risks. Instead, the fund took positions in relative value trades, such as duration-matched short Treasuries, long other ﬁxedincome assets, and in option volatilities. This strategy failed spectacularly.

12.1.3

Market vs. Credit Risk

Market risk is usually measured separately from another major source of ﬁnancial risk, which is credit risk. Credit risk originates from the fact that counterparties may be unwilling or unable to fulﬁll their contractual obligations. At the most basic level, it involves the risk of default on the asset, such as a loan, bond, or some other security or contract. When the asset is traded, however, market risk also reﬂects credit risk—take a corporate bond, for example. Some of the price movement may be due to movements in risk-free interest rates, which is pure market risk. The remainder will reﬂect the market’s changing perception of the likelihood of default. Thus, for traded assets, there is no clear-cut delineation of market and credit risk. Some arbitrary classiﬁcation must take place.

12.1.4

Risk Interaction

Although it is convenient to categorize risks into different, separately deﬁned, buckets, risk does not occur in isolation. Consider, for instance, a simple transaction whereby a trader purchases 1 million worth of British Pound (BP) spot from Bank A. The current rate is $1.5/BP, for settlement in two business days. So, our bank will have to deliver $1.5 million in two days in exchange for receiving BP 1 million. This simple transaction involves a series of risks. Market risk: During the day, the spot rate could change. Say that after a few hours the rate moves to $1.4/BP. The trader cuts the position and enters a spot sale with another bank, Bank B. The million pounds is now worth only $1.4 million, for a loss of $100,000 to be realized in two days. The loss is the change in the market value of the investment.

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Credit risk: The next day, Bank B goes bankrupt. The trader must now enter a new, replacement trade with Bank C. If the spot rate has dropped from $1.4/BP to $1.35/BP, the gain of $50,000 on the spot sale with Bank B is now at risk. The loss is the change in the market value of the investment, if positive. Thus there is interaction between market and credit risk. Settlement risk: Our bank wires the $1.5 million to Bank A in the morning, who defaults at noon and does not deliver the promised BP 1 million. This is also known as Herstatt risk because this German bank defaulted on such obligations in 1974, potentially destabilizing the whole ﬁnancial system. The loss is now the whole principal in dollars. Operational risk: Suppose that our bank wired the $1.5 million to a wrong bank, Bank D. After two days, our back ofﬁce gets the money back, which is then wired to Bank A plus compensatory interest. The loss is the interest on the amount due.

12.2

Sources of Loss: A Decomposition

12.2.1

Exposure and Uncertainty

The potential for loss for a plain ﬁxed-coupon bond can be decomposed into the effect of (modiﬁed) duration D ⴱ and the yield. Duration measures the sensitivity of the bond return to changes in the interest rate. ⌬P ⳱ ⫺(D ⴱ P ) ⫻ ⌬y

(12.5)

The dollar exposure is D ⴱ P , which is the dollar duration. Figure 12-1 shows how the nonlinear pricing relationship is approximated by the duration line, whose slope is ⫺(D ⴱ P ). This illustrates the general principle that losses can occur because of a combination of two factors: The exposure to the factor, or dollar duration (a choice variable) The movement in the factor itself (which is external to the portfolio) This linear characterization also applies to systematic risk and option delta. We can, for instance, decompose the return on stock i , Ri into a component due to the market RM and some residual risk, which we ignore for now because its effect washes out in a large portfolio: Ri ⳱ αi Ⳮ βi ⫻ RM Ⳮ i ⬇ βi ⫻ RM

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FIGURE 12-1 Duration as an Exposure Bond price Price 150 Slope = –(D*P) = ∆ P/ ∆ y

∆P 100

∆y

Duration approximation

50 0

2

4

6

8 10 Bond yield

12

14

16

We ignore the constant αi because it does not contribute to risk, as well as the residual i , which is diversiﬁed. Note that Ri is expressed here in terms of rate of return and, hence, has no dimension. To get a change in a dollar price, we write ⌬Pi ⳱ Ri Pi ⬇ (βPi ) ⫻ RM

(12.7)

Similarly, the change in the value of a derivative f can be expressed in terms of the change in the price of the underlying asset S , df ⳱ ⌬ ⫻ dS

(12.8)

To avoid confusion, we use the conventional notations of ⌬ for the ﬁrst partial derivative of the option. Changes are expressed in inﬁnitesimal amounts df and dS . Equations (12.5), (12.6), and (12.8) all reveal that the change in value is linked to an exposure coefﬁcient and a change in market variable: Market Loss ⳱ Exposure ⫻ Adverse Movement in FinancialVariable To have a loss, we need to have some exposure and an unfavorable move in the risk factor. Traditional risk management methods focus on the exposure term. The drawback is that one does not incorporate the probability of an adverse move, and there is no aggregation of risk across different sources of ﬁnancial risk.

12.2.2

Speciﬁc Risk

The previous section has shown how to explain the movement in individual bond, stock, or derivatives prices as a function of a general market factor. Consider, for

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instance, the driving factors behind changes in a stock’s price: ⌬Pi ⳱ (βPi ) ⫻ RM Ⳮ (i Pi )

(12.9)

The mapping procedure in risk management replaces the stock by its dollar exposure (βPi ) on the general, market risk factor. But this leaves out the speciﬁc risk, i . Speciﬁc risk can be deﬁned as risk that is due to issuer-speciﬁc price movements, after accounting for general market factors. Taking the variance of both sides of Equation (12.6), we have V [⌬Pi ] ⳱ (βi Pi )2 V [RM ] Ⳮ V [i Pi ]

(12.10)

The ﬁrst term represents general market risk, the second, speciﬁc risk. Increasing the amount of detail (or granularity) in the general risk factors should lead to smaller residual, speciﬁc risk. For instance, we could model general risk by taking a market index plus industry indices. As the number of market factors increases, speciﬁc risk should decrease. Hence, speciﬁc risk can only be understood relative to the deﬁnition of market risk. Example 12-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 16/Market Risk 12-1. The risk of a stock or bond that is not correlated with the market (and thus can be diversiﬁed) is known as a) Interest rate risk b) FX risk c) Model risk d) Speciﬁc risk

12.3

Discontinuity and Event Risk

12.3.1

Continuous Processes

As seen in the previous section, market risk can be ascribed to movements in the risk factor(s) and in the exposure, or payoff function. If movements in bond yields are smooth, bond prices will also move in a smooth fashion. These continuous movements can be captured well from historical data. This smoothness characteristic can be expressed in mathematical form as a Brownian motion. Formally, the variance of changes in prices over shrinking time intervals has to shrink at the same rate as the length of the time interval, giving lim⌬t y 0 V [⌬P 冫 P ] ⳱ σ 2 dt

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where σ is a ﬁnite volatility. Such process allows continuous hedging, or replication, of an option, which leads to the Black-Scholes model. In practice, movements are small enough that effective hedging can occur on a daily basis.

12.3.2

Jump Process

A much more dangerous process is a discontinuous jump process, where large movements occur over a small time interval. These discontinuities can create large losses. Furthermore, their probability is difﬁcult to establish because they occur rarely in historical data. Figure 12-2 depicts a notable discontinuity, which is the 20% drop in the S&P index on October 19, 1987. Prior to that, movements in the index were relatively smooth. Such discontinuities are inherently difﬁcult to capture. In theory, simulations could modify the usual continuous stochastic processes by adding a jump component occurring with a predeﬁned frequency and size. In practice, the process parameters are difﬁcult to estimate and there is not much point in trying to quantify what is essentially a stress-testing exercise. Discontinuities in the portfolio series can occur for another reason: The payoff itself can be discontinuous. Figure 12-3 gives the example of a binary option, which FIGURE 12-2 Jump in U.S. Stock Price Index S & P equity index 340 320 300 280 260 240 220

12/31/87

11/30/87

10/31/87

9/30/87

8/31/87

7/31/87

6/30/87

5/31/87

4/30/87

3/31/87

2/28/87

1/31/87

12/31/86

200

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FIGURE 12-3 Discontinuous Payoff: Binary Option Option payoff

1

0 50

100 Underlying asset price

150

pays $1 if the underlying price is above the strike price and pays zero otherwise. Such an option will create a discontinuous pattern in the portfolio, even if the underlying asset price is perfectly smooth. These options are difﬁcult to hedge because of the instability of the option delta around the strike price. In other words, they have very high gamma at that point.

12.3.3

Event Risk

Discontinuities can occur for a number of reasons. Most notably, there was no immediately observable explanation for the stock market crash of 1987. It was argued that the crash was caused by the “unsustainable” run-up in prices during the year, as well as sustained increases in interest rates. The problem is that all of this information was available to market observers well before the crash. Perhaps the crash was due to the unusual volume of trading, which overwhelmed trading mechanisms, creating further uncertainty as prices dropped. In many other cases, the discontinuity is due to an observable event. Event risk can be characterized as the risk of loss because of an observable political or economic event. These include Changes in governments leading to changes in economic policies Changes in economic policies, such as default, capital controls, inconvertibility, changes in tax laws, expropriations, and so on

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Coups, civil wars, invasions, or other signs of political instability Currency devaluations, which are usually accompanied by other drastic changes in market variables These risks often originate from emerging markets,2 although this is by no means universal. Developing countries have time and again displayed a disturbing tendency to interfere with capital ﬂows. There is no simple method to deal with event risk, since almost by deﬁnition they are unique events. To protect the institution against such risk, risk managers could consult with economists. Political risk insurance is also available for some markets, which should give some measure of the perceived risk. Setting up prospective events is an important part of stress testing. Even so, recent years have demonstrated that markets seem to be systematically taken by surprise. Precious few seem to have anticipated the Russian default, for instance.

Example: the Argentina Turmoil Argentina is a good example of political risk in emerging markets. Up to 2001, the Argentine peso was ﬁxed to the U.S. dollar at a one-to-one exchange rate. The government had promised it would defend the currency at all costs. Argentina, however, suffered from the worst economic crisis in decades, compounded by the cost of excessive borrowing. In December 2001, Argentina announced it would stop paying interest on its $135 billion foreign debt. This was the largest sovereign default recorded so far. Economy Minister Cavallo also announced sweeping restrictions on withdrawals from bank deposits to avoid capital ﬂight. On December 20, President Fernando de la Rua resigned after 25 people died in street protest and rioting. President Duhalde took ofﬁce on January 2 and devalued the currency on January 6. The exchange rate promptly moved from 1 peso/dollar to more than 3 pesos. Such moves could have been factored into risk management systems by scenario analysis. What was totally unexpected, however, was the government’s announcement 2

The term “emerging stock market” was coined by the International Finance Corporation (IFC), in 1981. IFC deﬁnes an emerging stock market as one located in a developing country. Using the World Bank’s deﬁnition, this includes all countries with a GNP per capita less than $8,625 in 1993.

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that it would treat differentially bank loans and deposits. Dollar-denominated bank deposits were converted into devalued pesos, but dollar-denominated bank loans were converted into pesos at a one-to-one rate. This mismatch rendered much of the banking system technically insolvent, because loans (bank assets) overnight became less valuable than deposits (bank liabilities). Whereas risk managers had contemplated the market risk effect of a devaluation, few had considered this possibility of such political actions.

Example 12-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 122 12-2. What is the most important consequence of an option having a discontinuous payoff function? a) An increase in operational risks, as the expiry price can be contested or manipulated if close to a point of discontinuity b) When the underlying is close to the points of discontinuity, a very high gamma c) Difﬁculties to assess the correct market price at expiry d) None of the above

12.4

Liquidity Risk

Liquidity risk is usually viewed as a component of market risk. Lack of liquidity can cause the failure of an institution, even when it is technically solvent. We will see in the chapters on regulation that commercial banks have an inherent liquidity imbalance between their assets (long-term loans) and their liabilities (bank deposits) that provides a rationale for deposit insurance. The problem with liquidity risk is that it is less amenable to formal analysis than traditional market risk. The industry is still struggling with the measurement of liquidity risk. Often, liquidity risk is loosely factored into VAR measures, for instance by selectively increasing volatilities. These adjustments, however, are mainly ad-hoc. Some useful lessons have been learned from the near failure of LTCM. These are discussed in a report by the Counterparty Risk Management Policy Group (CRMPG), which is described in Chapter 26. Liquidity risk consists of both asset liquidity risk and funding liquidity risk.

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Asset liquidity risk, also called market/product liquidity risk, arises when transactions cannot be conducted at quoted market prices due to the size of the required trade relative to normal trading lots. Funding liquidity risk, also called cash-ﬂow risk, arises when the institution cannot meet payment obligations. These two types of risk interact with each other if the portfolio contains illiquid assets that must be sold at distressed prices. Funding liquidity needs can be met from (i) sales of cash, (ii) sales of other assets, and (iii) borrowings. Asset liquidity risk can be managed by setting limits on certain markets or products and by means of diversiﬁcation. Funding liquidity risk can be managed by proper planning of cash-ﬂow needs, by setting limits on cash ﬂow gaps, and by having a ro-

AM FL Y

bust plan in place for raising fresh funds should the need arise. Asset liquidity can be measured by a price-quantity function, which describes how the price is affected by the quantity transacted. Highly liquid assets, such as major currencies or Treasury bonds, are characterized by

Tightness, which is a measure of the divergence between actual transaction prices

TE

and quoted mid-market prices

Depth, which is a measure of the volume of trades possible without affecting prices too much (e.g. at the bid/offer prices), and is in contrast to thinness Resiliency, which is a measure of the speed at which price ﬂuctuations from trades are dissipated In contrast, illiquid markets are those where transactions can quickly affect prices. This includes assets such as exotic OTC derivatives or emerging-market equities, which have low trading volumes. All else equal, illiquid assets are more affected by current demand and supply conditions and are usually more volatile than liquid assets. Illiquidity is both asset-speciﬁc and market-wide. Large-scale changes in market liquidity seem to occur on a regular basis, most recently during the bond market rout of 1994 and the credit crisis of 1998. Such crises are characterized by a ﬂight to quality, which occurs when there is a shift in demand away from low-grade securities toward high-grade securities. The low-grade market then becomes illiquid with depressed prices. This is reﬂected in an increase in the yield spread between corporate and government issues.

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Even government securities can be affected differentially. The yield spread can widen between off-the-run securities and corresponding on-the-run securities. Onthe-run securities are those that are issued most recently and hence are more active and liquid. Other securities are called off-the-run. Consider, for instance, the latest issued 30-year U.S. Treasury bond. This benchmark bond is called on-the-run, until another 30-year bond is issued, at which time it becomes off-the-run. Because these securities are very similar in terms of market and credit risk, this yield spread is a measure of the liquidity premium.

Example 12-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 54/Market Risk 12-3. “Illiquid” describes an instrument that a) Does not trade in an active market b) Does not trade on any exchange c) Can not be easily hedged d) Is an over-the-counter (OTC) product Example 12-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Credit Risk 12-4. (This requires some knowledge of markets.) Which of the following products has the least liquidity? a) U.S. on-the-run Treasuries b) U.S. off-the-run Treasuries c) Floating-rate notes d) High-grade corporate bonds Example 12-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Capital Markets 12-5. A ﬁnance company is interested in managing its balance sheet liquidity risk (funding risk). The most productive means of accomplishing this is by a) Purchasing marketable securities b) Hedging the exposure with Eurodollar futures c) Diversifying its sources of funding d) Setting up a reserve

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Example 12-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 74/Market Risk 12-6. In a market crash the following are usually true? I. Fixed-income portfolios hedged with short U.S. government bonds and futures lose less than those hedged with interest rate swaps given equivalent durations. II. Bid offer spreads widen because of lower liquidity. III. The spreads between off-the-run bonds and benchmark issues widen. a) I, II & III b) II & III c) I & III d) None of the above Example 12-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 83/Market Risk 12-7. Which one of the following statements about liquidity risk in derivatives instruments is not true? a) Liquidity risk is the risk that an institution may not be able to, or cannot easily, unwind or offset a particular position at or near the previous market price because of inadequate market depth or disruptions in the marketplace. b) Liquidity risk is the risk that the institution will be unable to meet its payment obligations on settlement dates or in the event of margin calls. c) Early termination agreements can adversely impact liquidity because an institution may be required to deliver collateral or settle a contract early, possibly at a time when the institution may face other funding and liquidity pressures. d) An institution that participates in the exchange-traded derivatives markets has potential liquidity risks associated with the early termination of derivatives contracts.

12.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 12-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 16/Market Risk d) Speciﬁc risk represents the risk that is not correlated with market-wide movements. Example 12-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 122 b) Answer (c) is not correct since the correct market price can be set at expiration as a function of the underlying spot price. The main problem is that the delta changes very quickly close to expiration when the spot price hovers around the strike price. This high gamma feature makes it very difﬁcult to implement dynamic hedging of options with discontinuous payoffs, such as binary options.

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Example 12-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 54/Market Risk a) Illiquid instruments are ones that do not trade actively. Answers (b) and (d) are not correct as OTC products, which do not trade on exchanges, such as Treasuries, can be quite liquid. The lack of easy hedging alternatives does not imply the instrument itself is illiquid. Example 12-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Credit Risk c) (This requires some knowledge of markets.) Ranking these assets in decreasing order of asset liquidity, we have (a), (b), (d), and (c). Floating-rate notes are typically issued in smaller amounts and have customized payment schedules. As a result, they are typically less liquid than the other securities. Example 12-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Capital Markets c) Managing balance-sheet liquidity risk involves the ability to meet cash-ﬂow needs as required. This can be met by keeping liquid assets or being able to raise fresh funds easily. Answer (a) is not correct because it substitutes cash for marketable securities, which is not an improvement. Hedging with Eurodollar futures does not decrease potential cash-ﬂow needs. Setting up a reserve is simply an accounting entry. Example 12-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 74/Market Risk b) In a crash, bid offer spreads widen, as do liquidity spreads. Answer I is incorrect because Treasuries usually rally more than swaps, which leads to greater losses for a portfolio short Treasuries than swaps. Example 12-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 83/Market Risk d) Answer (a) refers to asset liquidity risk; answers (b) and (c) to funding liquidity risk. Answer (d) is incorrect since exchange-traded derivatives are marked-to-market daily and hence can be terminated at any time without additional cash-ﬂow needs.

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Chapter 13 Sources of Risk We now turn to a systematic analysis of the major ﬁnancial market risk factors. Currency, ﬁxed-income, equity, and commodities risk are analyzed in Sections 13.1, 13.2, 13.3, and 13.4, respectively. Currency risk refers to the volatility of ﬂoating exchange rates and devaluation risk, for ﬁxed currencies. Fixed-income risk relates to termstructure risk, global interest rate risk, real yield risk, credit spread risk, and prepayment risk. Equity risk can be described in terms of country risk, industry risk, and stock-speciﬁc risk. Commodity risk includes volatility risk, convenience yield risk, delivery and liquidity risk. These ﬁrst four sections are mainly descriptive. Finally, Section 13.5 discusses simpliﬁcations in risk models. We explain how the multitude of risk factors can be summarized into a few essential drivers. Such factor models include the diagonal model, which decomposes returns into a market-wide factor and residual risk.

13.1

Currency Risk

Currency risk arises from potential movements in the value of foreign currencies. This includes currency-speciﬁc volatility, correlations across currencies, and devaluation risk. Currency risk arises in the following environments. In a pure currency ﬂoat, the external value of a currency is free to move, to depreciate or appreciate, as pushed by market forces. An example is the dollar/euro exchange rate. In a ﬁxed currency system, a currency’s external value is ﬁxed (or pegged) to another currency. An example is the Hong Kong dollar, which is ﬁxed against the U.S. dollar. This does not mean there is no risk, however, due to possible readjustments in the parity value, called devaluations or revaluations. In a change in currency regime, a currency that was previously ﬁxed becomes ﬂexible, or vice versa. For instance, the Argentinian peso was ﬁxed against the dollar

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until 2001, and ﬂoated thereafter. Changes in regime can also lower currency risk, as in the recent case of the euro.1

13.1.1

Currency Volatility

Table 13-1 compares the RiskMetrics volatility forecasts for a group of 21 currencies.2 Ten of these correspond to “industrial countries,” the others to “emerging” markets. These numbers are standard deviations, adapted from value-at-risk (VAR) forecasts by dividing by 1.645. The table reports daily, monthly, and annualized (from monthly) standard deviations at the end of 2002 and 1996. Across developed TABLE 13-1 Currency Volatility Against U.S. Dollar (Percent) Currency/ Country Argentina Australia Canada Switzerland Denmark Britain Hong Kong Indonesia Japan Korea Mexico Malaysia Norway New Zealand Philippines Sweden Singapore Thailand Taiwan South Africa Euro

Code ARS AUD CAD CHF DKK GBP HKD IDR JPY KRW MXN MYR NOK NZD PHP SEK SGD THB TWD ZAR EUR

Daily 0.663 0.405 0.403 0.495 0.421 0.398 0.004 0.356 0.613 0.434 0.511 0.000 0.477 0.631 0.303 0.431 0.230 0.286 0.166 1.050 0.422

End 1999 Monthly Annual 3.746 12.98 2.310 8.00 1.863 6.45 2.664 9.23 2.275 7.88 2.165 7.50 0.016 0.05 2.344 8.12 3.051 10.57 2.279 7.89 2.615 9.06 0.001 0.01 2.608 9.03 3.140 10.88 1.423 4.93 2.366 8.20 1.304 4.52 1.544 5.35 0.981 3.40 4.915 17.03 2.284 7.91

End 1996 Annual 0.42 8.50 3.60 10.16 7.78 9.14 0.26 1.61 6.63 4.49 6.94 1.60 7.60 7.89 0.57 6.38 1.79 1.23 0.94 8.37 8.26

1

As of 2003, the Eurozone includes a block of 12 countries, Austria, Belgium/Luxembourg, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Italy, Netherlands, Portugal, and Spain. Greece joined on January 1, 2001. Currency risk is not totally eliminated, however, as there is always a possibility that the currency union could dissolve. 2 For updates, see www.riskmetrics.com.

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markets, volatility typically ranges from 6 to 11 percent per annum. The Canadian dollar is notably lower at 4–5 percent volatility. Some currencies, such as the Hong Kong dollar have very low volatility, reﬂecting their pegging to the dollar. This does not mean that they have low risk, however. They are subject to devaluation risk, which is the risk that the currency peg could fail. This has happened to Thailand and Indonesia, which in 1996 had low volatility but converted to a ﬂoating exchange rate regime, which had higher volatility in 2002. Example 13-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Market Risk 13-1. Which currency pair would you expect to have the lowest volatility? a) USD/EUR b) USD/CAD c) USD/JPY d) USD/MXN

13.1.2

Correlations

Next, we brieﬂy describe the correlations between these currencies against the U.S. dollar. Generally, correlations are low, mostly in the range of -0.10 to 0.20. This indicates substantial beneﬁts from holding a well-diversiﬁed currency portfolio. There are, however, blocks of currencies with very high correlations. European currencies, such as the DKK, SEK, NOK, CHF, have high correlation with each other and the Euro, on the order of 0.90. The GBP also has high correlations with European currencies, around 0.60-0.70. As a result, investing across European currencies does little to diversify risk, from the viewpoint of a U.S. dollar-based investor.

13.1.3

Devaluation Risk

Next, we examine the typical impact of a currency devaluation, which is illustrated in Figure 13-1. Each currency has been scaled to a unit value at the end of the month just before the devaluation. In previous months, we observe only small variations in exchange rates. In contrast, the devaluation itself leads to a dramatic drop in value ranging from 20% to an extreme 80% in the case of the rupiah. Currency risk is also related to other ﬁnancial risks, in particular interest rate risk. Often, interest rates are raised in an effort to stem the depreciation of a currency, resulting in a positive correlation between the currency and the bond market. These interactions should be taken into account when designing scenarios for stress-tests.

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FIGURE 13-1 Effect of Currency Devaluation 1.2

Currency value index

1.1 1 0.9

Brazil: Jan-99

0.8 Thailand: July-97

0.7 0.6 0.5

Mexico: December-94

0.4 0.3

Indonesia: August-97

0.2 0.1 0

–12 –11–10–9 –8 –7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Month around devaluation

13.1.4

Cross-Rate Volatility

Exchange rates are expressed relative to a base currency, usually the dollar. The cross rate is the exchange rate between two currencies other than the reference currency. For instance, say that S1 represents the dollar/pound rate and that S2 represents the dollar/euro (EUR) rate. Then the euro/pound rate is given by the ratio S3 (EUR 冫 BP ) ⳱

S1 ($冫 BP ) S2 ($冫 EUR )

(13.1)

Using logs, we can write ln[S3 ] ⳱ ln[S1 ] ⫺ ln[S2 ]

(13.2)

The volatility of the cross rate is σ32 ⳱ σ12 Ⳮ σ22 ⫺ 2ρ12 σ1 σ2

(13.3)

Thus we could infer the correlation from the triplet of variances. Note that this assumes both the numerator and denominator are in the same currency. Otherwise, the log of the cross rate is the sum of the logs, and the negative sign in Equation (13.3) must be changed to a positive sign.

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Example 13-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 14/Market Risk 13-2. What is the implied correlation between JPY/EUR and EUR/USD when given the following volatilities for foreign exchange rates? JPY/USD at 8% JPY/EUR at 10% EUR/USD at 6%. a) 60% b) 30% c) ⫺30% d) ⫺60%

13.2

Fixed-Income Risk

Fixed-income risk arises from potential movements in the level and volatility of bond yields. Figure 13-2 plots U.S. Treasury yields on a typical range of maturities at monthly intervals since 1986. The graph shows that yield curves move in complicated fashion, which creates yield curve risk.

13.2.1

Factors Affecting Yields

Yield volatility reﬂects economic fundamentals. For a long time, the primary determinant of movements in interest rates was inﬂationary expectations. Any perceived FIGURE 13-2 Movements in the U.S. Yield Curve Yield 10 9 8 7 6 5

2 1 30Y

Dec-01

0 Dec-02 3mo 3Y

Dec-00

Date

3

Dec-99

Dec-86 Dec-87 Dec-88 Dec-89 Dec-90 Dec-91 Dec-92 Dec-93 Dec-94 Dec-95 Dec-96 Dec-97 Dec-98

4

Maturity

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FIGURE 13-3 Inﬂation and Interest Rates Rate (% pa) 20

15

10 3-month interest rate 5 Inflation 0 1960

1970

1980

1990

2000

AM FL Y

increase in the predicted rate of inﬂation will make bonds with ﬁxed nominal coupons less attractive, thereby increasing their yield.

Figure 13-3 compares the level of short-term U.S. interest rates with the concurrent level of inﬂation. The graphs show that most of the movements in nominal rates can be explained by inﬂation. In more recent years, however, inﬂation has been subdued.

TE

Figure 13-2 has shown complex movements in the term structure of interest rates. It would be convenient if these movements could be summarized by a small number of variables. In practice, market observers focus on a long-term rate (say the yield on the 10-year note) and a short-term rate (say the yield on a 3-month bill). These two rates usefully summarize movements in the term structure, which are displayed in Figure 13-4. Shaded areas indicate periods of U.S. economic recessions. FIGURE 13-4 Movements in the Term Structure Yield (% pa) 20 Shaded areas indicate recessions 15

Long-term T-bonds

10

5 3-month T-bills 0 1960

1970

1980

1990

2000

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FIGURE 13-5 Term Structure Spread 4

Term spread (% pa)

3 2 1 0 -1 Shaded areas indicate recessions

-2 -3 -4 1960

1970

1980

1990

2000

Generally, the two rates move in tandem, although the short-term rate displays more variability. The term spread is deﬁned as the difference between the long rate and the short rate. Figure 13-5 relates the term spread to economic activity. As the graph shows, periods of recessions usually witness an increase in the term spread. Slow economic activity decreases the demand for capital, which in turn decreases short-term rates and increases the term spread.

13.2.2

Bond Price and Yield Volatility

Table 13-2 compares the RiskMetrics volatility forecasts for U.S. bond prices. The data are recorded as of December 31, 2002 and December 31, 1996. The table includes Eurodeposits, ﬁxed swap rates, and zero-coupon Treasury rates, for maturities ranging from 30 day to 30 years. Volatilities are reported at a daily and monthly horizon. Monthly volatilities are also annualized by multiplying by the square root of twelve. Short-term deposits have very little price risk. Volatility increases with maturity. The price risk of 10-year bonds is around 10% annually, which is similar to that of ﬂoating currencies. The risk of 30-year bonds is higher, at 20-30%, which is similar to that of equities. Risk can be measured as either return volatility or yield volatility. Using the duration approximation, the volatility of the rate of return in the bond price is σ

⌬P

冢 P 冣 ⳱兩 D

ⴱ

兩 ⫻ σ (⌬y )

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PART III: MARKET RISK MANAGEMENT TABLE 13-2 U.S. Type/ Code Maturity Euro-30d R030 Euro-90d R090 Euro-180d R180 Euro-360d R360 Swap-2Y S02 Swap-3Y S03 Swap-4Y S04 Swap-5Y S05 Swap-7Y S07 Swap-10Y S10 Zero-2Y Z02 Zero-3Y Z03 Zero-4Y Z04 Zero-5Y Z05 Zero-7Y Z07 Zero-9Y Z09 Zero-10Y Z10 Zero-15Y Z15 Zero-20Y Z20 Zero-30Y Z30

Fixed-Income Yield Level Daily 1.360 0.002 1.353 0.005 1.348 0.009 1.429 0.030 1.895 0.110 2.428 0.184 2.865 0.257 3.224 0.329 3.815 0.454 4.434 0.643 1.593 0.107 1.980 0.172 2.372 0.248 2.773 0.339 3.238 0.458 3.752 0.576 3.989 0.637 4.247 0.894 4.565 1.132 5.450 1.692

Price Volatility (Percent) End 2002 End 1996 Mty Annual Annual 0.012 0.04 0.05 0.030 0.10 0.08 0.064 0.22 0.19 0.188 0.65 0.58 0.634 2.20 1.57 1.027 3.56 2.59 1.429 4.95 3.59 1.836 6.36 4.70 2.535 8.78 6.69 3.613 12.52 9.82 0.631 2.18 1.64 0.999 3.46 2.64 1.428 4.95 3.69 1.935 6.70 4.67 2.603 9.02 6.81 3.259 11.29 8.64 3.600 12.47 9.31 5.018 17.38 13.82 6.292 21.80 17.48 9.170 31.77 23.53

Here, we took the absolute value of duration since the volatility of returns and of yield changes must be positive. Price volatility nearly always increases with duration. Yield volatility, on the other hand, may be more intuitive because it corresponds to the usual representation of the term structure of interest rates. When changes in yields are normally distributed, the term σ (⌬y ) is constant: This is the normal model. Instead, RiskMetrics reports a volatility of relative changes in yields, where σ ( ⌬yy ) is constant: This is the lognormal model. The RiskMetrics forecast can be converted into the usual volatility of yield changes: σ (⌬y ) ⳱ y ⫻ σ (⌬y 冫 y )

(13.5)

Table 13-3 displays volatilities of relative and absolute yield changes. Yield volatility for swaps and zeros is much more constant across maturity, ranging from 0.9 to 1.2 percent per annum. It should be noted that the square root of time adjustment for the volatility is more questionable for bond prices than for most other assets because bond prices must converge to their face value as maturity nears (barring default). This effect is important for short-term bonds, whose return volatility pattern is distorted by the

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TABLE 13-3 Type/ Code Maturity Euro-30d R030 Euro-90d R090 Euro-180d R180 Euro-360d R360 Swap-2Y S02 Swap-3Y S03 Swap-4Y S04 Swap-5Y S05 Swap-7Y S07 Swap-10Y S10 Zero-2Y Z02 Zero-3Y Z03 Zero-4Y Z04 Zero-5Y Z05 Zero-7Y Z07 Zero-9Y Z09 Zero-10Y Z10 Zero-15Y Z15 Zero-20Y Z20 Zero-30Y Z30

U.S. Fixed-Income Yield Yield σ (dy 冫 y ) Level Daily Mty 1.360 1.580 9.584 1.353 1.240 7.866 1.348 1.267 8.321 1.429 1.883 11.177 1.895 2.546 13.993 2.428 2.264 12.247 2.865 2.061 11.158 3.224 1.901 10.370 3.815 1.619 8.883 4.434 1.409 7.827 1.593 2.916 16.576 1.980 2.583 14.681 2.372 2.384 13.541 2.773 2.263 12.847 3.238 1.913 10.825 3.752 1.650 9.309 3.989 1.556 8.766 4.247 1.376 7.694 4.565 1.223 6.776 5.450 1.037 5.603

289 Volatility, 2002 (Percent) σ (dy ) Annual Daily Mty Annual 33.20 0.021 0.130 0.45 27.25 0.017 0.106 0.37 28.83 0.017 0.112 0.39 38.72 0.027 0.160 0.55 48.47 0.048 0.265 0.92 42.42 0.055 0.297 1.03 38.65 0.059 0.320 1.11 35.92 0.061 0.334 1.16 30.77 0.062 0.339 1.17 27.11 0.062 0.347 1.20 57.42 0.046 0.264 0.91 50.86 0.051 0.291 1.01 46.91 0.057 0.321 1.11 44.50 0.063 0.356 1.23 37.50 0.062 0.351 1.21 32.25 0.062 0.349 1.21 30.37 0.062 0.350 1.21 26.65 0.058 0.327 1.13 23.47 0.056 0.309 1.07 19.41 0.057 0.305 1.06

convergence to face value. It is less of an issue, however, for long-term bonds, as long as the horizon is much shorter than the bond maturity. This explains why the volatility of short-term Eurodeposits appears to be out of line with the others. The concept of monthly risk of a 30-day deposit is indeed fuzzy, since by the end of the VAR horizon, the deposit will have matured, having therefore zero risk. Instead this can be interpreted as an investment in a 30-day deposit that is held for one day only and rolled over the next day into a fresh 30-day deposit. Example 13-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 86/Market Risk 13-3. For purposes of computing the market risk of a U.S. Treasury bond portfolio, it is easiest to measure a) Yield volatility because yields have positive skewness b) Price volatility because bond prices are positively correlated c) Yield volatility for bonds sold at a discount and price volatility for bonds sold at a premium to par d) Yield volatility because it remains more constant over time than price volatility, which must approach zero as the bond approaches maturity

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Example 13-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 80/Market Risk 13-4. BankEurope has a $20,000,000.00 position in the 6.375% AUG 2027 US Treasury Bond. The details on the bond are Market Price 98 8/32 Accrued 1.43% Yield 6.509% Duration 13.133 Modiﬁed duration 12.719 Yield volatility 12% What is the daily VAR of this position at the 95% conﬁdence level (assume there are 250 business days in a year)? a) $291,400 b) $203,080 c) $206,036 d) $206,698

13.2.3

Correlations

Table 13-4 displays correlation coefﬁcients for all maturity pairs at a 1-day horizon. First, it should be noted that the Eurodeposit block behaves somewhat differently from the zero-coupon Treasury block. Correlations between these two blocks are relatively lower than others. This is because Eurodeposit rates contain credit risk. Variations in the credit spread will create additional noise relative to movements among pure Treasury yield. Within each block, correlations are generally very high, suggesting that yields are affected by a common factor. If the yield curve were to move in strict parallel fashion, all correlations should be equal to one. In practice, the yield curve displays more comTABLE 13-4 U.S. Fixed-Income Price Correlations, 2002 (Daily) R030 R090 R180 R360 Z02 Z03 Z04 Z05 Z07 Z09 Z10 Z15 Z20 Z30

R030

R090

R180

R360

Z02

Z03

Z04

Z05

Z07

1.000 0.786 0.690 0.372 0.142 0.121 0.100 0.080 0.098 0.117 0.143 0.123 0.098 0.022

1.000 0.894 0.544 0.299 0.269 0.237 0.206 0.219 0.231 0.251 0.226 0.193 0.082

1.000 0.814 0.614 0.592 0.563 0.532 0.534 0.530 0.534 0.509 0.471 0.318

1.000 0.840 0.836 0.820 0.797 0.794 0.783 0.772 0.754 0.720 0.554

1.000 0.992 0.972 0.943 0.933 0.912 0.890 0.863 0.817 0.601

1.000 0.994 0.977 0.969 0.949 0.928 0.906 0.865 0.663

1.000 0.995 0.988 0.970 0.950 0.933 0.898 0.709

1.000 0.995 0.979 0.959 0.946 0.916 0.743

1.000 0.994 0.982 0.973 0.948 0.789

Z09

Z10

Z15

Z20

1.000 0.997 1.000 0.991 0.996 1.000 0.971 0.980 0.994 0.827 0.848 0.889

1.000 0.935

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plex patterns but remains relatively smooth. This implies that movements in adjoining maturities are highly correlated. For instance, the correlation between the 9-year zero and 10-year zero is 0.997, which is very high. zero is not very Correlations are the lowest for maturities further apart, for instance 0.601 between the 2-year and 30-year zero. These high correlations give risk managers an opportunity to simplify the number of risk factors they have to deal with. Suppose, for instance, that the portfolio consists of global bonds in 17 different currencies. Initially, the risk manager decides to keep 14 risk factors in each market. This leads to a very large number of correlations within, but also across all markets. With 17 currencies, and 14 maturities, for instance, the total number of assets is n ⳱ 17 ⫻ 14 ⳱ 238. The correlation matrix has n ⫻ (n ⫺ 1) ⳱ 238 ⫻ 237 ⳱ 56,406 elements off the diagonal. Surely some of this information is superﬂuous. The matrix in Table 13-4 can be simpliﬁed using principal components. Principal components is a statistical technique that extracts linear combinations of the original variables that explain the highest proportion of diagonal components of the matrix. For this matrix, the ﬁrst principal component explains 94% of the total variance and has similar weights on all maturities. Hence, it could be called a level risk factor. The second principal component explains 4% of the total variance. As it is associated with opposite positions on short and long maturities, it could be called a slope risk factor (or twist). Sometimes a third factor is found that represents curvature risk factor, or a bend risk factor (also called a butterﬂy). Previous research has indeed found that, in the United States and other ﬁxedincome markets, movements in yields could be usefully summarized by two to three factors that typically explain over 95 percent of the total variance. Example 13-5: FRM Exam 2000----Question 96/Market Risk 13-5. Which one of the following statements about historic U.S. Treasury yield curve changes is true? a) Changes in long-term yields tend to be larger than in short-term yields. b) Changes in long-term yields tend to be of approximately the same size as changes in short-term yields. c) The same size yield change in both long-term and short-term rates tends to produce a larger price change in short-term instruments when all securities are trading near par. d) The largest part of total return variability of spot rates is due to parallel changes with a smaller portion due to slope changes and the residual due to curvature changes.

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13.2.4

PART III: MARKET RISK MANAGEMENT

Global Interest Rate Risk

Different ﬁxed-income markets create their own sources of risk. Volatility patterns, however, are similar across the globe. To illustrate, Table 13-5 shows price and yield volatilities for 17 ﬁxed-income markets, focusing only on 10-year zeros. The level of yields falls within a remarkably narrow range, 4 to 6 percent. This reﬂects the fact that yields are primarily driven by inﬂationary expectations, which have become similar across all these markets. Indeed central banks across all these countries have proved their common determination to keep inﬂation in check. Two notable exceptions are South Africa, where yields are at 10.7% and Japan where yields are at 0.9%. These two countries are experiencing much higher and lower inﬂation, respectively, than the rest of the group. The table also shows that most countries have an annual volatility of yield changes around 0.6 to 1.2 percent. Again, Japan is an exception, which suggests that the volatility of yields is not independent of the level of yields. In fact, we would expect this volatility to decrease as yields drop toward zero and to be higher when yields are higher. The Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (1985) model TABLE 13-5 Global Fixed-Income Volatility, 2002 (Percent) Country

Code

Austrl. Belgium Canada Germany Denmark Spain France Britain Ireland Italy Japan Nether. New Zl. Sweden U.S. S.Afr. Euro

AUD BEF CAD DEM DKK ESP FRF GBP IEP ITL JPY NLG NZD SEK USD ZAR EUR

Yield Level 5.236 4.453 4.950 4.306 4.563 4.399 4.383 4.415 4.456 4.582 0.918 4.335 6.148 4.812 3.989 10.650 4.306

Daily 0.676 0.352 0.426 0.349 0.307 0.359 0.351 0.333 0.353 0.348 0.171 0.356 0.477 0.361 0.637 0.535 0.352

Price Vol. Mty Annual 3.660 12.68 1.995 6.91 2.438 8.45 1.967 6.81 1.765 6.12 2.024 7.01 1.952 6.76 1.848 6.40 1.950 6.75 1.999 6.93 1.153 3.99 1.985 6.88 2.741 9.49 2.055 7.12 3.600 12.47 3.358 11.63 1.978 6.85

Yield Vol. σ (dy ) Daily Mty Annual 0.066 0.353 1.22 0.035 0.196 0.68 0.042 0.237 0.82 0.035 0.194 0.67 0.031 0.174 0.60 0.036 0.198 0.69 0.035 0.192 0.67 0.033 0.181 0.63 0.035 0.191 0.66 0.034 0.194 0.67 0.015 0.096 0.33 0.035 0.194 0.67 0.047 0.272 0.94 0.036 0.204 0.71 0.062 0.350 1.21 0.055 0.337 1.17 0.035 0.195 0.68

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of the term structure (CIR), for instance, posits that movements in yields should be proportional to the square root of the yield level: σ

冢 冣

⌬y ⳱ constant 冪y

(13.6)

Thus neither the normal nor the lognormal model is totally appropriate. Finally, correlations are very high across continental European bond markets that are part of the euro. For example, the correlation between French and German bonds is above 0.975. These markets are now moving in synchronization, as monetary policy is dictated by the European Central Bank (ECB). Eurozone bonds only differ in terms of credit risk. Otherwise, correlations across other bond markets are in the range of 0.00 to 0.50. The correlation between US and yen bonds is very small; US and German bonds have a correlation close to 0.71.

13.2.5

Real Yield Risk

So far, the analysis has only considered nominal interest rate risk, as most bonds represent obligations in nominal terms, i.e. in dollars for the coupon and principal payment. Recently, however, many countries have issued inﬂation-protected bonds, which make payments that are ﬁxed in real terms but indexed to the rate of inﬂation. In this case, the source of risk is real interest rate risk. This real yield can be viewed as the internal rate of return that will make the discounted value of promised real bond payments equal to the current real price. This is a new source of risk, as movements in real interest rates may not correlate perfectly with movements in nominal yields.

Example: Real and Nominal Yields Consider for example the 10-year Treasury Inﬂation Protected (TIP) note paying a 3% coupon in real terms. coupons are paid semiannually. The actual coupon and principal payments are indexed to the increase in Consumer Price Index (CPI). The TIP is now trading at a clean real price of 108-23+. Discounting the coupon payments and the principal gives a real yield of r ⳱ 1.98%. Note that since the bond is trading at a premium, the real yield must be lower than the coupon. Projecting the rate of inﬂation at π ⳱ 2%, semiannually compounded, we infer the projected nominal yield as (1 Ⳮ y 冫 200) ⳱ (1 Ⳮ r 冫 200)(1 Ⳮ π 冫 200), which gives 4.00%. This is the same order of magnitude as the current nominal yield on the

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10-year Treasury note, which is 3.95%. The two bonds have a very different risk proﬁle, however. If the rate of inﬂation is 5% instead of 2%, the TIP will pay approximately 5% plus 2%, while the yield on the regular note is predetermined. Example 13-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 42/Market Risk 13-6. What is the relationship between yield on the current inﬂation-proof bond issued by the U.S. Treasury and a standard Treasury bond with similar terms? a) The yields should be about the same. b) The yield of the inﬂation bond should be approximately the yield on the treasury minus the real interest. c) The yield of the inﬂation bond should be approximately the yield on the treasury plus the real interest. d) None of the above is correct.

13.2.6

Credit Spread Risk

Credit spread risk is the risk that yields on duration-matched credit-sensitive bond and Treasury bonds could move differently. The topic of credit risk will be analyzed in more detail in the “Credit Risk” section of this book. Sufﬁce to say that the credit spread represent a compensation for the loss due to default, plus perhaps a risk premium that reﬂects investor risk aversion. A position in a credit spread can be established by investing in credit-sensitive bonds, such as corporates, agencies, mortgage-backed securities (MBSs), and shorting Treasuries with the appropriate duration. This type of position beneﬁts from a stable or shrinking credit spread, but loses from a widening of spreads. Because credit spreads cannot turn negative, their distribution is asymmetric, however. When spreads are tight, large moves imply increases in spreads rather than decreases. Thus positions in credit spreads can be exposed to large losses. Figure 13-6 displays the time-series of credit spreads since 1960. The graph shows that credit spreads display cyclical patterns, increasing during a recession and decreasing during economic expansions. Greater spreads during recessions reﬂect the greater number of defaults during difﬁcult times. Because credit spreads cannot turn negative, their distribution is asymmetric. When spreads are tight, large moves are typically increases, rather than decreases.

13.2.7

Prepayment Risk

Prepayment risk arises in the context of home mortgages when there is uncertainty

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FIGURE 13-6 Credit Spreads Credit spread (% pa) 4

3

2

1 Shaded areas indicate recessions 0 1960

1970

1980

1990

2000

about whether the homeowner will reﬁnance his loan early. It is a prominent feature of mortgage-backed securities the investor has granted the borrower an option to repay the debt early. This option, however, is much more complex than an ordinary option, due to the multiplicity of factors involved. We have seen in Chapter 7 that it depends on the age of the loan (seasoning), the current level of interest rates, the previous path of interest rates (burnout), economic activity, and seasonal patterns. Assuming that the prepayment model adequately captures all these features, investors can evaluate the attractiveness of MBSs by calculating their option-adjusted spread (OAS). This represents the spread over the equivalent Treasury minus the cost of the option component. Example 13-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 71/Market Risk 13-7. An investor holds mortgage interest-only strips (IO) backed by Fannie Mae 7 percent coupon. She wants to hedge this position by shorting Treasury interest strips off the 10-year on-the-run. The curve steepens as the 1-month rate drops, while the 6-month to 10-year rates remain stable. What will be the effect on the value of this portfolio? a) Both the IO and the hedge will appreciate in value. b) The IO and the hedge value will be almost unchanged (a very small appreciation is possible). c) The change in value of both the IO and hedge cannot be determined without additional details. d) The IO will depreciate, but the hedge will appreciate.

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Example 13-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 73/Market Risk 13-8. A fund manager attempting to beat his LIBOR-based funding costs, holds pools of adjustable rate mortgages (ARMs) and is considering various strategies to lower the risk. Which of the following strategies will not lower the risk? a) Enter into a total rate of return swap swapping the ARMs for LIBOR plus a spread. b) Short U.S. government Treasuries. c) Sell caps based on the projected rate of mortgage paydown. d) All of the above.

13.3

Equity Risk

AM FL Y

Equity risk arises from potential movements in the value of stock prices. We will show that we can usefully decompose the total risk into a marketwide risk and stockspeciﬁc risk.

13.3.1

Stock Market Volatility

TE

Table 13-6 compares the RiskMetrics volatility forecasts for a group of 31 stock markets. The selected indices are those most recognized in each market, for example the S&P 500 in the US, Nikkei 225 in Japan, and FTSE-100 in Britain. Most of these have an associated futures contract, so positions can be taken in cash markets or, equivalently, in futures. Nearly all of these indices are weighted by market capitalization. We immediately note that risk is much greater than for currencies, typically ranging from 12 to 40 percent. Emerging markets have higher volatility. These markets are less diversiﬁed and are exposed to greater ﬂuctuations in economic fundamentals. Concentration refers to the proportion of the index due to the biggest stocks. In Finland, for instance, half of the index represents one ﬁrm only, Nokia. This lack of diversiﬁcation invariably creates more volatility.

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TABLE 13-6 Stock Market Code Country Argentina ARS Austria ATS Australia AUD Belgium BEF Canada CAD Switzerland CHF Germany DEM Denmark DKK Spain ESP Finland FIM France FRF Britain GBP Hong Kong HKD Indonesia IDR Ireland IEP Italy ITL Japan JPY Korea KRW Mexico MXN Malaysia MYR Netherlands NLG Norway NOK New Zealand NZD Philippines PHP Portugal PTE Sweden SEK Singapore SGD Thailand THB Taiwan TWD U.S. USD South Africa ZAR

Equity Volatility (Percent) End 2002 End 1996 Daily Monthly Annual Annual 1.921 10.06 34.8 22.1 0.771 4.17 14.4 11.7 0.662 3.58 12.4 13.4 1.453 8.41 29.1 9.3 0.841 5.09 17.6 13.8 1.401 8.34 28.9 11.1 2.576 13.89 48.1 18.6 1.062 6.77 23.5 12.5 1.497 8.81 30.5 15.0 1.790 10.65 36.9 14.5 1.691 10.59 36.7 16.1 1.498 8.41 29.1 11.1 1.007 5.57 19.3 17.3 1.218 7.45 25.8 14.4 1.081 6.53 22.6 10.0 1.575 9.07 31.4 17.0 1.299 7.18 24.9 19.9 1.861 9.40 32.6 25.5 0.925 5.87 20.3 17.5 0.709 3.81 13.2 12.7 1.911 11.55 40.0 14.8 1.160 6.80 23.5 13.3 0.480 2.79 9.7 10.1 0.807 4.49 15.6 16.2 0.879 5.82 20.2 6.9 1.612 9.91 34.3 16.9 0.817 4.72 16.4 11.9 0.680 4.39 15.2 29.7 1.317 7.72 26.7 15.3 1.214 7.42 25.7 12.9 0.023 0.72 2.5 11.9

Example 13-9: FRM Exam 1997----Question 43/Market Risk 13-9. Which of the following statements about the S&P 500 index is true? I. The index is calculated using market prices as weights. II. The implied volatilities of options of the same maturity on the index are different. III. The stocks used in calculating the index remain the same for each year. IV. The S&P 500 represents only the 500 largest U.S. corporations. a) II only b) I and II only c) II and III only d) III and IV only

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Forwards and Futures

The forward or futures price on a stock index or individual stock can be expressed as Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St e⫺yτ

(13.7)

where e⫺r τ is the present value factor in the base currency and e⫺yτ is the discounted value of dividends. For the stock index, this is usually approximated by the dividend yield y , which is taken to be paid continuously as there are many stocks in the index (even though dividend payments may be “lumpy” over the quarter). For an individual stock, we can write the right-hand side as St e⫺yτ ⳱ St ⫺ I , where I is the present value of dividend payments. Example 13-10: FRM Exam 1997----Question 44/Market Risk 13-10. A trader runs a cash and future arbitrage book on the S&P 500 index. Which of the following are the major risk factors? I. Interest rate II. Foreign exchange III. Equity price IV. Dividend assumption risk a) I and II only b) I and III only c) I, III, and IV only d) I, II, III, and IV

13.4

Commodity Risk

Commodity risk arises from potential movements in the value of commodity contracts, which include agricultural products, metals, and energy products.

13.4.1

Commodity Volatility Risk

Table 13-7 displays the volatility of the commodity contracts currently covered by the RiskMetrics system. These can be grouped into base metals (aluminum, copper, nickel, zinc), precious metals (gold, platinum, silver), and energy products (natural gas, heating oil, unleaded gasoline, crude oil–West Texas Intermediate). Among base metals, spot volatility ranged from 13 to 28 percent per annum in 2002, on the same order of magnitude as equity markets. Precious metals are in the

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TABLE 13-7 Commodity Volatility (Percent) Commodity Term Aluminium, spot 3-month 15-month 27-month Copper, spot 3-month 15-month 27-month Nickel, spot 3-month 15-month Zinc, spot 3-month 15-month 27-month Gold, spot Platinum, spot Silver, spot Natural gas, 1m 3-month 15-month 27-month Heating oil, 1m 3-month 6-month 12-month Unleaded gas, 1m 3-month 6-month Crude oil, 1m 3-month 5-month 12-month

Code ALU.C00 ALU.C03 ALU.C15 ALU.C27 COP.C00 COP.C03 COP.C15 COP.C27 NIC.C00 NIC.C03 NIC.C15 ZNC.C00 ZNC.C03 ZNC.C15 ZNC.C27 GLD.C00 PLA.C00 SLV.C00 GAS.C01 GAS.C03 GAS.C06 GAS.C12 HTO.C01 HTO.C03 HTO.C06 HTO.C12 UNL.C01 UNL.C03 UNL.C06 WTI.C01 WTI.C03 WTI.C06 WTI.C12

Daily 0.702 0.621 0.528 0.493 0.850 0.824 0.788 0.736 1.451 1.392 1.202 1.118 1.060 0.895 0.841 0.969 0.811 1.095 2.882 2.846 1.343 1.145 2.196 1.905 1.489 1.284 2.859 2.132 1.665 2.147 1.885 1.621 1.296

End 2002 Monthly Annual 3.85 13.3 3.46 12.0 2.99 10.3 2.72 9.4 4.45 15.4 4.30 14.9 4.04 14.0 3.84 13.3 8.11 28.1 7.78 27.0 7.07 24.5 5.56 19.3 5.22 18.1 4.41 15.3 4.11 14.2 4.41 15.3 4.54 15.7 5.12 17.7 15.66 54.3 13.56 47.0 7.62 26.4 6.48 22.5 10.39 36.0 9.24 32.0 7.46 25.9 6.07 21.0 14.08 48.8 9.85 34.1 8.01 27.7 10.11 35.0 8.87 30.7 7.54 26.1 6.02 20.8

End 1996 Annual 16.8 15.8 13.9 13.5 35.4 24.9 21.5 22.7 22.7 22.1 22.7 12.4 11.5 11.6 13.1 5.5 6.5 18.1 95.8 55.2 34.4 25.7 34.4 26.2 23.5 22.7 31.0 26.2 23.5 32.8 29.6 28.1 28.9

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same range. Energy products, in contrast, are much more volatile with numbers ranging from 35 to a high of 53 percent per annum in 2002. This is due to the fact that energy products are less storable than metals and, as a result, are much more affected by variations in demand and supply.

13.4.2

Forwards and Futures

The forward or futures price on a commodity can be expressed as Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St e⫺yτ

(13.8)

where e⫺r τ is the present value factor in the base currency and e⫺yτ includes a convenience yield y (net of storage cost). This represents an implicit ﬂow beneﬁt from holding the commodity, as was explained in Chapter 6. While this convenience yield is conceptually similar to that of a dividend yield on a stock index, it cannot be measured as regular income. Rather, it should be viewed as a “plug-in” that, given F , S , and e⫺r τ , will make Equation (13.8) balance. Further, it can be quite volatile. As Table 13-7 shows, forward prices for all these commodities are less volatile for longer maturities. This decreasing term structure of volatility is more marked for energy products and less so for base metals. Forward prices are not reported for precious metals. Their low storage costs and no convenience yields implies stable volatilities across contract maturities, as for currency forwards. In terms of risk management, movements in futures prices are much less tightly related to spot prices than for ﬁnancial contracts. This is illustrated in Table 13-8, which displays correlations for copper contracts (spot, 3-, 15-, 27-month) as well as for natural gas and crude oil contracts (1-, 3-, 6-, 12-month). For copper, the cash/15month correlation is 0.995. For natural gas and oil, the 1-month/12-month correlation is 0.575 and 0.787, respectively. These are much lower numbers. Thus variations in the basis are much more important for energy products than for ﬁnancial products, or even metals. This is conﬁrmed by Figure 13-7, which compares the spot and futures prices for crude oil. Recall that the graph describing stock index futures in Chapter 5 showed the future to be systematically above, and converging to, the cash price. Here the picture is totally different. There is much more variation in the basis between the spot and futures prices for crude oil. The market switches from backwardation (S ⬎ F ) to contango (S ⬍ F ). As a result, the futures contract represents a separate risk factor.

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TABLE 13-8 Correlations across Maturities Copper COP.C00 COP.C03 COP.C15 COP.C27 Nat.Gas GAS.C01 GAS.C03 GAS.C06 GAS.C12 Crude Oil WTI.C01 WTI.C03 WTI.C06 WTI.C12

COP.C00 1 .999 .995 .992 GAS.C01 1 .860 .718 .575 WTI.C01 1 .960 .904 .787

COP.C03

COP.C15

COP.C27

1 .995 .993 GAS.C03

1 .998 GAS.C06

1 GAS.C12

1 .734 .445 WTI.C03

1 .852 WTI.C06

1 WTI.C12

1 .973 .871

1 .954

1

FIGURE 13-7 Futures and Spot for Crude Oil $35

Price ($/barrel)

$30 Cash $25 Futures $20

$15 –500

13.4.3

–400

–300 –200 Days to expiration

–100

0

Delivery and Liquidity Risk

In addition to traditional market sources of risk, positions in commodity futures are also exposed to delivery and liquidity risks. Asset liquidity risk is due to the relative low volume in some of these markets, relative to other ﬁnancial products. Also, taking delivery or having to deliver on a futures contract that is carried to expiration is costly. Transportation, storage and insurance costs can be quite high.

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Futures delivery also requires complying with the type and location of the commodity that is to be delivered. Example 13-11: FRM Exam 1997----Question 12/Market Risk 13-11. Which of the following products should have the highest expected volatility? a) Crude oil b) Gold c) Japanese Treasury Bills d) EUR/CHF Example 13-12: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Market Risk 13-12. Identify the major risks of being short $50 million of gold two weeks forward and being long $50 million of gold one year forward. I. Gold liquidity squeeze II. Spot risk III. Gold lease rate risk IV. USD interest rate risk a) II only b) I, II, and III only c) I, III, and IV only d) I, II, III, and IV

13.5

Risk Simpliﬁcation

The fundamental idea behind modern risk measurement methods is to aggregate the portfolio risk at the highest level. In practice, it would be too complex to model each of them individually. Instead, some simpliﬁcation is required, such as the diagonal model proposed by Professor William Sharpe. This was initially applied to stocks, but the methodology can be used in any market.

13.5.1

Diagonal Model

The diagonal model starts with a statistical decomposition of the return on stock i into a marketwide return and an idiosyncratic risk. The diagonal model adds the assumption that all speciﬁc risks are uncorrelated. Hence, any correlation across two stocks must come from the joint effect of the market.

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We decompose the return on stock i , Ri , into a constant; a component due to the market, RM , through a “beta” coefﬁcient; and some residual risk: Ri ⳱ αi Ⳮ βi ⫻ RM Ⳮ i

(13.9)

where βi is called systematic risk of stock i . It is also the regression slope ratio: βi ⳱

σ (Ri ) Cov[Ri , RM ] ⳱ ρiM V [RM ] σ (RM )

(13.10)

Note that the residual is uncorrelated with RM by assumption. The contribution of William Sharpe was to show that equilibrium in capital markets imposes restrictions on the αi . If we redeﬁne returns in excess of the risk-free rate, Rf , we have E (Ri ) ⫺ Rf ⳱ 0 Ⳮ βi [E (RM ) ⫺ Rf ]

(13.11)

This relationship is also known as the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). So, αs should be zero in equilibrium. The CAPM is based on equilibrium in capital markets, which requires that the demand for securities from risk-averse investors matches the available supply. It also assumes that asset returns have a normal distribution. When these conditions are satisﬁed, the CAPM predicts a relationship between αi and the factor exposure βi : αi ⳱ Rf (1 ⫺ βi ). A major problem with this theory is that it may not be testable unless the “market” is exactly identiﬁed. For risk managers, who primarily focus on risk instead of expected returns, however, this is of little importance. What matters is the simpliﬁcation bought by the diagonal model. Consider a portfolio that consists of positions wi on the various assets. We have N

Rp ⳱

冱 wi Ri

(13.12)

i ⳱1

Using Equation (13.9), the portfolio return is also N

Rp ⳱

冱

(wi αi Ⳮ wi βi RM Ⳮ wi i ) ⳱ αp Ⳮ βp RM Ⳮ

i ⳱1

N

冱(wi i )

(13.13)

i ⳱1

Such decomposition is useful for performance attribution. Suppose a stock portfolio returns 10% over the last year. How can we tell if the portfolio manager is doing a good job? We need to know the performance of the overall stock market, as well as

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the portfolio beta. Suppose the market went up by 8%, and the portfolio beta is 1.1. portfolio alpha. Taking expected values, we ﬁnd E (Rp ) ⳱ αp Ⳮ βp E (RM )

(13.14)

The portfolio “alpha” is αp ⳱ 10% ⫺ 1.1 ⫻ 8% ⳱ 1.2%. In this case, the active manager provided value added. More generally, we could have additional risk factors. Performance attribution is the process of decomposing the total return on various sources of risk, with the objective of identifying the value added of active management.3 We now turn to the use of the diagonal model for risk simpliﬁcation, and ignore the intercept in what follows. The portfolio variance is V [Rp ] ⳱ β2p V [RM ] Ⳮ

N

冱 冸wi2V [i ]冹

(13.15)

i ⳱1

since all the residual terms are uncorrelated. Suppose that, for simplicity, the portfolio is equally weighted and that the residual variances are all the same V [i ] ⳱ V . This implies wi ⳱ w ⳱ 1冫 N . As the number of assets, N , increases, the second term will tend to N

冱 冸wi2V [i ]冹 y N ⫻ [(1冫 N )2V ] ⳱ (V 冫 N )

(13.16)

i ⳱1

which should vanish as N increases. In this situation, the only remaining risk is the general market risk, consisting of the beta squared times the variance of the market. Next, we can derive the covariance between any two stocks 2 Cov[Ri , Rj ] ⳱ Cov[βi RM Ⳮ i , βj RM Ⳮ j ] ⳱ βi βj σM

(13.17)

using the assumption that the residual components are uncorrelated with each other and with the market. Also, the variance of a stock is 2 2 Cov[Ri , Ri ] ⳱ βi2 σM Ⳮ σ,i

(13.18)

The covariance matrix is then 2 Ⳮσ2 β21 σM ,1 .. ⌺⳱ . 2 βN β1 σM

2 β1 β2 σM

...

2 β1 βN σM

2 βN β2 σM

...

2 σ2 Ⳮσ2 βN M ,N

3

This process can also be used to detect timing ability, which consists of adding value by changing exposure on risk factors and security selection ability, which adds value beyond exposures on major risk factors.

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which can also be written as 2 σ, β1 1 2 . . . ⌺ ⳱ . [β1 . . . βN ]σM Ⳮ .. βN 0

... ...

0 .. .

2 σ,N

Using matrix notation, we have 2 ⌺ ⳱ ββ⬘σM Ⳮ D

(13.19)

This consists of N elements in the vector β, of N elements on the diagonal of the matrix D , plus the variance of the market itself. The diagonal model reduces the number of parameters from N ⫻ (N Ⳮ 1)冫 2 to 2N Ⳮ 1, a considerable improvement. For example, with 100 assets the number is reduced from 5,050 to 201. In summary, this diagonal model substantially simpliﬁes the risk structure of an equity portfolio. Risk managers can proceed in two steps: ﬁrst, managing the overall market risk of the portfolios, and second, managing the concentration risk of individual securities.

13.5.2

Factor Models

Still, this one-factor model could miss common effects among groups of stocks, such as industry effects. To account for these, Equation (13.9) can be generalized to K factors Ri ⳱ αi Ⳮ βi 1 y1 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ βiK yK Ⳮ i

(13.20)

where y1 , . . . , yK are the factors, which are assumed independent of each other for simpliﬁcation. The covariance matrix generalizes Equation (13.19) to ⌺ ⳱ β1 β1⬘ σ12 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ βK βK ⬘ σK2 Ⳮ D

(13.21)

The number of parameters is now (N ⫻ K Ⳮ K Ⳮ N ). For example, with 100 assets and ﬁve factors, this number is 605, which is still much lower than 5,050 for the unrestricted model. As in the case of the CAPM, the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT), developed by Professor Stephen Ross, shows that there is a relationship between αi and the factor exposures. The theory does not rely on equilibrium but simply on the assumption that there should be no arbitrage opportunities in capital markets, a much weaker requirement. It does not even need the factor model to hold strictly; instead, it requires

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only that the residual risk is very small. This must be the case if a sufﬁcient number of common factors is identiﬁed and in a well-diversiﬁed portfolio. The APT model does not require the market to be identiﬁed, which is an advantage. Like the CAPM, however, tests of this model are ambiguous since the theory provides no guidance as to what the factors should be.

Fixed-Income Portfolio Risk

TE

13.5.3

AM FL Y

Example 13-13: FRM Exam 1998----Question 62/Capital Markets 13-13. In comparing CAPM and APT, which of the following advantages does APT have over CAPM: I. APT makes less restrictive assumptions about investor preferences toward risk and return. II. APT makes no assumption about the distribution of security returns. III. APT does not rely on the identiﬁcation of the true market portfolio, and so the theory is potentially testable. a) I only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) I, II, and III

As an example of portfolio simpliﬁcation, we turn to the analysis of a corporate bond portfolio with N individual bonds. Each “name” is potentially a source of risk. Instead of modelling all securities, the risk manager should attempt to simplify the risk proﬁle of the portfolio. Potential major risk factors are movements in a set of J Treasury zerocoupon rates, zj , and in K credit spreads, sk , sorted by credit rating. The goal is to provide a good approximation to the risk of the portfolio. In addition, it is not practical to model the risk of all bonds. The bonds may not have a sufﬁcient history. Even if they do, the history may not be relevant if it does not account for the probability of default. In all cases, risk is best modelled by focusing on yields instead of prices. We model the movement in each corporate bond yield yi by a movement in the Treasury factor zj at the closest maturity and in the credit rating sk class to which it belongs. The remaining component is i , which is assumed to be independent across i . We have yi ⳱ zj Ⳮ sk Ⳮ i . This decomposition is illustrated in Figure 13-8 for a corporate bond rated BBB with a 20-year maturity.

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FIGURE 13-8 Yield Decomposition Yields z+s + ε

Specific bond

z+s

BBB

z

Treasuries

3M 1Y

5

10Y

20Y

30Y

The movement in the bond price is ⌬Pi ⳱ ⫺DVBPi ⌬yi ⳱ ⫺DVBPi ⌬zj ⫺ DVBPi ⌬sk ⫺ DVBPi ⌬i where DVBP ⳱ DV01 is the total dollar value of a basis point for the associated risk factor. We hold ni units of this bond. Summing across the portfolio and collecting terms across the common risk factors, the portfolio price movement is J

N

⌬V ⳱ ⫺

冱 i ⳱1

ni DVBPi ⌬yi ⳱ ⫺

冱

j ⳱1

DVBPzj ⌬zj ⫺

K

冱

k⳱1

DVBPsk ⌬sk ⫺

N

冱 ni DVBPi ⌬i

(13.22)

i ⳱1

where DVBPzj results from the summation of ni DVBPi for all bonds that are exposed to the j th maturity. The total variance can be decomposed into N

V (⌬V ) ⳱ General Risk Ⳮ

冱 ni2 DVBPi2 V (⌬i )

(13.23)

i ⳱1

If the portfolio is well diversiﬁed, the general risk term should dominate. So, we could simply ignore the second term. Ignoring speciﬁc risk, a portfolio composed of thousands of securities can be characterized by its exposure to just a few government maturities and credit spreads. This is a considerable simpliﬁcation.

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 13-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Market Risk b) From the table. Among ﬂoating exchange rates, the USD/CAD has low volatility. Example 13-2: FRM Exam 1997–Question 14/Market Risk d) The logs of JPY/EUR and EUR/USD add up to that of JPY/USD: ln[JPY冫 USD] ⳱ ln[JPY冫 eur] Ⳮ ln[eur冫 USD]. So, σ 2 (JPY冫 USD) ⳱ σ 2 (JPY冫 EUR) Ⳮ σ 2 (EUR冫 USDD ) Ⳮ 2ρσ (JPY冫 EUR)σ (EUR冫 USDD ), or 82 ⳱ 102 Ⳮ 62 Ⳮ 2ρ 10 ⫻ 6, or 2ρ 10 ⫻ 6 ⳱ ⫺72, or ρ ⳱ ⫺0.60. Example 13-3: FRM Exam 1999–Question 86/Market Risk d) Historical yield volatility is more stable than price risk for a speciﬁc bond. Example 13-4: FRM Exam 1999–Question 80/Market Risk c) (Lengthy.) Assuming normally distributed returns, the 95% worst loss for the bond can be found from the yield volatility and Equation (13.4). First, we compute the gross market value of the position, which is P ⳱ $20, 000, 000 ⫻ (98 Ⳮ 8冫 32Ⳮ1.43)冫 100 ⳱ $19, 936, 000. Next, we compute the daily yield volatility, which is σ (⌬y ) ⳱ yσ ANNUAL (⌬y 冫 y )冫 冪250 ⳱ 0.06509 ⫻ 0.12冫 冪250 ⳱ 0.000494. The bond’s VAR is then VAR ⳱ D ⴱ ⫻ P ⫻ 1.64485 ⫻ σ (⌬y ), or VAR ⳱ 12.719 ⫻ $19, 936, 000 ⫻ 1.64485 ⫻ 0.000494 ⳱ $206, 036. Note that it is important to use an accurate value for the normal deviate. Using an approximation, such as α ⳱ 1.645, will give a wrong answer, (d) in this case. Example 13-5: FRM Exam 2000–Question 96/Market Risk d) Most of the movements in yields can be explained by a single-factor model, or parallel moves. Once this effect is taken into account, short-term yields move more than long-term yields, so that (a) and (b) are wrong. Example 13-6: FRM Exam 1997–Question 42/Market Risk d) The yield on the inﬂation-protected bond is a real yield, or nominal yield minus expected inﬂation.

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Example 13-7: FRM Exam 1999 – Question 71/Market Risk b) If most of the term structure is unaffected, the hedge will not change in value given that it is driven by 10-year yields. Also, there will be little change in reﬁnancing. For the IO, the slight decrease in the short-term discount rate will increase the present value of short-term cash ﬂows, but the effect is small. Example 13-8: FRM Exam 1999 – Question 73/Market Risk c) The TR swap will eliminate all market risk; shorting Treasuries protects against interest rate risk; since the ARM is already short options, the manager should be buying caps, not selling them. Example 13-9: FRM Exam 1997– Question 43/Market Risk a) The “smile” effect represents different implied vols for the same maturity, so that (II) is correct. Otherwise, the index is computed using market values, number of shares times price, so that (I) is wrong. The stocks are selected by Standard and Poor’s but are not always the largest ones. Finally, the stocks in the index are regularly changed. Example 13-10 FRM Exam 1997 – Question 44/Market Risk c) The futures price is a function of the spot price, interest rate, and dividend yield. Example 13-11: FRM Exam 1997 – Question 12/Market Risk a) From comparing Tables 13-1, 13-6, 13-7. The volatility of crude oil, at around 35% per annum, is the highest. Example 13-12: FRM Exam 1997 – Question 23/Market Risk c) There is no spot risk since the two contracts have offsetting exposure to the spot rate. There is, however, basis risk (lease rate and interest rate) and liquidity risk. Example 13-13: FRM Exam 1998 – Question 62/Capital Markets d) The CAPM assumes that returns are normally distributed and that markets are in equilibrium. In other words, the demand from mean-variance optimizers must be equal to the supply. In contrast, the APT simply assumes that returns are driven by a factor model with a small number of factors, whose risk can be eliminated through arbitrage. So, the APT is less restrictive, does not assume that returns are normally distributed, and does not rely on the identiﬁcation of the true market portfolio.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 14 Hedging Linear Risk Risk that has been measured can be managed. This chapter turns to the active management of market risks. The traditional approach to market risk management is hedging. Hedging consists of taking positions that lower the risk proﬁle of the portfolio. The techniques for hedging have been developed in the futures markets, where farmers, for instance, use ﬁnancial instruments to hedge the price risk of their products. This implementation of hedging is quite narrow, however. Its objective is to ﬁnd the optimal position in a futures contract that minimizes the variance of the total position. This is a special case of minimizing the VAR of a portfolio with two assets, an inventory and a “hedging” instrument. Here, the hedging position is ﬁxed and the value of the hedging instrument is linearly related to the underlying asset. More generally, we can distinguish between Static hedging, which consists of putting on, and leaving, a position until the hedging horizon. This is appropriate if the hedge instrument is linearly related to the underlying asset price. Dynamic hedging, which consists of continuously rebalancing the portfolio to the horizon. This can create a risk proﬁle similar to positions in options. Dynamic hedging is associated with options, which will be examined in the next chapter. Since options have nonlinear payoffs in the underlying asset, the hedge ratio, which can be viewed as the slope of the tangent to the payoff function, must be readjusted as the price moves. In general, hedging will create hedge slippage, or basis risk. This can be measured by unexpected changes in the value of the hedged portfolio. Basis risk arises when changes in payoffs on the hedging instrument do not perfectly offset changes in the value of the underlying position. Obviously, if the objective of hedging is to lower volatility, hedging will eliminate downside risk but also any upside in the position. the objective of hedging is to lower

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risk, not to make proﬁts. Whether hedging is beneﬁcial should be examined in the context of the trade-off between risk and return. This chapter discusses linear hedging. A particularly important application is hedging with futures. Section 14.1 presents an introduction to futures hedging with a unit hedge ratio. Section 14.2 then turns to a general method for ﬁnding the optimal hedge ratio. This method is applied in Section 14.3 for hedging bonds and equities.

14.1

Introduction to Futures Hedging

14.1.1

Unitary Hedging

Consider the situation of a U.S. exporter who has been promised a payment of 125 million Japanese yen in seven months. The perfect hedge would be to enter a 7-month forward contract over-the-counter (OTC). This OTC contract, however, may not be very liquid. Instead, the exporter decides to turn to an exchange-traded futures contract, which can be bought or sold more easily. The Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME) lists yen contracts with face amount of Y12,500,000 that expire in 9 months. The exporter places an order to sell 10 contracts, with the intention of reversing the position in 7 months, when the contract will still have 2 months to maturity.1 Because the amount sold is the same as the underlying, this is called a unitary hedge. Table 14-1 describes the initial and ﬁnal conditions for the contract. At each date, the futures price is determined by interest parity. Suppose that the yen depreciates sharply, leading to a loss on the anticipated cash position of Y125, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.006667 ⫺ 0.00800) ⳱ ⫺$166,667. This loss, however, is offset by a gain on the futures, which is (⫺10) ⫻ Y12.5, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.006711 ⫺ 0.00806) ⳱ $168,621. This creates a very small gain of $1,954. Overall, the exporter has been hedged. This example shows that futures hedging can be quite effective, removing the effect of ﬂuctuations in the risk factor. Deﬁne Q as the amount of yen transacted and 1

In practice, if the liquidity of long-dated contracts is not adequate, the exporter could use nearby contracts and roll them over prior to expiration into the next contracts. When there are multiple exposures, this practice is known as a stack hedge. Another type of hedge is the strip hedge, which involves hedging the exposures with a number of different contracts. While a stack hedge has superior liquidity, it also entails greater basis risk than a strip hedge. Hedgers must decide whether the greater liquidity of a stack hedge is worth the additional basis risk.

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TABLE 14-1 A Futures Hedge Item Market Data: Maturity (months) US interest rate Yen interest rate Spot (Y/$) Futures (Y/$) Contract Data: Spot ($/Y) Futures ($/Y) Basis ($/Y)

Initial Time

Exit Time

Gain or Loss

9 6% 5% Y125.00 Y124.07

2 6% 2% Y150.00 Y149.00

0.008000 0.008060

0.006667 0.006711

⫺$166,667 $168,621

⫺0.000060

⫺0.000045

$1,954

S and F as the spot and futures rates, indexed by 1 at the initial time and by 2 at the exit time. The P&L on the unhedged transaction is Q [S 2 ⫺ S 1 ]

(14.1)

Instead, the hedged proﬁt is Q[(S2 ⫺ S1 ) ⫺ (F2 ⫺ F1 )] ⳱ Q[(S2 ⫺ F2 ) ⫺ (S1 ⫺ F1 )] ⳱ Q[b2 ⫺ b1 ]

(14.2)

where b ⳱ S ⫺ F is the basis. The hedged proﬁt only depends on the movement in the basis. Hence the effect of hedging is to transform price risk into basis risk. A short hedge position is said to be long the basis, since it beneﬁts from an increase in the basis. In this case, the basis risk is minimal for a number of reasons. First, the cash and futures correspond to the same asset. Second, the cash-and-carry relationship holds very well for currencies. Third, the remaining maturity at exit is rather short.

14.1.2

Basis Risk

Basis risk arises when the characteristics of the futures contract differ from those of the underlying position. Futures contracts are standardized to a particular grade, say West Texas Intermediate (WTI) for oil futures traded on the NYMEX. This deﬁnes the grade of crude oil deliverable against the contract. A hedger, however, may have a position in a different grade, which may not be perfectly correlated with WTI.

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Thus basis risk is the uncertainty whether the cash-futures spread will widen or narrow during the hedging period. Hedging can be effective, however, if movements in the basis are dominated by movements in cash markets. For most commodities, basis risk is inevitable. Organized exchanges strive to create enough trading and liquidity in their listed contracts, which requires standardization. Speculators also help to increase trading volumes and provide market liquidity. Thus there is a trade-off between liquidity and basis risk. Basis risk is higher with cross-hedging, which involves using a futures on a totally different asset or commodity than the cash position. For instance, a U.S. exporter who is due to receive a payment in Norwegian Kroner (NK) could hedge using a futures contract on the $/euro exchange rate. Relative to the dollar, the euro and the NK should behave similarly, but there is still some basis risk. Basis risk is lowest when the underlying position and the futures correspond to the same asset. Even so, some basis risk remains because of differing maturities. As we have seen in the yen hedging example, the maturity of the futures contract is 9 instead of 7 months. As a result, the liquidation price of the futures is uncertain. Figure 14-1 describes the various time components for a hedge using T-bond futures. The ﬁrst component is the maturity of the underlying bond, say 20 years. The second component is the time to futures expiration, say 9 months. The third component is the hedge horizon, say 7 months. Basis risk occurs when the hedge horizon does not match the time to futures expiration.

FIGURE 14-1 Hedging Horizon and Contract Maturity

Now

Hedge horizon

Sell futures

Buy futures

Futures expiration

Maturity of underlying T-bond

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Example 14-1: FRM Exam 2000----Question 78/Market Risk 14-1. What feature of cash and futures prices tends to make hedging possible? a) They always move together in the same direction and by the same amount. b) They move in opposite directions by the same amount. c) They tend to move together generally in the same direction and by the same amount. d) They move in the same direction by different amounts. Example 14-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 17/Capital Markets 14-2. Which one of the following statements is most correct? a) When holding a portfolio of stocks, the portfolio’s value can be fully hedged by purchasing a stock index futures contract. b) Speculators play an important role in the futures market by providing the liquidity that makes hedging possible and assuming the risk that hedgers are trying to eliminate. c) Someone generally using futures contracts for hedging does not bear the basis risk. d) Cross hedging involves an additional source of basis risk because the asset being hedged is exactly the same as the asset underlying the futures. Example 14-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 79/Market Risk 14-3. Under which scenario is basis risk likely to exist? a) A hedge (which was initially matched to the maturity of the underlying) is lifted before expiration. b) The correlation of the underlying and the hedge vehicle is less than one and their volatilities are unequal. c) The underlying instrument and the hedge vehicle are dissimilar. d) All of the above are correct.

14.2

Optimal Hedging

The previous section gave an example of a unit hedge, where the amounts transacted are identical in the two markets. In general, this is not appropriate. We have to decide how much of the hedging instrument to transact. Consider a situation where a portfolio manager has an inventory of carefully selected corporate bonds that should do better than their benchmark. The manager wants to guard against interest rate increases, however, over the next three months. In this situation, it would be too costly to sell the entire portfolio only to buy it back

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later. Instead, the manager can implement a temporary hedge using derivative contracts, for instance T-Bond futures. Here, we note that the only risk is price risk, as the quantity of the inventory is known. This may not always be the case, however. Farmers, for instance, have uncertainty over both prices and the size of their crop. If so, the hedging problem is substantially more complex as it involves hedging revenues, which involves analyzing demand and supply conditions.

14.2.1

The Optimal Hedge Ratio

Deﬁne ⌬S as the change in the dollar value of the inventory and ⌬F as the change in the dollar value of the one futures contract. In other markets, other reference cur-

AM FL Y

rencies would be used. The inventory, or position to be hedged, can be existing or anticipatory, that is, to be received in the future with a great degree of certainty. The manager is worried about potential movements in the value of the inventory ⌬S . If the manager goes long N futures contracts, the total change in the value of the portfolio is

TE

⌬V ⳱ ⌬S Ⳮ N ⌬F

(14.3)

One should try to ﬁnd the hedge that reduces risk to the minimum level. The variance of proﬁts is equal to

σ⌬2V ⳱ σ⌬2S Ⳮ N 2 σ⌬2F Ⳮ 2Nσ⌬S,⌬F

(14.4)

Note that volatilities are initially expressed in dollars, not in rates of return, as we attempt to stabilize dollar values. Taking the derivative with respect to N ∂σ⌬2V ⳱ 2Nσ⌬2F Ⳮ 2σ⌬S,⌬F ∂N

(14.5)

For simplicity, drop the ⌬ in the subscripts. Setting Equation (14.5) equal to zero and solving for N , we get

Nⴱ ⳱ ⫺

⌬S,⌬F SF S ⳱ ⫺ 2 ⳱ ⫺ SF 2 ⌬F F F

(14.6)

where σSF is the covariance between futures and spot price changes. Here, N ⴱ is the minimum variance hedge ratio.

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We can do more than this, though. At the optimum, we can ﬁnd the variance of proﬁts by replacing N in Equation (14.4) by N ⴱ , which gives σVⴱ2

⳱

σS2 Ⳮ

2

冢 冣 σSF σF2

σF2 Ⳮ 2

冢

冣

2 2 2 σSF σSF ⫺σSF ⫺σSF 2 2 2 ⳱ Ⳮ Ⳮ ⳱ σ σ σ ⫺ SF S S σF2 σF2 σF2 σF2

(14.7)

In practice, there is often confusion about the deﬁnition of the portfolio value and unit prices. Here S consists of the number of units (shares, bonds, bushels, gallons) times the unit price (stock price, bond price, wheat price, fuel price). It is sometimes easier to deal with unit prices and to express volatilities in terms of rates of changes in unit prices, which are unitless. Deﬁning quantities Q and unit prices s , we have S ⳱ Qs . Similarly, the notional amount of one futures contract is F ⳱ Qf f . We can then write σ⌬S ⳱ Qσ (⌬s ) ⳱ Qsσ (⌬s 冫 s ) σ⌬F ⳱ Qf σ (⌬f ) ⳱ Qf f σ (⌬f 冫 f ) σ⌬S,⌬F ⳱ ρsf [Qsσ (⌬s 冫 s )][Qf f σ (⌬f 冫 f )] Using Equation (14.6), the optimal hedge ratio N ⴱ can also be expressed as N ⴱ ⳱ ⫺ρSF

Qsσ (⌬s 冫 s ) σ (⌬s 冫 s ) Qs Q⫻s ⳱ ⫺ρSF ⳱ ⫺βsf Qf f σ (⌬f 冫 f ) σ (⌬f 冫 f ) Qf f Qf ⫻ f

(14.8)

where βsf is the coefﬁcient in the regression of ⌬s 冫 s over ⌬f 冫 f . The second term represents an adjustment factor for the size of the cash position and of the futures contract.

14.2.2

The Hedge Ratio as Regression Coefﬁcient

The optimal amount N ⴱ can be derived from the slope coefﬁcient of a regression of ⌬s 冫 s on ⌬f 冫 f : ⌬s ⌬f ⳱ α Ⳮ βsf Ⳮ s f As seen in Chapter 3, standard regression theory shows that σsf σs βsf ⳱ 2 ⳱ ρsf σ σf f

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Thus the best hedge is obtained from a regression of the (change in the) value of the inventory on the value of the hedge instrument.

Key concept: The optimal hedge is given by the negative of the beta coefﬁcient of a regression of changes in the cash value on changes in the payoff on the hedging instrument. Further, we can measure the quality of the optimal hedge ratio in terms of the amount by which we decreased the variance of the original portfolio: R2 ⳱

(σS2 ⫺ σVⴱ2 ) σS2

(14.11)

2 冫 σ 2 )冫 σ 2 ⳱ After substitution of Equation (14.7), we ﬁnd that R 2 ⳱ (σS2 ⫺ σS2 Ⳮ σSF F S 2 冫 (σ 2 σ 2 ) ⳱ ρ 2 . This unitless number is also the coefﬁcient of determination, or σSF F S SF

the percentage of variance in ⌬s 冫 s explained by the independent variable ⌬f 冫 f . Thus this regression also gives us the effectiveness of the hedge, which is measured by the proportion of variance eliminated. We can also express the volatility of the hedged position from Equation (14.7) using the R 2 as σVⴱ ⳱ σS 冪(1 ⫺ R 2 )

(14.12)

This shows that if R 2 ⳱ 1, the regression ﬁt is perfect, and the resulting portfolio has zero risk. In this situation, the portfolio has no basis risk. However, if the R 2 is very low, the hedge is not effective.

Example 14-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 86 14-4. If two securities have the same volatility and a correlation equal to -0.5, their minimum variance hedge ratio is a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 16:1

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Example 14-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 66/Market Risk 14-5. The hedge ratio is the ratio of the size of the position taken in the futures contract to the size of the exposure. Assuming the standard deviation of change of spot price is σ1 and the standard deviation of change of future price is σ2 , the correlation between the changes of spot price and future price is ρ . What is the optimal hedge ratio? a) 1冫 ρ ⫻ σ1 冫 σ2 b) 1冫 ρ ⫻ σ2 冫 σ1 c) ρ ⫻ σ1 冫 σ2 d) ρ ⫻ σ2 冫 σ1 Example 14-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 92/Market Risk 14-6. The hedge ratio is the ratio of derivatives to a spot position (or vice versa) that achieves an objective, such as minimizing or eliminating risk. Suppose that the standard deviation of quarterly changes in the price of a commodity is 0.57, the standard deviation of quarterly changes in the price of a futures contract on the commodity is 0.85, and the correlation between the two changes is 0.3876. What is the optimal hedge ratio for a three-month contract? a) 0.1893 b) 0.2135 c) 0.2381 d) 0.2599

14.2.3

Example

An airline knows that it will need to purchase 10,000 metric tons of jet fuel in three months. It wants some protection against an upturn in prices using futures contracts. The company can hedge using heating oil futures contracts traded on NYMEX. The notional for one contract is 42,000 gallons. As there is no futures contract on jet fuel, the risk manager wants to check if heating oil could provide an efﬁcient hedge instead. The current price of jet fuel is $277/metric ton. The futures price of heating oil is $0.6903/gallon. The standard deviation of the rate of change in jet fuel prices over three months is 21.17%, that of futures is 18.59%, and the correlation is 0.8243. Compute a) The notional and standard deviation of the unhedged fuel cost in dollars b) The optimal number of futures contract to buy/sell, rounded to the closest integer c) The standard deviation of the hedged fuel cost in dollars

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Answer a) The position notional is Qs = $2,770,000. The standard deviation in dollars is σ (⌬s 冫 s )sQ ⳱ 0.2117 ⫻ $277 ⫻ 10,000 ⳱ $586,409 For reference, that of one futures contract is σ (⌬f 冫 f )f Qf ⳱ 0.1859 ⫻ $0.6903 ⫻ 42,000 ⳱ $5,389.72 with a futures notional of f Qf ⳱ $0.6903 ⫻ 42,000 ⳱ $28,992.60. b) The cash position corresponds to a payment, or liability. Hence, the company will have to buy futures as protection. First, we compute beta, which is βsf ⳱ 0.8243(0.2117冫 0.1859) ⳱ 0.9387. The corresponding covariance term is σsf ⳱ 0.8243 ⫻ 0.2117 ⫻ 0.1859 ⳱ 0.03244. Adjusting for the notionals, this is σSF ⳱ 0.03244 ⫻ $2,770,000 ⫻ $28,993 ⳱ 2,605,268,452. The optimal hedge ratio is, using Equation (14.8) N ⴱ ⳱ βsf

Q⫻s 10, 000 ⫻ $277 ⳱ 0.9387 ⳱ 89.7 Qf ⫻ f 42, 000 ⫻ $0.69

or 90 contracts after rounding (which we ignore in what follows). c) To ﬁnd the risk of the hedged position, we use Equation (14.8). The volatility of the unhedged position is σS ⳱ $586, 409. The variance of the hedged position is σS2 ⳱ ($586,409)2 2 ⫺σSF 冫 σF2 ⳱ ⫺(2,605,268,452冫 5,390)2

V(hedged )

⳱ Ⳮ343,875,515,281 ⳱ ⫺233,653,264,867 ⳱ Ⳮ110,222,250,414

The volatility of the hedged position is σVⴱ ⳱ $331, 997. Thus the hedge has reduced the risk from $586,409 to $331,997. that one minus the ratio of the hedged and unhedged variances is (1 ⫺ 110,222,250,414冫 343,875,515,281) ⳱ 67.95%. This is exactly the square of the correlation coefﬁcient, 0.82432 ⳱ 0.6795. Thus the effectiveness of the hedge can be judged from the correlation coefﬁcient. Figure 14-2 displays the relationship between the risk of the hedged position and the number of contracts. As N increases, the risk decreases, reaching a minimum for N ⴱ ⳱ 90 contracts. The graph also shows that the quadratic relationship is relatively ﬂat for a range of values around the minimum. Choosing anywhere between 80 and 100 contracts will have little effect on the total risk.

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FIGURE 14-2 Risk of Hedged Position and Number of Contracts Volatility $700,000 $600,000 Optimal hedge $500,000 $400,000 $300,000 $200,000 $100,000 $0 0

14.2.4

20

40 60 80 Number of contracts

100

120

Liquidity Issues

Although futures hedging can be successful at mitigating market risk, it can create other risks. Futures contracts are marked to market daily. Hence they can involve large cash inﬂows or outﬂows. Cash outﬂows, in particular, can create liquidity problems, especially when they are not offset by cash inﬂows from the underlying position. Example 14-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 67/Market Risk 14-7. In the early 1990s, Metallgesellschaft, a German oil company, suffered a loss of $1.33 billion in their hedging program. They rolled over short-dated futures to hedge long term exposure created through their long-term ﬁxed-price contracts to sell heating oil and gasoline to their customers. After a time, they abandoned the hedge because of large negative cash ﬂow. The cash-ﬂow pressure was due to the fact that MG had to hedge its exposure by a) Short futures and there was a decline in oil price b) Long futures and there was a decline in oil price c) Short futures and there was an increase in oil price d) Long futures and there was an increase in oil price

14.3

Applications of Optimal Hedging

The linear framework presented here is completely general. We now specialize it to two important cases, duration and beta hedging. The ﬁrst applies to the bond market, the second to the stock market.

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14.3.1

Duration Hedging

Modiﬁed duration can be viewed as a measure of the exposure of relative changes in prices to movements in yields. Using the deﬁnitions in Chapter 1, we can write ⌬P ⳱ (⫺D ⴱ P )⌬y

(14.13)

where D ⴱ is the modiﬁed duration. The dollar duration is deﬁned as (D ⴱ P ). Assuming the duration model holds, which implies that the change in yield ⌬y does not depend on maturity, we can rewrite this expression for the cash and futures positions ⌬S ⳱ (⫺DSⴱ S )⌬y

⌬F ⳱ (⫺DFⴱ F )⌬y

where DSⴱ and DFⴱ are the modiﬁed durations of S and F , respectively. Note that these relationships are supposed to be perfect, without an error term. The variances and covariance are then σS2 ⳱ (DSⴱ S )2 σ 2 (⌬y )

σF2 ⳱ (DFⴱ F )2 σ 2 (⌬y )

σSF ⳱ (DFⴱ F )(DSⴱ S )σ 2 (⌬y )

We can replace these in Equation (14.6) Nⴱ ⳱ ⫺

(DFⴱ F )(DSⴱ S ) (DSⴱ S ) SF ⳱ ⫺ ⳱ ⫺ (DFⴱ F )2 (DFⴱ F ) F2

(14.14)

Alternatively, this can be derived as follows. Write the total portfolio payoff as ⌬V ⳱ ⌬S Ⳮ N ⌬F ⳱ (⫺DSⴱ S )⌬y Ⳮ N (⫺DFⴱ F )⌬y ⳱ ⫺[(DSⴱ S ) Ⳮ N (DFⴱ F )] ⫻ ⌬y which is zero when the net exposure, represented by the term between brackets, is zero. In other words, the optimal hedge ratio is simply minus the ratio of the dollar duration of cash relative to the dollar duration of the hedge. This ratio can also be expressed in dollar value of a basis point (DVBP). More generally, we can use N as a tool to modify the total duration of the portfolio. If we have a target duration of DV , this can be achieved by setting [(DSⴱ S ) Ⳮ N (DFⴱ F )] ⳱ DVⴱ V , or N⳱

(DVⴱ V ⫺ DSⴱ S ) (DFⴱ F )

of which Equation (14.14) is a special case.

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Key concept: The optimal duration hedge is given by the ratio of the dollar duration of the position to that of the hedging instrument.

Example 1 A portfolio manager holds a bond portfolio worth $10 million with a modiﬁed duration of 6.8 years, to be hedged for 3 months. The current futures price is 93-02, with a notional of $100,000. We assume that its duration can be measured by that of the cheapest-to-deliver, which is 9.2 years. Compute a) The notional of the futures contract b) The number of contracts to buy/sell for optimal protection Answer a) The notional is [93 Ⳮ (2冫 32)]冫 100 ⫻ $100,000 ⳱ $93,062.5. b) The optimal number to sell is from Equation (14.14) (D ⴱ S ) 6.8 ⫻ $10, 000, 000 N ⴱ ⳱ ⫺ Sⴱ ⳱⫺ ⳱ ⫺79.4 9.2 ⫻ $93, 062.5 (DF F ) or 79 contracts after rounding. Note that the DVBP of the futures is about 9.2 ⫻ $93,000 ⫻ 0.01% ⳱ $85.

Example 2 On February 2, a corporate Treasurer wants to hedge a July 17 issue of $5 million of commercial paper with a maturity of 180 days, leading to anticipated proceeds of $4.52 million. The September Eurodollar futures trades at 92, and has a notional amount of $1 million. Compute a) The current dollar value of the futures contract b) The number of contracts to buy/sell for optimal protection Answer a) The current dollar price is given by $10,000[100 ⫺ 0.25(100 ⫺ 92)] ⳱ $980,000. Note that the duration of the futures is always 3 months (90 days), since the contract refers to 3-month LIBOR. b) If rates increase, the cost of borrowing will be higher. We need to offset this by a gain, or a short position in the futures. The optimal number is from Equation (14.14)

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(DSⴱ S )

(DFⴱ F )

⳱⫺

180 ⫻ $4,520,000 ⳱ ⫺9.2 90 ⫻ $980,000

or 9 contracts after rounding. Note that the DVBP of the futures is about 0.25 ⫻ $1, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.01% ⳱ $25. Example 14-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 73/Market Risk 14-8. What assumptions does a duration-based hedging scheme make about the way in which interest rates move? a) All interest rates change by the same amount. b) A small parallel shift occurs in the yield curve. c) Any parallel shift occurs in the term structure. d) Interest rates movements are highly correlated. Example 14-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 61/Market Risk 14-9. If all spot interest rates are increased by one basis point, a value of a portfolio of swaps will increase by $1,100. How many Eurodollar futures contracts are needed to hedge the portfolio? a) 44 b) 22 c) 11 d) 1,100 Example 14-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 109/Market Risk 14-10. Roughly how many 3-month LIBOR Eurodollar futures contracts are needed to hedge a position in a $200 million, 5-year receive-ﬁxed swap? a) Short 250 b) Short 3,200 c) Short 40,000 d) Long 250

14.3.2

Beta Hedging

We now turn to equity hedging using stock index futures. Beta, or systematic risk can be viewed as a measure of the exposure of the rate of return on a portfolio i to movements in the “market” m Rit ⳱ αi Ⳮ βi Rmt Ⳮ it

(14.16)

where β represents the systematic risk, α the intercept (which is not a source of risk and therefore ignored for risk management purposes), and the residual component,

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which is uncorrelated with the market. We can also write, in line with the previous sections and ignoring the residual and intercept (⌬S 冫 S ) ⬇ β(⌬M 冫 M )

(14.17)

Now, assume that we have at our disposal a stock-index futures contract, which has a beta of unity (⌬F 冫 F ) ⳱ 1(⌬M 冫 M ). For options, the beta is replaced by the net delta, (⌬C ) ⳱ δ(⌬M ). As in the case of bond duration, we can write the total portfolio payoff as ⌬V ⳱ ⌬S Ⳮ N ⌬F ⳱ (βS )(⌬M 冫 M ) Ⳮ NF (⌬M 冫 M ) ⳱ [(βS ) Ⳮ NF ] ⫻ (⌬M 冫 M ) which is set to zero when the net exposure, represented by the term between brackets is zero. The optimal number of contracts to short is Nⴱ ⳱ ⫺

S F

(14.18)

Key concept: The optimal hedge with stock index futures is given by the the beta of the cash position times its value divided by the notional of the futures contract.

Example A portfolio manager holds a stock portfolio worth $10 million with a beta of 1.5 relative to the S&P 500. The current futures price is 1,400, with a multiplier of $250. Compute a) The notional of the futures contract b) The number of contracts to sell short for optimal protection Answer a) The notional amount of the futures contract is $250 ⫻ 1400 ⳱ $350,000. b) The optimal number of contract to short is, from Equation (14.18) Nⴱ ⳱ ⫺

βS 1.5 ⫻ $10,000,000 ⳱⫺ ⳱ ⫺42.9 F 1 ⫻ $350,000

or 43 contracts after rounding.

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The quality of the hedge will depend on the size of the residual risk in the market model of Equation (14.16). For large portfolios, the approximation may be good. In contrast, hedging an individual stock with stock index futures may give poor results. For instance, the correlation of a typical U.S. stock with the S&P 500 is 0.50. For an industry index, it is typically 0.75. Using the regression effectiveness in Equation (14.12), we ﬁnd that the volatility of the hedged portfolio is still about 冪1 ⫺ 0.52 ⳱ 87% of the unhedged volatility for a typical stock and about 66% of the unhedged volatility for a typical industry. The lower number shows that hedging with general stock index futures is more effective for large portfolios. To obtain ﬁner coverage of equity risks, hedgers could use futures contracts on industrial sectors, or even single stock futures.

TE

AM FL Y

Example 14-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 93/Market Risk 14-11. Assume Global Funds manages an equity portfolio worth $50,000,000 with a beta of 1.8. Further, assume that there exists an index call option contract with a delta of 0.623 and a value of $500,000. How many options contracts are needed to hedge the portfolio? a) 169 b) 289 c) 306 d) 321

14.4

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 14-1: FRM Exam 2000----Question 78/Market Risk c) Hedging is made possible by the fact that cash and futures prices usually move in the same direction and by the same amount. Example 14-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 17/Capital Markets b) Answer (a) is wrong because we need to hedge by selling futures. Answer (c) is wrong because futures hedging creates some basis risk. Answer (d) is wrong because crosshedging involves different assets. Speculators do serve some social function, which is to create liquidity for others. Example 14-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 79/Market Risk d) Basis risk occurs if movements in the value of the cash and hedged positions do not offset each other perfectly. This can happen if the instruments are dissimilar or if

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the correlation is not unity. Even with similar instruments, if the hedge is lifted before the maturity of the underlying, there is some basis risk. Example 14-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 86 b) Set x as the amount to invest in the second security, relative to that in the ﬁrst (or the hedge ratio). The variance is then proportional to 1 Ⳮ x2 Ⳮ 2xρ . Taking the derivative and setting to zero, we have x ⳱ ⫺r ho ⳱ 0.5. Thus one security must have σS twice the amount in the other. Alternatively, the hedge ratio is given by N ⴱ ⳱ ⫺ρ σ , F

which gives 0.5. Answer (b) is the only one which is consistent with this number or its inverse. Example 14-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 66/Market Risk c) See Equation (14.6). Example 14-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 92/Market Risk d) The hedge ratio is ρf s σs 冫 σf ⳱ 0.3876 ⫻ 0.57冫 0.85 ⳱ 0.2599. Example 14-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 67/Market Risk b) MG was long futures to offset the promised forward sales to clients. It lost money as oil futures prices fell. Example 14-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 73/Market Risk b) The assumption is that of (1) parallel and (2) small moves in the yield curve. Answers (a) and (c) are the same, and omit the size of the move. Answer (d) would require perfect, not high, correlation plus small moves. Example 14-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 61/Market Risk a) The DVBP of the portfolio is $1100. That of the futures is $25. Hence the ratio is 1100/25 = 44. Example 14-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 109/Market Risk b) The dollar duration of a 5-year 6% par bond is about 4.3 years. Hence the DVBP of the position is about $200, 000, 000 ⫻ 4.3 ⫻ 0.0001 ⳱ $86,000. That of the futures is $25. Hence the ratio is 86000/25 = 3,440. Example 14-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 93/Market Risk b) The hedging instrument has a market beta that is not unity, but instead 0.623. The optimal hedge ratio is N ⳱ ⫺(1.8 ⫻ $50,000,000)冫 (0.623 ⫻ $500,000) ⳱ 288.9.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 15 Nonlinear Risk: Options The previous chapter focused on “linear” hedging, using contracts such as forwards and futures whose values are linearly related to the underlying risk factors. Positions in these contracts are ﬁxed over the hedge horizon. Because linear combinations of normal random variables are also normally distributed, linear hedging maintains normal distributions, albeit with lower variances. Hedging nonlinear risks, however, is much more complex. Because options have nonlinear payoffs, the distribution of option values can be sharply asymmetrical. Since options are ubiquitous instruments, it is important to develop tools to evaluate the risk of positions with options. Since options can be replicated by dynamic trading of the underlying instruments, this also provides insights into the risks of active trading strategies. In Chapter 12, we have seen that market losses can be ascribed to the combination of two factors: exposure and adverse movements in the risk factor. Thus a large loss could occur because of the risk factor, which is bad luck. Too often, however, losses occur because the exposure proﬁle is similar to a short option position. This is less forgivable, because exposure is under the control of the risk manager. The challenge is to develop measures that provide an intuitive understanding of the exposure proﬁle. Section 15.1 introduces option pricing and the Taylor approximation.1 It also brieﬂy reviews the Black-Scholes formula that was presented in Chapter 6. Partial derivatives, also known as “Greeks,” are analyzed in Section 15.2. Section 15.3 then turns to the interpretation of dynamic hedging and discusses the distribution proﬁle of option positions.

1

The reader should be forewarned that this chapter is more technical than others. It presupposes some exposure to option pricing and hedging.

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15.1

Evaluating Options

15.1.1

Deﬁnitions

We consider a derivative instrument whose value depends on an underlying asset, which can be a price, an index, or a rate. As an example, consider a call option where the underlying asset is a foreign currency. We use these deﬁnitions: St ⳱current spot price of the asset in dollars Ft ⳱current forward price of the asset K ⳱exercise price of option contract ft ⳱current value of derivative instrument rt ⳱domestic risk-free rate rtⴱ ⳱foreign risk-free rate (also written as y ) σt ⳱annual volatility of the rate of change in S τ ⳱time to maturity. More generally, r ⴱ represents the income payment y on the asset, which represents the annual rate of dividend or coupon payments on a stock index or bond. For most options, we can write the value of the derivative as the function ft ⳱ f (St , rt , rtⴱ , σt , K, τ )

(15.1)

The contract speciﬁcations are represented by K and the time to maturity τ . The other factors are affected by market movements, creating volatility in the value of the derivative. For simplicity, we drop the time subscripts in what follows. Derivatives pricing is all about ﬁnding the value of f , given the characteristics of the option at expiration and some assumptions about the behavior of markets. For a forward contract, for instance, the expression is very simple. It reduces to f ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

⫺ Ke⫺r τ

(15.2)

More generally, we may not be able to derive an analytical expression for the functional form of the derivative, requiring numerical methods.

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15.1.2

NONLINEAR RISK: OPTIONS

331

Taylor Expansion

We are interested in describing the movements in f . The exposure proﬁle of the derivative can be described locally by taking a Taylor expansion, df ⳱

1 ∂2 f ∂f ∂f ∂f ∂f ∂f dS Ⳮ dS 2 Ⳮ dr Ⳮ ⴱ dr ⴱ Ⳮ dσ Ⳮ dτ Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ 2 ∂S 2 ∂S ∂r ∂σ ∂τ ∂r

(15.3)

Because the value depends on S in a nonlinear fashion, we added a quadratic term for S . The terms in Equation (15.3) approximate a nonlinear function by linear and quadratic polynomials. Option pricing is about ﬁnding f . Option hedging uses the partial derivatives. Risk management is about combining those with the movements in the risk factors. Figure 15-1 describes the relationship between the value of a European call an the underlying asset. The actual price is the solid line. The thin line is the linear (delta) estimate, which is the tangent at the initial point. The dotted line is the quadratic (delta plus gamma) estimates, which gives a much better ﬁt because it has more parameters. Note that, because we are dealing with sums of local price movements, we can aggregate the sensitivities at the portfolio level. This is similar to computing the portfolio duration from the sum of durations of individual securities, appropriately weighted. FIGURE 15-1 Delta-Gamma Approximation for a Long Call Current value of option

10

Actual price 5 Delta+gamma estimate Delta estimate 0 90

100 Current price of underlying asset

110

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Deﬁning ⌬ ⳱

∂f , ∂S

for example, we can summarize the portfolio, or “book” ⌬P in

terms of the total sensitivity, N

⌬P ⳱

冱 xi ⌬i

(15.4)

i ⳱1

where xi is the number of options of type i in the portfolio. To hedge against ﬁrstorder price risk, it is sufﬁcient to hedge the net portfolio delta. This is more efﬁcient than trying to hedge every single instrument individually. The Taylor approximation may fail for a number of reasons: Large movements in the underlying risk factor Highly nonlinear exposures, such as options near expiry or exotic options Cross-partials effect, such as σ changing in relation with S If this is the case, we need to turn to a full revaluation of the instrument. Using the subscripts 0 and 1 as the initial and ﬁnal values, the change in the option value is f1 ⫺ f0 ⳱ f (S1 , r1 , r1ⴱ , σ1 , K, τ1 ) ⫺ f (S0 , r0 , r0ⴱ , σ0 , K, τ0 )

15.1.3

(15.5)

Option Pricing

We now present the various partial derivatives for conventional European call and put options. As we have seen in Chapter 6, the Black-Scholes (BS) model provides a closed-form solution, from which these derivatives can be computed analytically. The key point of the BS derivation is that a position in the option can be replicated by a “delta” position in the underlying asset. Hence, a portfolio combining the asset and the option in appropriate proportions is risk-free “locally”, that is, for small movements in prices. To avoid arbitrage, this portfolio must return the risk-free rate. The option value is the discounted expected payoff, ft ⳱ ERN [e⫺r τ F (ST )]

(15.6)

where ERN represents the expectation of the future payoff in a “risk-neutral” world, that is, assuming the underlying asset grows at the risk-free rate and the discounting also employs the risk-free rate. In the case of a European call, the ﬁnal payoff is F (ST ) ⳱ Max(ST ⫺ K, 0), and the current value of the call is given by: ⴱ

c ⳱ Se⫺rt τ N (d1 ) ⫺ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 )

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(15.7)

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333

where N (d ) is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution: N (d ) ⳱

冮

d

⫺⬁

⌽(x)dx ⳱

1

冮 冪 2π

d

⫺⬁

1 2

e⫺ 2 x dx

with ⌽ deﬁned as the standard normal distribution function. N (d ) is also the area to the left of a standard normal variable with value equal to d . The values of d1 and d2 are: ⴱ

d1 ⳱

ln(Se⫺rt τ 冫 Ke⫺r τ ) σ 冪τ

Ⳮ

σ 冪τ , 2

d2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ 冪τ

By put-call parity, the European put option value is: ⴱ

p ⳱ Se⫺rt τ [N (d1 ) ⫺ 1] ⫺ Ke⫺r τ [N (d2 ) ⫺ 1]

(15.8)

Example 15-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 65/Market Risk 15-1. It is often possible to estimate the value at risk of a vanilla European options portfolio by using a delta-gamma methodology rather than exact valuation formulas because a) Delta and gamma are the ﬁrst two terms in the Taylor series expansion of the change in an option price as a function of the change in the underlying and the remaining terms are often insigniﬁcant. b) It is only delta and gamma risk that can be hedged. c) Unlike the price, delta and gamma for a European option can be computed in closed form. d) Both a and c, but not b, are correct. Example 15-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 88/Market Risk 15-2. Why is the delta normal approach not suitable for measuring options portfolio risk? a) There is a lack of data to compute the variance/covariance matrix. b) Options are generally short-dated instruments. c) There are nonlinearities in option payoff. d) Black-Scholes pricing assumptions are violated in the real world.

15.2

Option “Greeks”

15.2.1

Option Sensitivities: Delta and Gamma

Given these closed-form solutions for European options, we can derive all partial derivatives. The most important sensitivity is the delta, which is the ﬁrst partial

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derivative with respect to the price. For a call option, this can be written explicitly as: ⌬c ⳱

ⴱ ∂c ⳱ e⫺rt τ N (d1 ) ∂S

(15.9)

which is always positive and below unity. Figure 15-2 relates delta to the current value of S , for various maturities. The essential feature of this ﬁgure is that ⌬ varies substantially with the spot price and with time. As the spot price increases, d1 and d2 become very large, and ⌬ tends toward ⴱ

e⫺rt τ , close to one. in this situation, the option behaves like an outright position in ⴱ

the asset. Indeed the limit of Equation (15.7) is c ⳱ Se⫺rt τ ⫺ Ke⫺r τ , which is exactly the value of our forward contract, Equation (15.2). FIGURE 15-2 Option Delta 1.0

Delta

0.9 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5 0.4 90-day

0.3 0.2

60-

0.1

3010-day

0 90

100 Spot price

110

At the other extreme, if S is very low, ⌬ is close to zero and the option is not very sensitive to S . When S is close to the strike price K , ⌬ is close to 0.5, and the option behaves like a position of 0.5 in the underlying asset. Key concept: The delta of an at-the-money call option is close to 0.5. Delta moves to one as the call goes deep in the money. It moves to zero as the call goes deep out of the money.

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NONLINEAR RISK: OPTIONS

335

The delta of a put option is: ⌬p ⳱

ⴱ ∂p ⳱ e⫺rt τ [N (d1 ) ⫺ 1] ∂S

(15.10)

which is always negative. It behaves similarly to the call ⌬, except for the sign. The delta of an at-the-money put is about ⫺0.5. Key concept: The delta of an at-the-money put option is close to -0.5. Delta moves to one as the put goes deep in the money. It moves to zero as the put goes deep out of the money. The ﬁgure also shows that, as the option nears maturity, the ⌬ function becomes more curved. The function converges to a step function, 0 when S ⬍ K , and 1 otherwise. Close-to-maturity options have unstable deltas. For a European call or put, gamma (⌫) is the second order term, ⴱ

∂2 c e⫺rt τ ⌽(d1 ) ⳱ ⌫⳱ ∂S 2 Sσ 冪τ

(15.11)

which is driven by the “bell shape” of the normal density function ⌽. This is also the derivative of ⌬ with respect to S . Thus ⌫ measures the “instability” in ⌬. Note that gamma is identical for a call and put with identical characteristics. Figure 15-3 plots the call option gamma. At-the-money options have the highest gamma, which indicates that ⌬ changes very fast as S changes. In contrast, both in-themoney options and out-of-the-money options have low gammas because their delta is constant, close to one or zero, respectively. The ﬁgure also shows that as the maturity nears, the option gamma increases. This leads to a useful rule: Key concept: For vanilla options, nonlinearities are most pronounced for short-term at-the-money options. Thus, gamma is similar to the concept of convexity developed for bonds. Fixedcoupon bonds, however, always have positive convexity, whereas options can create positive or negative convexity. Positive convexity or gamma is beneﬁcial, as it implies that the value of the asset drops more slowly and increases more quickly than

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FIGURE 15-3 Option Gamma 0.13 0.12

Gamma 10-day

0.11 0.10 0.09 0.08 0.07

30-day

0.06

60-day

0.05 0.04

90-day

0.03 0.02 0.01

AM FL Y

0 90

100 Spot price

110

otherwise. In contrast, negative convexity can be dangerous because it implies faster price falls and slower price increases.

TE

Figure 15-4 summarizes the delta and gamma exposures of positions in options. Long positions in options, whether calls or puts, create positive convexity. Short positions create negative convexity. In exchange for assuming the harmful effect of this negative convexity, option sellers receive the premium.

FIGURE 15-4 Delta and Gamma of Option Positions Positive gamma Long CALL

Long PUT ∆0

∆>0, Γ>0 Negative gamma ∆$200,000

$200,000

$175,000

$150,000

$125,000

$100,000

$50,000

$75,000

$25,000

$0

–$50,000

–$25,000

–$75,000

–$100,000

–$125,000

–$150,000

–$175,000

–$200,000

0

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PART III: MARKET RISK MANAGEMENT

Risk Budgeting

The revolution is risk management reﬂects the recognition that risk should be measured at the highest level, that is, ﬁrm wide or portfolio wide. This ability to measure total risk has led to a top-down allocation of risk, called risk budgeting. This concept is being implemented in pension plans as a follow-up to their asset allocation process. Asset allocation consists of ﬁnding the optimal allocation into major asset classes that provides the best risk/return trade-off for the investor. This deﬁnes the risk proﬁle of the portfolio. For instance, assume that the asset allocation led to a choice of annual volatility of 10.41%. With a portfolio of $100 million, this translates into a 95% annual VAR of $17.1 million, assuming normal distributions. More generally, VAR can be computed using any of the three methods presented in this chapter. This VAR budget can then be parcelled out to various asset classes and active managers within asset classes. Table 17-7 illustrates the risk budgeting process for three major asset classes, U.S. stocks, U.S. bonds, and non-U.S. bonds. Data are based on dollar returns over the period 1978 to 2002. TABLE 17-7 Risk Budgeting Asset U.S. stocks U.S. bonds Non-U.S. bonds Portfolio

1 2 3

Expected Return 13.27 8.60 9.28

Volatility 15.62 7.46 11.19 10.41

Correlations 1 2 3 1.000 0.207 1.000 0.036 0.385 1.000

Percentage Allocation 60.3 7.4 32.3 100.0

VAR (per $100) $15.5 $0.9 $6.0 $17.1

The table shows a portfolio allocation of 60.3%, 7.4%, and 32.3% to U.S. stocks, U.S. bonds, and non-U.S. bonds, respectively. Risk budgeting is the process by which these efﬁcient portfolio allocations are transformed into VAR assignments. This translates into individual VARs of $15.5, $0.9, and $6.0 million respectively. For instance, the VAR budget for U.S. stocks is 60.3% ⫻ ($100 ⫻ 1.645 ⫻ 15.62%) ⳱ $15.5 million. Note that the sum of individual VARs is $22.4 million, which is more than the portfolio VAR of $17.1 million due to diversiﬁcation effects. This risk budgeting approach is spreading rapidly to the management of pension plans. Such an approach has all the beneﬁts of VAR. It provides a consistent measure of risk across all subportfolios. It forces managers and investors to confront squarely the amount of risk they are willing to assume. It gives them tools to monitor their risk in real time.

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CHAPTER 17.

17.5

VAR METHODS

389

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 17-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 13/Regulatory c) Delta-normal is appropriate for the ﬁxed-income desk, unless it contains many MBSs. For the option desk, at least the second derivatives should be considered; so, the delta-gamma method is adequate. Example 17-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 92 b) Parametric VAR usually assumes a normal distribution. Given that actual distributions of ﬁnancial variables have fatter tails than the normal distribution, parametric VAR at high conﬁdence levels will generally underestimate VAR. Example 17-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 12/Risk Measurement c) In ﬁnite samples, the simulation methods will be in general different from the delta-normal method, and from each other. As the sample size increases, however, the Monte-Carlo VAR should converge to the delta-normal VAR when returns are normally distributed. Example 17-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Regulatory a) The variance/covariance approach does not take into account second-order curvature effects. Example 17-5: FRM Exam 1999----Questions 82/Market Risk d) VAR⳱ 冪402 Ⳮ 502 ⫺ 2 ⫻ 40 ⫻ 50 ⫻ 0.89 ⳱ 23.24. Example 17-6: FRM Exam 1999----Questions 15 and 90/Market Risk c) VAR⳱ 冪3002 Ⳮ 5002 Ⳮ 2 ⫻ 300 ⫻ 500 ⫻ 1冫 15 ⳱ $600.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

PART

four

Credit Risk Management

Chapter 18 Introduction to Credit Risk Credit risk is the risk of an economic loss from the failure of a counterparty to fulﬁll its contractual obligations. Its effect is measured by the cost of replacing cash ﬂows if the other party defaults. This chapter provides an introduction to the measurement of credit risk. Credit risk has undergone tremendous developments in the last few years. Fuelled by advances in the measurement of market risk, institutions are now, for the ﬁrst time, attempting to quantify credit risk on a portfolio basis. Credit risk, however, offers unique challenges. It requires constructing the distribution of default probabilities, of loss given default, and of credit exposures, all of which contribute to credit losses and should be measured in a portfolio context. In comparison, the measurement of market risk using value at risk (VAR) is a simple affair. For most institutions, however, market risk pales in signiﬁcance compared with credit risk. Indeed, the amount of risk-based capital for the banking system reserved for credit risk is vastly greater than that for market risk. The history of ﬁnancial institutions has also shown that the biggest banking failures were due to credit risk. Credit risk involves the possibility of non-payment, either on a future obligation or during a transaction. Section 18.1 introduces settlement risk, which arises from the exchange of principals in different currencies during a short window. We discuss exposure to settlement risk and methods to deal with it. Traditionally, however, credit risk is viewed as presettlement risk. Section 18.2 analyzes the components of a credit risk system and the evolution of credit risk measurement systems. Section 18.3 then shows how to construct the distribution of credit losses for a portfolio given default probabilities for the various credits in the portfolio. The key drivers of portfolio credit risk are the correlations between defaults. Section 18.4 takes a ﬁxed $100 million portfolio with an increasing number of obligors and shows how the distribution of losses is dramatically affected by correlations.

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18.1

Settlement Risk

18.1.1

Presettlement vs. Settlement Risk

Counterparty credit risk consists of both presettlement and settlement risk. Presettlement risk is the risk of loss due to the counterparty’s failure to perform on an obligation during the life of the transaction. This includes default on a loan or bond or failure to make the required payment on a derivative transaction. Presettlement risk can exist over long periods, often years, starting from the time it is contracted until settlement. In contrast, settlement risk is due to the exchange of cash ﬂows and is of a much shorter-term nature. This risk arises as soon as an institution makes the required payment until the offsetting payment is received. This risk is greatest when payments occur in different time zones, especially for foreign exchange transactions where notionals are exchanged in different currencies. Failure to perform on settlement can be caused by counterparty default, liquidity constraints, or operational problems. Most of the time, settlement failure due to operational problems leads to minor economic losses, such as additional interest payments. In some cases, however, the loss can be quite large, extending to the full amount of the transferred payment. An example of major settlement risk is the 1974 failure of Herstatt Bank. The day it went bankrupt, it had received payments from a number of counterparties but defaulted before payments were made on the other legs of the transactions.

18.1.2

Handling Settlement Risk

In March 1996, the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) issued a report warning that the private sector should ﬁnd ways to reduce settlement risk in the $1.2 trillion-aday global foreign exchange market.1 The report noted that central banks had “signiﬁcant concerns regarding the risk stemming from the current arrangements for settling FX trades.” It explained that “the amount at risk to even a single counterparty could exceed a bank’s capital,” which creates systemic risk. The threat of regulatory action led to a reexamination of settlement risk. 1

Committee on Payment and Settlement Systems (1996). Settlement Risk in Foreign Exchange Transactions, BIS [On-line]. Available: http://www.bis.org/publ/cpss17.pdf

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The status of a trade can be classiﬁed into ﬁve categories: Revocable: when the institution can still cancel the transfer without the consent of the counterparty Irrevocable: after the payment has been sent and before payment from the other party is due Uncertain: after the payment from the other party is due but before it is actually received Settled: after the counterparty payment has been received Failed: after it has been established that the counterparty has not made the payment Settlement risk occurs during the periods of irrevocable and uncertain status, which can take from one to three days. While this type of credit risk can lead to substantial economic losses, the short nature of settlement risk makes it fundamentally different from presettlement risk. Managing settlement risk requires unique tools, such as real-time gross settlement (RTGS) systems. These systems aim at reducing the time interval between the time an institution can no longer stop a payment and the receipt of the funds from the counterparty. Settlement risk can be further managed with netting agreements. One such form is bilateral netting, which involves two banks. Instead of making payments of gross amounts to each other, the banks would tot up the balance and settle only the net balance outstanding in each currency. At the level of instruments, netting also occurs with contracts for differences (CFD). Instead of exchanging principals in different currencies, the contracts are settled in dollars at the end of the contract term.2 The next step up is a multilateral netting system, also called continuous-linked settlements, where payments are netted for a group of banks that belong to the system. This idea became reality when the CLS Bank, established in 1998 with 60 bank participants, became operational on September 9, 2002. Every evening, CLS Bank provides a schedule of payments for the member banks to follow during the next day. Payments are not released until funds are received and all transaction conﬁrmed. 2

These are similar to nondeliverable forwards, which are used to trade emerging market currencies outside the jurisdiction of the emerging-market regime and are also settled in dollars.

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The risk now has been reduced to that of the netting institution. In addition to reducing settlement risk, the netting system has the advantage of reducing the number of trades between participants, by up to 90%, which lowers transaction costs. Example 18-1: FRM Exam 2000----Question 36/Credit Risk 18-1. Settlement risk in foreign exchange is generally due to a) Notionals being exchanged b) Net value being exchanged c) Multiple currencies and countries involved d) High volatility of exchange rates

TE

AM FL Y

Example 18-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 85/Market Risk 18-2. Which one of the following statements about multilateral netting systems is not accurate? a) Systemic risks can actually increase because they concentrate risks on the central counterparty, the failure of which exposes all participants to risk. b) The concentration of risks on the central counterparty eliminates risk because of the high quality of the central counterparty. c) By altering settlement costs and credit exposures, multilateral netting systems for foreign exchange contracts could alter the structure of credit relations and affect competition in the foreign exchange markets. d) In payment netting systems, participants with net-debit positions will be obligated to make a net settlement payment to the central counterparty that, in turn, is obligated to pay those participants with net credit positions.

18.2

Overview of Credit Risk

18.2.1

Drivers of Credit Risk

We now examine the drivers of credit risk, traditionally deﬁned as presettlement risk. Credit risk measurement systems attempts to quantify the risk of losses due to counterparty default. The distribution of credit risk can be viewed as a compound process driven by these variables Default, which is a discrete state for the counterparty—either the counterparty is in default or not. This occurs with some probability of default (PD). Credit exposure (CE), also known as exposure at default (EAD), which is the economic value of the claim on the counterparty at the time of default. Loss given default (LGD), which represents the fractional loss due to default. As an example, take a situation where default results in a fractional recovery rate of 30% only. LGD is then 70% of the exposure.

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Traditionally, credit risk has been measured in the context of loans or bonds for which the exposure, or economic value, of the asset is close to its notional, or face value. This is an acceptable approximation for bonds but certainly not for derivatives, which can have positive or negative value. Credit exposure is deﬁned as the positive value of the asset: Credit Exposuret ⳱ Max(Vt , 0)

(18.1)

This is so because if the counterparty defaults with money owed to it, the full amount has to be paid.3 In contrast, if it owes money, only a fraction may be recovered. Thus, presettlement risk only arises when the contract’s replacement cost has a positive value to the institution (i.e., is “in-the-money”).

18.2.2

Measurement of Credit Risk

The evolution of credit risk management tools has gone through these steps: Notional amounts Risk-weighted amounts External/internal credit ratings Internal portfolio credit models Initially, risk was measured by the total notional amount. A multiplier, say 8 percent, was applied to this amount to establish the amount of required capital to hold as a reserve against credit risk. The problem with this approach is that it ignores variations in the probability of default. In 1988, the Basel Committee instituted a very rough categorization of credit risk by risk-class, providing risk weights to scale each notional amount. This was the ﬁrst attempt to force banks to carry enough capital in relation to the risks they were taking. These risk weights proved to be too simplistic, however, creating incentives for banks to alter their portfolio in order to maximize their shareholder returns subject to the Basel capital requirements. This had the perverse effect of creating more risk into the balance sheets of commercial banks, which was certainly not the intended purpose of the 1988 rules. As an example, there was no differentiation between AAArated and C-rated corporate credits. Since loans to C-credits are more proﬁtable than 3

This is due to no walk-away clauses, explained in Chapter 28.

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those to AAA-credits, given the same amount of regulatory capital, the banking sector responded by shifting its loan mix toward lower-rated credits. This led to the 2001 proposal by the Basel Committee to allow banks to use their own internal or external credit ratings. These credit ratings provide a better representation of credit risk, where better is deﬁned as more in line with economic measures. The new proposals will be described in more detail in a following chapter. Even with these improvements, credit risk is still measured on a stand-alone basis. This harks back to the ages of ﬁnance before the beneﬁts of diversiﬁcation were formalized by Markowitz. One would have to hope that eventually the banking system will be given proper incentives to diversify its credit risk.

18.2.3

Credit Risk vs. Market Risk

The tools recently developed to measure market risk have proved invaluable to assess credit risk. Even so, there are a number of major differences between market and credit risks, which are listed in Table 18-1. TABLE 18-1 Comparison of Market Risk and Credit Risk Item Sources of risk

Distributions Time horizon

Market Risk Market risk only

Mainly symmetric, perhaps fat tails Short term (days)

Aggregation

Business/trading unit

Legal issues

Not applicable

Credit Risk Default risk, recovery risk, market risk Skewed to the left Long term (years) Whole ﬁrm vs. counterparty Very important

As mentioned previously, credit risk results from a compound process with three sources of risk. The nature of this risk creates a distribution that is strongly skewed to the left, unlike most market risk factors. This is because credit risk is akin to short positions in options. At best, the counterparty makes the required payment and there is no loss. At worst, the entire amount due is lost. The time horizon is also different. Whereas the time required for corrective action is relatively short in the case of market risk, it is much longer for credit risk. Positions

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also turn over much more slowly for credit risk than for market risk, although the advent of credit derivatives now makes it easier to hedge credit risk. Finally, the level of aggregation is different. Limits on market risk may apply at the level of a trading desk, business units, and eventually the whole ﬁrm. In contrast, limits on credit risk must be deﬁned at the counterparty level, for all positions taken by the institution. Credit risk can also mix with market risk. Movements in corporate bond prices indeed reﬂect changing expectations of credit losses. In this case, it is not so clear whether this volatility should be classiﬁed into market risk or credit risk.

18.3

Measuring Credit Risk

18.3.1

Credit Losses

To simplify, consider only credit risk due to the effect of defaults. This is what is called default mode. The distribution of losses due to credit risk from a portfolio of N instruments can be described as N

Credit Loss ⳱

冱 bi ⫻ CEi ⫻ (1 ⫺ fi )

(18.2)

i ⳱1

where: ● bi is a (Bernoulli) random variable that takes the value of 1 if default occurs and 0 otherwise, with probability pi , such that E [bi ] ⳱ pi ● CEi is the credit exposure at the time of default ● fi is the recovery rate, or (1 ⫺ f ) the loss given default In theory, all of these could be random variables. For what follows, we will assume that the only random variable is the event of default b.

18.3.2

Joint Events

Assuming that the only random variable is default, Equation (18.2) shows that the expected credit loss is N

E [CL] ⳱

冱 i ⳱1

N

E [bi ] ⫻ CEi ⫻ (1 ⫺ fi ) ⳱

冱 pi ⫻ CEi ⫻ (1 ⫺ fi )

(18.3)

i ⳱1

The dispersion in credit losses, however, critically depends on the correlations between the default events.

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It is often convenient, although not necessarily accurate, to assume that the events are statistically independent. This simpliﬁes the analysis considerably, as the probability of any joint event is then simply the product of the individual event probabilities p(A and B ) ⳱ p(A)p(B )

(18.4)

At the other extreme, if the two events are perfectly correlated, that is, if B always default when A defaults, we have p(A and B ) ⳱ p(B 兩 A) ⫻ p(A) ⳱ 1 ⫻ p(A) ⳱ p(A)

(18.5)

when the marginal probabilities are equal, p(A) ⳱ p(B ). Suppose for instance that the marginal probabilities are each p(A) ⳱ p(B ) ⳱ 1%. Then the probability of the joint event is 0.01% in the independence case and still 1% in the perfect correlation case. More generally, one can show that the probability of a joint default depends on the marginal probabilities and the correlations. As we have seen in Chapter 2, the expectation of the product is E [bA ⫻ bB ] ⳱ C[bA , bB ] Ⳮ E [bA ]E [bB ] ⳱ ρσA σB Ⳮ p(A)p(B )

(18.6)

Given that bA is a Bernoulli variable, its standard deviation is σA ⳱ 冪p(A)[1 ⫺ p(A)] and similarly for bB . We then have p(A and B ) ⳱ Corr(A, B ) 冪p(A)[1 ⫺ p(A)] 冪p(B )[1 ⫺ p(B )] Ⳮ p(A)p(B )

(18.7)

For example, if the correlation is unity and p(A) ⳱ p(B ) ⳱ p, we have p(A and B ) ⳱ 1 ⫻ [p(1 ⫺ p)]1冫 2 ⫻ [p(1 ⫺ p)]1冫 2 Ⳮ p2 ⳱ [p(1 ⫺ p)] Ⳮ p2 ⳱ p, as shown in Equation (18.5). If the correlation is 0.5 and p(A) ⳱ p(B ) ⳱ 0.01, however, we have p(A and B ) ⳱ 0.00505, which is only half of the marginal probabilities. This example is illustrated in Table 18-2, which lays out the full joint distribution. Note how the probabilities in each row and column sum to the marginal probability. From this information, we can infer all missing probabilities. TABLE 18-2 Joint Probabilities B

Default

No def.

Marginal

A Default No def. Marginal

0.00505 0.00495 0.01

0.00495 0.98505 0.99

0.01 0.99

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An Example

Consider for instance a portfolio of $100 million with 3 bonds A, B, and C, with various probabilities of default. To simplify, we assume (1) that the exposures are constant, (2) that the recovery in case of default is zero, and (3) that default events are independent across issuers. Table 18-3 displays the exposures and default probabilities. The second panel lists all possible states. In state one, there is no default, which has a probability of (1 ⫺ p1 )(1 ⫺ p2 )(1 ⫺ p3 ) ⳱ (1 ⫺ 0.05)(1 ⫺ 0.10)(1 ⫺ 0.20) ⳱ 0.684, given independence. In state two, bond A defaults and the others do not, with probability p1 (1⫺ p2 )(1⫺ p3 ) ⳱ 0.05(1 ⫺ 0.10)(1 ⫺ 0.20) ⳱ 0.036. And so on for the other states. TABLE 18-3 Portfolio Exposures, Default Risk, and Credit Losses Issuer A B C Default i None A B C A,B A,C B,C A,B,C Sum

Loss Li $0 $25 $30 $45 $55 $70 $75 $100

Exposure $25 $30 $45

Probability p(Li ) 0.6840 0.0360 0.0760 0.1710 0.0040 0.0090 0.0190 0.0010

Probability 0.05 0.10 0.20

Cumulative Prob. 0.6840 0.7200 0.7960 0.9670 0.9710 0.9800 0.9990 1.0000

Expected Li p(Li ) 0.000 0.900 2.280 7.695 0.220 0.630 1.425 0.100 $13.25

Variance (Li ⫺ ELi )2 p(Li ) 120.08 4.97 21.32 172.38 6.97 28.99 72.45 7.53 434.7

Figure 18-1 graphs the frequency distribution of credit losses. From the table, we can compute an expected loss of $13.25 million, which is also E [CL] ⳱ 冱 pi ⫻ CEi ⳱ 0.05 ⫻ 25 Ⳮ 0.10 ⫻ 30 Ⳮ 0.20 ⫻ 45. This is the average credit loss over many repeated, hypothetical “samples.” The table also shows how to compute the variance as N

V [CL] ⳱

冱(Li ⫺ E [CLi ])2p(Li ), i ⳱1

which yields a standard deviation of σ (CL) ⳱ 冪434.7 ⳱ $20.9 million.

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FIGURE 18-1 Distribution of Credit Losses 1.0

Frequency Expected loss

0.9 0.8 0.7 0.6

Unexpected loss

0.5 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 0.0 -100

-75

-70

-55 Loss

-45

-30

-25

0

Alternatively, we can express the range of losses with a 95 percent quantile, which is the lowest number CLi such that P (CL ⱕ CLi ) ⱖ 95%

(18.8)

From Table 18-3, this is $45 million. Figure 18-2 plots the cumulative distribution function and shows that the 95% quantile is $45 million. In other words, a loss up to $45 million will not be exceeded in at least 95% of the time. In terms of deviations from the mean, this gives an unexpected loss of 45 ⫺ 13.2 ⳱ $32 million. This is a measure of credit VAR. This very simple 3-bond portfolio provides a useful example of the measurement of the distribution of credit risk. It shows that the distribution is skewed to the left. In addition, the distribution has irregular “bumps” that correspond to the default events. The chapter on managing credit risk will further elaborate this point.

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FIGURE 18-2 Cumulative Distribution of Credit Losses Cumulative frequency 1.0 0.9 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 0.0 -110

95% Level -90

-70

-50

-30

-10

Loss

Example 18-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 46/Credit Risk 18-3. An investor holds a portfolio of $50 million. This portfolio consists of A-rated bonds ($20 million) and BBB-rated bonds ($30 million). Assume that the one-year probabilities of default for A-rated and BBB-rated bonds are 2 and 4 percent, respectively, and that they are independent. If the recovery value for A-rated bonds in the event of default is 60 percent and the recovery value for BBB-rated bonds is 40 percent, what is the one-year expected credit loss from this portfolio? a) $672,000 b) $742,000 c) $880,000 d) $923,000 Example 18-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 38/Credit Risk 18-4. Calculate the probability of a subsidiary and parent company both defaulting over the next year. Assume that the subsidiary will default if the parent defaults, but the parent will not necessarily default if the subsidiary defaults. Also assume that the parent has a 1-year probability of default of 0.50% and the subsidiary has a 1-year probability of default of 0.90%. a) 0.450% b) 0.500% c) 0.545% d) 0.550%

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Example 18-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 16/Credit Risk 18-5. A portfolio manager has been asked to take the risk related to the default of two securities A and B. She has to make a large payment if, and only if, both A and B default. For taking this risk, she will be compensated by receiving a fee. What can be said about this fee? a) The fee will be larger if the default of A and of B are highly correlated. b) The fee will be smaller if the default of A and of B are highly correlated. c) The fee is independent of the correlation between the default of A and of B. d) None of the above are correct. Example 18-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 42/Credit Risk 18-6. A German Bank lends DEM 100 million to a Russian Bank for one year and receives DEM 120 million worth of Russian government securities as collateral. Assuming that the 1-year 99% VAR on the Russian government securities is DEM 20 million and the Russian bank’s 1-year probability of default is 5%, what is the German bank’s probability of losing money on this trade over the next year? a) Less than 0.05% b) Approximately 0.05% c) Between 0.05% – 5% d) Greater than 5% Example 18-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 51/Credit Risk 18-7. A portfolio consists of two (long) assets £100 million each. The probability of default over the next year is 10% for the ﬁrst asset, 20% for the second asset, and the joint probability of default is 3%. Estimate the expected loss on this portfolio due to credit defaults over the next year assuming 40% recovery rate for both assets. a) £18 million b) £22 million c) £30 million d) None of the above

18.4

Credit Risk Diversiﬁcation

Modern banking was built on the sensible notion that a portfolio of loans is less risky than single loans. As with market risk, the most important feature of credit risk management is the ability to diversify across defaults. To illustrate this point, Figure 18-3 presents the distribution of losses for a $100 million loan portfolio. The probability of default is ﬁxed at 1 percent. If default occurs, recovery is zero.

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In the ﬁrst panel, we have one loan only. We can either have no default, with probability 99%, or a loss of $100 million with probability 1%. The expected loss is EL ⳱ 0.01 ⫻ $100 Ⳮ 0.99 ⫻ 0 ⳱ $1 million. The problem, of course, is that, if default occurs, it will be a big hit to the bottom line, possibly bankrupting the lending bank. Basically, this is what happened to Peregrine Investments Holdings, one of Hong Kong’s leading investment banks that failed due to the Asian crisis of 1997. The bank failed in large part from a single loan to PT Steady Safe, an Indonesian taxi-cab operator, that amounted to $235 million, a quarter of the bank’s equity capital. In the case of our single loan, the spread of the distribution is quite large, with a variance of 99, which implies a standard deviation (SD) of about $10 million. Simply focusing on the standard deviation, however, is not fully informative given the severe skewness in the distribution. In the second panel, we consider ten loans, each for $10 million. The total notional is the same as before. We assume that defaults are independent. The expected loss is still $1 million, or 10 ⫻ 0.01 ⫻ $10 million. The SD, however, is now $3 million, much less than before. Next, the third panel considers a hundred loans of $1 million each. The expected loss is still $1 million, but the SD is now $1 million, even lower. Finally, the fourth panel considers a thousand loans of $100,000, which create a SD of $0.3 million. For comparability, all these graphs use the same vertical and horizontal scale. This, however, does not reveal the distributions fully. This is why the ﬁfth panel expands the distribution with 1000 counterparties, which looks similar to a normal distribution. This reﬂects the central limit theorem, which states that the distribution of the sum of independent variables tends to a normal distribution. Remarkably, even starting from a highly skewed distribution, we end up with a normal distribution due to diversiﬁcation effects. This explains why portfolios of consumer loans, which are spread over a large number of credits, are less risky than typical portfolios of corporate loans. With N events that occur with the same probability p, deﬁne the variable X ⳱

冱N i ⳱1 bi as the number of defaults (where bi ⳱ 1 when default occurs). The expected credit loss on our portfolio is then E [CL] ⳱ E [X ] ⫻ $100冫 N ⳱ pN ⫻ $100冫 N ⳱ p ⫻ $100

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which does not depend on N but rather on the average probability of default and total exposure, $100 million. When the events are independent, the variance of this variable is, using the results from a binomial distribution, V [CL] ⳱ V [X ] ⫻ ($100冫 N )2 ⳱ p(1 ⫺ p)N ⫻ ($100冫 N )2

(18.10)

which gives a standard deviation of SD[CL] ⳱ 冪p(1 ⫺ p) ⫻ $100冫 冪N

(18.11)

For a constant total notional, this shrinks to zero as N increases. We should note the crucial assumption that the credits are independent. When this is not the case, the distribution will lose its asymmetry more slowly. Even with a very large number of consumer loans, the dispersion may not tend to zero because the

AM FL Y

general state of the economy is a common factor behind consumer credits. Indeed, many more defaults occur in a recession than in an expansion. Institutions loosely attempt to achieve diversiﬁcation by concentration limits. In other words, they limit the extent of exposure, say loans, to a particular industrial or geographical sector. The rationale behind this is that defaults are more highly cor-

TE

related within sectors than across sectors. Conversely, concentration risk is the risk that too many defaults could occur at the same time. Example 18-8: FRM Exam 1997----Question 11/Credit Risk 18-8. A commercial loan department lends to two different BB-rated obligors for one year. Assume the one-year probability of default for a BB-rated obligor is 10% and there is zero correlation (independence) between the obligor’s probability of defaulting. What is the probability that both obligors will default in the same year? a) 1% b) 2% c) 10% d) 20%

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FIGURE 18-3 Distribution of Credit Losses 1 credit of $100 million N=1, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$99 million

100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$100 -$90 -$80 -$70 -$60 -$50 -$40 -$30 -$20 -$10 $0 10 independent credits of $10 million N=10, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$9.9 million

100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$100 -$90 -$80 -$70 -$60 -$50 -$40 -$30 -$20 -$10 $0

FIGURE 18-3 Distribution of Credit Losses (Continued) 100 independent credits of $1 million N=100, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$990,000

100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$100 -$90 -$80 -$70 -$60 -$50 -$40 -$30 -$20 -$10 $0 1000 independent credits of $100,000 N=1000, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$99,000

100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$100 -$90 -$80 -$70 -$60 -$50 -$40 -$30 -$20 -$10 $0

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FIGURE 18-3b Distribution of Credit Losses (Continued) 1000 independent credits of $100,000 N=1000, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$99,000 100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$10 -$9 -$8 -$7 -$6 -$5 -$4 -$3 -$2 -$1 $0

Example 18-9: FRM Exam 1997----Question 12/Credit Risk 18-9. What is the probability of no defaults over the next year from a portfolio of 10 BBB-rated obligors? Assume the one-year probability of default for a BBB-rated counterparty is 5% and assumes zero correlation (independence) between the obligor’s probability of default. a) 5.0% b) 50.0% c) 60.0% d) 95.0% Example 18-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 5 18-10. What is the approximate probability of one particular bond defaulting, and none of the others, over the next year from a portfolio of 20 BBB-rated obligors? Assume the 1-year probability of default for a BBB-rated counterparty to be 4% and obligor defaults to be independent from one another. a) 2% b) 4% c) 45% d) 96%

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INTRODUCTION TO CREDIT RISK

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 18-1: FRM Exam 2000----Question 36/Credit Risk a) Settlement risk is due to the exchange of notional principal in different currencies at different points in time, which exposes one counterparty to default after it has made payment. There would be less risk with netted payments. Example 18-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 85/Market Risk b) Answers (c) and (d) are both correct. Answers (a) and (b) are contradictory. A multilateral netting system concentrates the credit risk into one institution. This could potentially create much damage if this institution fails. Example 18-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 46/Credit Risk c) The expected loss is 冱 i pi ⫻ CEi ⫻ (1 ⫺ fi ) ⳱ $20,000,000 ⫻ 0.02(1 ⫺ 0.60) Ⳮ $30,000,000 ⫻ 0.04(1 ⫺ 0.40) ⳱ $880,000. Example 18-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 38/Credit Risk b) Since the subsidiary defaults when the parent defaults, the joint probability is simply that of the parent defaulting. Example 18-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 16/Credit Risk a) The fee must reﬂect the joint probability of default. As described in Equation (18.7), if defaults of A and B are highly correlated, the default of one implies a greater probability of a second default. Hence the fee must be higher. Example 18-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 42/Credit Risk c) The probability of losing money is driven by (i) a fall in the value of the collateral and (ii) default by the Russian bank. If the two events are independent, the joint probability is 5% ⫻ 1% ⳱ 0.05%. In contrast, if the value of securities always drops at the same time the Russian bank defaults, the probability is simply that of the Russian bank’s default, or 5%.

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Example 18-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 51/Credit Risk a) The three loss events are (i) Default by the ﬁrst alone, with probability 0.10 ⫺ 0.03 ⳱ 0.07 (ii) Default by the second, with probability 0.20 ⫺ 0.03 ⳱ 0.17 (iii) Default by both, with probability 0.03 The respective losses are £100 ⫻ (1⫺0.4) ⫻ 0.07 ⳱ 4.2, £100 ⫻ (1⫺0.4) ⫻ 0.17 ⳱ 10.2, £200 ⫻ (1 ⫺ 0.4) ⫻ 0.03 ⳱ 3.6, for a total expected loss of £18 million. Example 18-8: FRM Exam 1997----Question 11/Credit Risk a) With independence, this probability is 10% ⫻ 10% ⳱ 1%. Example 18-9: FRM Exam 1997----Question 12/Credit Risk c) Since the probability of one default is 5%, that on a bond no defaulting is 100 ⫺ 5 ⳱ 95%. With independence, the joint probability of 10 no defaults is (1 ⫺ 5%)10 ⳱ 60%. Example 18-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 5 a) This question asks the probability that one particular bond will default and 19 others will not. Assuming independence, this is 0.04(1 ⫺ 0.04)19 ⳱ 1.84%. Note that the probability that any bond will default and none others is 20 times this, or 36.8%.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 19 Measuring Actuarial Default Risk Default risk is the primary component of credit risk. It represents the probability of default (PD), as well as the loss given default (LGD). When default occurs, the actual loss is the combination of exposure at default and loss given default. Default risk can be measured using two approaches: (1) Actuarial methods, which provide “objective” (as opposed to risk-neutral) measures of default rates, usually based on historical default data, and (2) Market-price methods, which infer from traded prices the market’s assessment of default risk, along with a possible risk premium. The market prices of debt, equity, or credit derivatives can be used to derive risk-neutral measures of default risk. Risk-neutral measures provide a useful shortcut to price assets, such as options. For risk management purposes, however, they are contaminated by the effect of risk premiums and therefore do not exactly measure default probabilities. In contrast, objective measures describe the “actual” or “natural” probability of default. On the other hand, since risk-neutral measures are derived directly from market data, they should incorporate all the news about a creditor’s prospects. Actuarial measures of default probabilities are provided by credit rating agencies, which classify borrowers by credit ratings that are supposed to quantify default risk. Such ratings are external to the ﬁrm. Similar techniques can be used to develop internal ratings. Such measures can also be derived from accounting variables models. These models relate the occurrence of default to a list of ﬁrm characteristics, such as accounting variables. Statistical techniques such as discriminant analysis then examine how these variables are related to the occurrence or nonoccurrence of default. Presumably, rating agencies use similar procedures, augmented by additional data. This chapter focuses on actuarial measures of default risk. Market-based measures of default risk will be examined in the next chapter. Section 19.1 examines ﬁrst the deﬁnition of a credit event. Section 19.2 then examines credit ratings, describing how historical default rates can be used to infer default probabilities. Recovery rates

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are discussed in Section 19.3. Section 19.4 then presents an application to the construction and rating of a collateralized bond obligation. Finally, Section 19.5 broadly discusses the evaluation of corporate and sovereign credit risk.

19.1

Credit Event

A credit event is a discrete state. Either it happens or not. The issue is the deﬁnition of the event, which must be framed in legal terms. One could say, for instance, that the deﬁnition of default for a bond obligation is quite narrow. Default on the bond occurs when payment on that same bond is missed. Default on a bond, however, reﬂects the creditor’s ﬁnancial distress and is almost always accompanied by default on other obligations. This is why rating agencies give a credit rating for the issuer.1 Likewise, the state of default is deﬁned by Standard & Poor’s (S&P), a credit rating agency, as The ﬁrst occurrence of a payment default on any ﬁnancial obligation, rated or unrated, other than a ﬁnancial obligation subject to a bona ﬁde commercial dispute; an exception occurs when an interest payment missed on the due date is made within the grace period. This deﬁnition, however, needs to be deﬁned more precisely for credit derivatives, whose payoffs are directly related to credit events. We will cover credit derivatives in Chapter 22. The deﬁnition of a credit event has been formalized by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA), an industry group, which lists these events: Bankruptcy, which is a situation involving (1) The dissolution of the obligor (other than merger) (2) The insolvency, or inability to pay its debt, (3) The assignment of claims (4) The institution of bankruptcy proceeding (5) The appointment of receivership (6) The attachment of substantially all assets by a third party Failure to pay, which means failure of the creditor to make due payment; this is usually triggered after an agreed-upon grace period and above a certain amount 1

Speciﬁc bonds can be as higher as or lower than this issuer rating, depending on their relative priority.

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Obligation/cross default, which means the occurrence of a default (other than failure to make a payment) on any other similar obligation Obligation/cross acceleration, which means the occurrence of a default (other than failure to make a payment) on any other similar obligation that results in that obligation becoming due immediately Repudiation/moratorium, which means that the counterparty is rejecting, or challenges, the validity of the obligation Restructuring, which means a waiver, deferral, or rescheduling of the obligation with the effect that the terms are less favorable than before. In addition, other events sometimes included are Downgrade, which means the credit rating is lower than previously, or withdrawn Currency inconvertibility, which means the imposition of exchange controls or other currency restrictions imposed by a governmental or associated authority Governmental action, which means either (1) declarations or actions by a government or regulatory authority that impair the validity of the obligation, or (2) the occurrence of war or other armed conﬂict that impairs the functioning of the government or banking activities The ISDA deﬁnitions are designed to minimize legal risks, by precisely wording the deﬁnition of credit event. Sometimes unforeseen situations develop. Even now, it is sometimes not clear whether a bank debt restructuring constitutes a credit event, as in the recent cases of Conseco, Xerox, and Marconi. Another notable default is that of Argentina, which represents the largest sovereign default recorded so far, in terms of external debt. Argentina announced in November 2001 a restructuring of its local debt that was more favorable to itself. Some holders of credit default swaps argued that this was a “credit event,” since the exchange was coerced, and that they were entitled to payment. Swap sellers disagreed. This became an unambiguous default, however, when Argentina announced in December it would stop paying interest on its $135 billion foreign debt. Nonetheless, the situation was unresolved for holders of credit swaps that expired just before the ofﬁcial default. In such situations, the ISDA tries to clarify the language of its agreement.

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Example 19-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 5/Credit Risk 19-1. Which of the following events is not a “credit event”? a) Bankruptcy b) Calling back a bond c) Downgrading d) Default on payments Example 19-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 128/Credit Risk 19-2. Which of the following losses can be considered as resulting from an “event risk”? I) Losses on a diversiﬁed portfolio of stocks during the stock market decline and hedge fund crisis in the Autumn/Fall of 1998. II) A U.S. investor bought a bond whose payments are in Japanese yen. The investor made a loss as Japanese Yen depreciated relative to the dollar. III) A holding in RJR Nabisco corporate bonds sustained a loss in 1988 when RJR Nabisco was taken over for $25 billion via a leveraged buyout which resulted in a reduction of its debt rating to noninvestment grade. IV) A municipal bond portfolio suffers a loss when municipal bonds are declared as no longer tax exempt by the tax authority, with no compensation being paid to investors. a) III only b) All the above c) I and IV d) III and IV

19.2

Default Rates

19.2.1

Credit Ratings

A credit rating is an “evaluation of creditworthiness” issued by a rating agency. More technically, it has been deﬁned by Moody’s, a ratings agency, as an “opinion of the future ability, legal obligation, and willingness of a bond issuer or other obligor to make full and timely payments on principal and interest due to investors.” Table 19-1 presents the interpretation of various credit ratings issued by the two major rating agencies, Moody’s and Standard and Poor’s. These ratings correspond to long-term debt; other ratings apply to short-term debt. Generally, the two agencies provide similar ratings for the same issuer.

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Table 19-1. Classiﬁcation by Credit Ratings Explanation

Standard & Poor’s

Moody’s Services

AAA AA A BBB

Aaa Aa A Baa

BB B CCC CC C D

Ba B Caa Ca C

Investment grade: Highest grade High grade Upper medium grade Medium grade Speculative grade: Lower medium grade Speculative Poor standing Highly speculative Lowest quality, no interest In default Modiﬁers: Example AⳭ, A, A⫺, A1, A2, A3

Ratings are broadly divided into Investment grade, that is, at and above BBB for S&P and Baa for Moody’s Speculative grade, or below investment grade, for the rest This classiﬁcation is sometimes used to deﬁne classes of investments allowable to some investors, such as pension funds. These ratings represent objective (or actuarial) probabilities of default.2 Indeed, the agencies have published studies that track the frequency of bond default in the United States, classiﬁed by initial ratings for different horizons. These frequencies can be used to convert ratings to default probabilities. The agencies use a number of criteria to decide on the credit rating, among other accounting ratios. Table 19-2 presents median value for selected accounting ratios for industrial corporations. The ﬁrst column (under “leverage”) shows that the ratio of total debt to total capital (debt plus book equity) varies systematically across ratings. Highly rated companies have low ratios, 23% for AAA ﬁrms. In contrast, BB-rated (just below investment grade) companies have a debt-to-capital ratio of 63%. This implies a capital-to-equity leverage ratio of 2.7 to 1.3 2

In fact, the ratings measure the probability of default (PD) for S&P and the joint effect of PD ⫻ LGD for Moody’s, where LGD is the proportional loss given default. 3 Deﬁning D , E as debt and equity, this is obtained as (DⳭE )冫 E ⳱ D 冫 E Ⳮ1 ⳱ 63%冫 (1 ⫺ 63%)Ⳮ 1 ⳱ 2.7

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The right-hand-side panel (under “cash ﬂow”) also shows systematic variations in a measure of free cash ﬂow divided by interest payments. This represents the number of times the cash ﬂow can cover interest payments. Focusing on earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT), AAA-rated companies have a safe cushion of 21.4, whereas BB-rated companies have coverage of 2.1 only. Table 19-2. S&P’s Financial Ratios Across Ratings

AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC

Leverage: (Percent) Total Debt LT Debt /Capital /Capital 23 13 38 28 43 34 48 43 63 57 75 70 88 69

Cash Flow Coverage: (Multiplier) EBITDA EBIT /Interest /Interest 26.5 21.4 12.9 10.1 9.1 6.1 5.8 3.7 3.4 2.1 1.8 0.8 1.3 0.1

AM FL Y

Rating

TE

Note: From S&P’s Corporate Ratings Criteria (2002), based on median ﬁnancial ratios over 1998 to 2000 for industrial corporations. EBITDA is deﬁned as earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization.

Example 19-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 8/Credit Risk 19-3. Which of the following is Moody’s lowest credit rating? a) Aaa2 b) Baa1 c) Baa3 d) Ba2 Example 19-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 37/Credit Risk 19-4. A credit-risk analyst has calculated two signiﬁcant ﬁnancial ﬁgures for Company X; a pretax interest coverage ratio of 3.75 and long-term debt/equity of 35%. Given this information, what is the most likely rating grade that the analyst will assign to Company X? a) Investment grade b) Speculative grade c) Noninvestment grade d) Junk grade

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Historical Default Rates

Tables 19-3 and 19-4 display historical default rates as reported by Moody’s and Stan¯, dard and Poor’s, respectively. These describe the proportion of ﬁrms that default, X which is a statistical estimate of the true default probability: ¯) ⳱ p E (X

(19.1)

For example, borrowers with an initial Moody’s rating of Baa experienced an average 0.34% default rate over the next year, and 7.99% over the following ten years. Similar rates are obtained for S&P’s BBB-rated credits, who experienced an average 0.36% default rate over the next year, and 7.60% over the following ten years. Thus, higher ratings are associated with lower default rates. As a result, this information could be used as estimates of default probability for an initial rating class. In addition, the tables show that the default rate increases with the horizon, for a given initial credit rating. Credit risk increases with the horizon.

TABLE 19-3: Moody’s Cumulative Default Rates (Percent), 1920–2002 Rating Aaa Aa A Baa Ba B Caa-C Inv. Spec. All Rating Aaa Aa A Baa Ba B Caa-C Inv. Spec. All

1 0.00 0.07 0.08 0.34 1.42 4.79 14.74 0.17 3.83 1.50

2 0.00 0.22 0.27 0.99 3.43 10.31 23.95 0.50 7.75 3.09

3 0.02 0.36 0.57 1.79 5.60 15.59 30.57 0.93 11.41 4.62

4 0.09 0.54 0.92 2.69 7.89 20.14 35.32 1.41 14.69 6.02

Year 5 6 0.19 0.29 0.85 1.21 1.28 1.67 3.59 4.51 10.16 12.28 23.99 27.12 38.83 41.94 1.93 2.48 17.58 20.09 7.28 8.41

7 0.41 1.60 2.09 5.39 14.14 30.00 44.23 3.03 22.28 9.43

8 0.59 2.01 2.48 6.25 15.99 32.36 46.44 3.57 24.30 10.38

9 0.78 2.37 2.93 7.16 17.63 34.37 48.42 4.14 26.05 11.27

10 1.02 2.78 3.42 7.99 19.42 36.10 50.19 4.71 27.80 12.14

11 1.24 3.24 3.95 8.81 21.06 37.79 52.30 5.30 29.47 13.01

12 1.40 3.77 4.47 9.62 22.65 39.37 54.4 5.90 31.08 13.85

13 1.61 4.29 4.94 10.41 24.23 40.85 56.24 6.46 32.64 14.66

14 1.70 4.82 5.40 11.12 25.61 42.33 58.22 7.00 34.07 15.40

Year 15 16 1.75 1.85 5.23 5.51 5.88 6.35 11.74 12.33 26.83 27.96 43.62 44.94 60.08 61.78 7.48 7.92 35.36 36.58 16.07 16.69

17 1.96 5.75 6.63 12.95 29.13 45.91 63.27 8.30 37.72 17.24

18 2.02 5.98 6.94 13.49 30.24 46.68 64.81 8.65 38.78 17.75

19 2.14 6.30 7.23 13.93 31.14 47.32 66.25 8.99 39.67 18.21

20 2.20 6.54 7.54 14.39 32.05 47.60 67.59 9.32 40.46 18.64

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Rating AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC Inv. Spec. All

1 2 3 4 0.00 0.00 0.03 0.07 0.01 0.03 0.08 0.17 0.05 0.15 0.30 0.48 0.36 0.96 1.61 2.58 1.47 4.49 8.18 11.69 6.72 14.99 22.19 27.83 30.95 40.35 46.43 51.25 0.13 0.34 0.59 0.93 5.56 11.39 16.86 21.43 1.73 3.51 5.12 6.48

5 0.11 0.28 0.71 3.53 14.77 31.99 56.77 1.29 25.12 7.57

6 0.20 0.42 0.94 4.49 17.99 35.37 58.74 1.65 28.35 8.52

7 0.30 0.61 1.19 5.33 20.43 38.56 59.46 1.99 31.02 9.33

Year 8 0.47 0.77 1.46 6.10 22.63 41.25 59.85 2.33 33.32 10.04

9 0.54 0.90 1.78 6.77 24.85 42.90 61.57 2.64 35.24 10.66

10 0.61 1.06 2.10 7.60 26.61 44.59 62.92 2.99 36.94 11.27

11 0.61 1.20 2.37 8.48 28.47 45.84 63.41 3.32 38.40 11.81

12 0.61 1.37 2.60 9.34 29.76 46.92 63.41 3.63 39.48 12.28

13 0.61 1.51 2.84 10.22 30.98 47.71 63.41 3.95 40.40 12.71

14 0.75 1.63 3.08 11.28 31.70 48.68 64.25 4.30 41.24 13.17

15 0.92 1.77 3.46 12.44 32.56 49.57 64.25 4.75 42.05 13.69

Note: Static pool average cumulative default rates (adjusted for “not rated” borrowers).

One problem with such historical information, however, is the relative paucity of data. There are simply not many instances of highly rated borrowers that default over long horizons. For instance, S&P reports default rates up to 15 years using data from 1981 to 2002. The one-year default rates represent 23 years of data, that is, 1981, 1982, and so on to 2002. There are, however, only eight years of data for the 15-year default rates, that is, 1981-1995 to 1988-2002. Thus the sample size is much shorter (and also overlapping and therefore not independent). If so, omitting or adding a few borrowers can drastically alter the reported default rates. This can lead to inconsistencies in the tables. For instance, the default rates for CCC-borrowers is the same, at 63.41 percent, from year 11 to 13. This would imply that there is no further risk of default after 11 years, which is unrealistic. Also, when the categories are further broken down into modiﬁers (e.g., Aaa1, Aaa2, Aaa3), default rates sometimes do not decrease monotonically with the ratings, which is a small sample effect. We can try to assess the accuracy of these default rates by computing their standard error. Consider for instance the default rate over the ﬁrst year for AA-rated ¯ ⳱ 0.01% in this S&P sample. This was taken out of credits, which averaged out to X a total of about N ⳱ 8, 000 observations, which we assume to be independent. The variance of the average is, from the distribution of a binomial process, ¯) ⳱ V (X

p(1 ⫺ p) N

(19.2)

which gives a standard error of about 0.011%. This is on the same order as the average of 0.01%, indicating that there is substantial imprecision in this average default rate. So, we could not really distinguish an AA credit from an AAA credit.

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The problem is made worse with lower sample sizes, which is the case in non-U.S. markets or when the true p is changing over time. For instance, if we observe a 5% default rate among 100 observations, the standard error becomes 2.2%, which is very large. Therefore, a major issue with credit risk is that estimation of default rates for low-probability events can be very imprecise. Example 19-5: FRM Exam 1997----Question 28/Credit Risk 19-5. Based on historical data from S&P, what is the approximate historical 1-year probability of default for a BB-rated obligor? a) 0.05% b) 0.20% c) 1.0% d) 5.0% Example 19-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 29/Credit Risk 19-6. Based on historical evidence, a B-rated counterparty is approximately 16 times more likely to default over a 1-year time period than a BBB-rated counterparty. Over a 10-year time period, a B-rated counterparty is how many more times likely to default than a BBB-rated counterparty? a) 5 b) 9 c) 16 d) 24

19.2.3

Cumulative and Marginal Default Rates

The default rates reported in Tables 19-3 and 19-4 are cumulative default rates for an initial credit rating, that is, measure the total frequency of default at any time between the starting date and year T . It is also informative to measure the marginal default rate, which is the frequency of default during year T . The default process is illustrated in Figure 19-1. Here, d1 is the marginal default rate during year 1. Next, d2 is the marginal default rate during year 2. In order to default during the second year, the ﬁrm must have survived the ﬁrst year and defaulted in the second. Thus, the probability of defaulting in year 2 is given by (1⫺d1 )d2 . The cumulative probability of defaulting up to year 2 is then C2 ⳱ d1Ⳮ(1 ⫺ d1 )d2 . Subtracting and adding one, this is also C2 ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ d1 )(1 ⫺ d2 ), which perhaps has a more intuitive interpretation, as this is one minus the probability of surviving the whole period.

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More formally, we deﬁne m[t Ⳮ N 兩 R (t )] as the number of issuers rated R at the end of year t that default in year T ⳱ t Ⳮ N n[t Ⳮ N 兩 R (t )] as the number of issuers rated R at the end of year t that have not defaulted by the beginning of year t Ⳮ N FIGURE 19-1 Sequential Default Process Default d1 Default d2 Default

1-d 1

d3

No default 1- d 2 Cumulative:

No default

C 1=d 1

1- d 3 No default

C 2=d 1+(1-d

1)d 2

C 3= d 1+(1-d

1) d 2+(1-d

1)(1-d

2) d 3

Marginal Default Rate during Year T This is the proportion of issuers initially rated R at initial time t that default in year T , relative to the remaining number at the beginning of the same year T : dN (R ) ⳱

m[t Ⳮ N 兩 R (t )] n[t Ⳮ N 兩 R (t )]

Survival Rate This is the proportion of issuers initially rated R that will not have defaulted by T : SN (R ) ⳱ ⌸iN⳱1 (1 ⫺ di (R ))

(19.3)

Marginal Default Rate from Start to Year T This is the proportion of issuers initially rated R that defaulted in year T , relative to the initial number in year t . For this to happen, the issuer will have survived until year t Ⳮ N ⫺ 1, then default the next year kN (R ) ⳱ SN ⫺1 (R )dN (R )

(19.4)

Cumulative Default Rate This is the proportion of issuers initially rated R that defaulted at any point until year T CN (R ) ⳱ k1 (R ) Ⳮ k2 (R ) Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ kN (R ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ SN (R )

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Average Default Rate We can express the total cumulative default rate into an average, per period default rate d , by setting CN ⳱ 1 ⫺ ⌸iN⳱1 (1 ⫺ di ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ d )N

(19.6)

As we move from annual to semiannual and ultimately continuous compounding, the average default rate becomes CN ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ d a )N ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ d s 冫 2)2N y 1 ⫺ e⫺d

cN

(19.7)

where da , ds , dc are default rates using annual, semiannual, and continuous compounding. This is exactly equivalent to various deﬁnitions for the compounding of interest.

Example: Computing marginal and cumulative default probabilities Consider a “B” rated ﬁrm that has default rates of d1 ⳱ 5%, d2 ⳱ 7%. - In the ﬁrst year, k1 ⳱ d1 ⳱ 5%. - After 1 year, the survival rate is S1 ⳱ 0.95. - The probability of defaulting in year 2 is then k2 ⳱ S1 ⫻ d2 ⳱ 0.95 ⫻ 0.07 ⫻ ⳱ 6.65%. - After 2 years, the survival rate is (1 ⫺ d1 )(1 ⫺ d2 ) ⳱ 0.95 ⫻ 0.93 ⳱ 0.8835. - The cumulative probability of defaulting in years 1 and 2 is 5%Ⳮ6.65% ⳱ 11.65%. Based on this information, we can map these “forward”, or marginal, default rates from cumulative default rates for various credit ratings. Figure 19-2, for instance, displays cumulative default rates reported by Moody’s in Table 19-3. The marginal default rates are derived from these and plotted in Figure 19-3. It is interesting to see that the marginal probability of default increases with maturity for initial high credit ratings, but decreases for initial low credit ratings. The increase is due to a mean reversion effect. The fortunes of an Aaa-rated ﬁrm can only stay the same, at best, and often will deteriorate over time. In contrast, a B-rated ﬁrm that has survived the ﬁrst few years must have a decreasing probability of defaulting as time goes by. This is a survival effect. The analysis of default probabilities is similar to that of mortality rates for mortgage-backed securities. If the annual default rate is d , the monthly default rate, assuming it is constant, is implicitly given by (1 ⫺ dM )12 ⳱ (1 ⫺ d )

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FIGURE 19-2 Moody’s Cumulative Default Rates, 1920–2002 Default rate 100% 90% B Rated Ba Rated Baa Rated A Rated Aa Rated Aaa Rated

80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0%

0

2

4

6

8 10 12 14 Maturity (years)

16

18

20

FIGURE 19-3 Moody’s Marginal Default Rates, 1920–2002 5%

Default rate

B Rated Ba Rated Baa Rated A Rated Aa Rated Aaa Rated

4% 3% 2% 1% 0%

0

2

4

6

8 10 12 14 Maturity (years)

16

18

20

which says that the ﬁrm must survive all 12 months sequentially to survive the year. But, as we have seen, the marginal probability of default increases with time for high credits.

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Example 19-7: FRM Exam 1997----Question 2/Credit Risk 19-7. The probability of an AA-rated counterparty defaulting over the next year is 0.06%. Therefore, one would expect the probability of it defaulting over the next 3 months to be a) Between 0% ⫺ 0.015% b) Exactly 0.015% c) Between 0.015% ⫺ 0.030% d) Greater than 0.030% Example 19-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 37/Credit Risk 19-8. A company has a constant 30% per year probability of default. What is the probability the company will be in default after three years? a) 34% b) 48% c) 66% d) 90% Example 19-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 31/Credit Risk 19-9. According to Standard and Poor’s, the 5-year cumulative probability default for BB-rated debt is 15%. If the marginal probability of default for BB debt from year 5 to year 6 (conditional on no prior default) is 10%, then what is the 6-year cumulative probability default for BB-rated debt? a) 25% b) 16.55% c) 15% d) 23.50% Example 19-10: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Credit Risk 19-10. The ratio of the default probability of an AA-rated issuer over the default probability of a B-rated issuer a) Generally increases with time to maturity b) Generally decreases with time to maturity c) Remains roughly the same with time to maturity d) Depends on the industry sector

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Example 19-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 43/Credit Risk 19-11. The marginal default rates (conditional on no previous default) for a BB-rated ﬁrm during the ﬁrst, second, and third years are 3, 4, and 5 percent, respectively. What is the cumulative probability of defaulting over the next three years? a) 10.78 percent b) 11.54 percent c) 12.00 percent d) 12.78 percent Example 19-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 34/Credit Risk 19-12. What is the difference between the marginal default probability and the cumulative default probability? a) Marginal default probability is the probability that a borrower will default in any given year, whereas the cumulative default probability is over a speciﬁed multi-year period. b) Marginal default probability is the probability that a borrower will default due to a particular credit event, whereas the cumulative default probability is for all possible credit events. c) Marginal default probability is the minimum probability that a borrower will default, whereas the cumulative default probability is the maximum probability. d) Both a and c are correct.

19.2.4

Transition Probabilities

As we have seen, the measurement of long-term default rates can be problematic with small sample sizes. The computation of these default rates can be simpliﬁed by assuming a Markov process for the ratings migration, described by a transition matrix. Migration is a discrete process that consists of credit ratings changing from one period to the next. The transition matrix gives the probability of moving to one rating conditional on the rating at the beginning of the period. The usual assumption is that these moves follow a Markov process, or that migrations across states are independent from one period to the next.4 This type of process exhibits no carry-over effect. More formally, a Markov chain describes a stochastic process in discrete time where the conditional distribution, given today’s value, is constant over time. Only present values are relevant. 4

There is some empirical evidence, however, that credit downgrades are not independent but instead display a momentum effect.

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Table 19-5 gives an example of a simpliﬁed transition matrix for 4 states, A, B, C, D, where the last represents default. Consider a company in year 0 in the B category. The company could default: - In year 1, with probability D [t1 兩 B (t0 )] ⳱ P (D1 兩 B0 ) ⳱ 3% - In year 2, after going from B to A in the ﬁrst year, then A to D in the second, or from B to B, then to D, or from B to C, then to D. The total probability is P (D2 兩 A1 )P (A1 ) Ⳮ P (D2 兩 B1 )P (B1 ) Ⳮ P (D2 兩 C1 )P (C1 ) ⳱ 0.00 ⫻ 0.02 Ⳮ 0.03 ⫻ 0.93 Ⳮ 0.23 ⫻ 0.02 ⳱ 3.25% Table 19-5 Credit Ratings Transition Probabilities State Starting A B C D

A 0.97 0.02 0.01 0

Ending B C 0.03 0.00 0.93 0.02 0.12 0.64 0 0

D 0.00 0.03 0.23 1.00

Total Prob. 1.00 1.00 1.00 1.00

The cumulative probability of default over the two years is then 3% + 3.25% = 6.25%. Figure 19-4 illustrates the various paths to default in years 1, 2, and 3. FIGURE 19-4 Paths to Default

Time 0

Time 1

Time 2

B

B

B

B

C

C

C

D

D

Paths to default: B →D

0.03=0.0300

Default prob: 0.0300 Cumulative: 0.0300

A

A

B →A→D 0.02*0.00=0.0000 B →B→D 0.93*0.03=0.0279 B →C→D 0.02*0.23=0.0046

B →A→A→D B →A→B→D B →A→C→D B →B→A→D B →B→B→D B →B→C→D B →C→A→D B →C→B→D B →C→C→D

Time 3 A

D

0.02*0.97*0.00=0.0000 0.02*0.03*0.03=0.0000 0.02*0.00*0.23=0.0000 0.93*0.02*0.00=0.0000 0.93*0.93*0.03=0.0259 0.93*0.02*0.23=0.0043 0.02*0.00*0.00=0.0000 0.02*0.12*0.03=0.0001 0.02*0.64*0.23=0.0029

0.0325

0.0333

0.0625

0.0958

The advantage of using this approach is that the resulting data are more robust and consistent. For instance, the 15-year cumulative default rate obtained this way will always be greater than the 14-year default rate. much greater precision.

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Example 19-13: FRM Exam 2000----Question 50/Credit Risk 19-13. The transition matrix in credit risk measurement generally represents a) Probabilities of migrating from one rating quality to another over the lifetime of the loan b) Correlations among the transitions for the various rating quality assets within one year c) Correlations of various market movements that impact rating quality for a 10-day holding period d) Probabilities of migrating from one rating quality to another within one year

19.2.5

Predicting Default Probabilities

Defaults are also correlated with economic activity. Moody’s, for example, has com-

AM FL Y

pared the annual default rate to the level of industrial production since 1920. Moody’s reports a marked increase in the default rate in the 1930s at the time of the great depression. Similarly, the slowdown in economic activity around the 1990 and 2001 recessions was associated with an increase in defaults.

These default rates, however, do not control for structural shifts in the credit

TE

quality. In recent years, many issuers came to the market with a lower initial credit rating than in the past. This should lead to more defaults even with a stable economic environment.

FIGURE 19-5 Time Variation in Defaults (from S&P) Default rate 14% 12%

Shaded areas indicate recessions

B-rated Speculative grade

10%

Investment grade

8% 6% 4% 2%

1980 1982 1984 1986 1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002

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To control for this effect, Figure 19-5 plots the default rate for B credits as well as for investment-grade and speculative credits over the years 1981 to 2002. As expected, the default rate of investment-grade bonds is very low. More interestingly, however, it displays minimal variation through time. We do observe, however, signiﬁcant variation in the default rate of B credits, which peaks during the recessions that started in 1981, 1990, and 2001. Thus, economic activity signiﬁcantly affects credit risk and the effect is most marked for speculative grade bonds.

19.3

Recovery Rates

Credit risk also depends on the loss given default (LGD). This can be measured as one minus the recovery rate, or fraction recovered after default.

19.3.1

The Bankruptcy Process

Normally, default is a state that affects all obligations of an issuer equally, especially when accompanied by a bankruptcy ﬁling. In most countries, a formal bankruptcy process provides a centralized forum for resolving all the claims against the corporation. The bankruptcy process creates a pecking order for a company’s creditors. This spells out the order in which creditors are paid, thereby creating differences in the recovery rate across creditors. Within each class, however, creditors should be treated equally. In the United States, ﬁrms that are unable to make required payments can ﬁle for either Chapter 7 bankruptcy, which leads to the liquidation of the ﬁrm’s assets, or Chapter 11 bankruptcy, which leads to a reorganization of the ﬁrm during which the ﬁrm continues to operate under court supervision. Under Chapter 7, the proceeds from liquidation should be divided according to the absolute priority rule, which states that payments should be made ﬁrst to claimants with the highest priority. Table 19-6 describes the pecking order in bankruptcy proceedings. At the top of the list come secured creditors, who because of their property right are paid to the fullest extent of the value of the collateral. Then come priority creditors, which consist mainly of post-bankruptcy creditors. Finally, general creditors can be paid if funds remain after distribution to others.

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT TABLE 19-6: Pecking Order in U.S. Federal Bankruptcy Law

Seniority Highest (paid ﬁrst)

Lowest (paid last)

Type of Creditor (1) Secured creditors (up to the extent of secured collateral) (2) Priority creditors: - Firms that lend money during bankruptcy period - Providers of goods and services during bankruptcy period (e.g., employees, laywers, vendors) - Taxes (3) General creditors: - Unsecured creditors before bankruptcy - Shareholders

Similar rules apply under Chapter 11. In this situation, the ﬁrm must submit a reorganization plan, which speciﬁes new ﬁnancial claims to the ﬁrm’s assets. The absolute priority rule, however, is often violated in Chapter 11 settlements. Junior debt holders and stockholders often receive some proceeds even though senior shareholders are not paid in full. This is allowed to facilitate timely resolution of the bankruptcy and to avoid future lawsuits. Even so, there remain sharp differences in the recovery across seniority.

19.3.2

Estimates of Recovery Rates

Credit rating agencies measure recovery rates using the value of the debt right after default. This is viewed as the market’s best estimate of the future recovery and takes into account the value of the ﬁrm’s assets, the estimated cost of the bankruptcy process, and various means of payment (e.g., using equity to pay bondholders), discounted into the present. The recovery rate has been shown to depend on a number of factors. The status or seniority of the debtor: claims with lower seniority have lower recovery rates. The state of the economy: recovery rates tend to be lower when the economy is in a recession. Ratings can also include the loss given default. The same borrower may have various classes of debt, which may have different credit ratings due to the different level of protection. If so, debt with lower seniority should carry a lower rating.

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Tables 19-7 and 19-8 display recovery rates for corporate debt. Moody’s, for instance, estimates the average recovery rate for senior unsecured debt at f ⳱ 49%. S&P estimates this number at around f ⳱ 47%, which is quite close. Generally, agencies conservatively estimate recovery rates to be in the range of 25 to 44 percent for senior unsecured bonds. Derivative instruments rank as senior unsecured creditors and would be expected to have the same recovery rates as senior unsecured debt. Bank loans are usually secured and therefore have higher recovery rates, typically assumed to be in the range of 50 to 60 percent. As expected, subordinated bonds and preferred stocks have the lowest recovery rates, typically assumed to be in the range of 15 to 28 percent. TABLE 19-7: Moody’s Recovery Rates for U.S. Corporate Debt Seniority/Security Senior/Secured bank loans Equipment trust bonds Senior/Secured bonds Senior/Unsecured bonds Senior/Subordinated bonds Subordinated bonds Junior/Subordinated bonds Preferred stocks All

Min. 15.00 8.00 7.50 0.50 0.50 1.00 3.63 0.05 0.05

1st Qu. 60.00 26.25 31.00 30.75 21.34 19.62 11.38 5.03 21.00

Median 75.00 70.63 53.00 48.00 35.50 30.00 16.25 9.13 38.00

Mean 69.91 59.96 52.31 48.84 39.46 33.17 19.69 11.06 42.11

3rd Qu. 88.00 85.00 65.25 67.00 53.47 42.94 24.00 12.91 61.22

Max. 98.00 103.00 125.00 122.60 123.00 99.13 50.00 49.50 125.00

Std.Dev. 23.47 31.08 25.15 25.01 24.59 20.78 13.85 9.09 26.53

TABLE 19-8: S&P’s Historical Recovery Rates for Corporate Debt Seniority ranking Senior secured Senior unsecured Subordinated Junior subordinated Total

Number of observations 91 237 177 144 649

Average issue size ($ million) 117.8 97.5 145.5 81.9 110.0

Simple average Price 54.28 46.57 35.20 34.98 41.98

Standard deviation of Price 24.25 25.24 24.67 22.32 25.23

Weighted average Price 49.32 47.09 32.46 35.51 40.23

Source: S&P, from 649 defaulted bond prices over 1981–1999.

There is, however, much variation around the average recovery rates, as Table 19-7 shows. The table reports not only the average value but also the standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and ﬁrst and third quartile. Recovery rates vary widely. In addition, recovery rates are negatively related to default rates. During years with more bond defaults, prices after default are more depressed than usual. This correlation creates bigger losses, which extends the left tail of the credit loss distribution.

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Another difﬁculty is that these recovery rates are mainly drawn from a sample of U.S. ﬁrms, which fall under the jurisdiction of U.S. bankruptcy laws. Differences across national jurisdictions will create additional differences among recovery rates. So, these numbers can only serve as a guide to non-U.S. recovery rates. Example 19-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 58/Credit Risk 19-14. When measuring credit risk, for the same counterparty a) A loan obligation is generally rated higher than a bond obligation. b) A bond obligation is generally rated higher than a loan obligation. c) A bond obligation is generally rated the same as a loan obligation. d) Loans are never rated so it’s impossible to compare.

19.4

Application to Portfolio Rating

Much of ﬁnancial engineering is about repackaging ﬁnancial instruments to make them more palatable to investors, creating value in the process. In the 1980s, collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) brought mortgage-backed securities to the masses by repackaging their cash ﬂows into tranches with different characteristics. The same magic is performed with collateralized debt obligations (CDOs), which are securities backed by a diversiﬁed pool of corporate bonds and loans. Collateralized bond obligations (CBOs) and collateralized loan obligations (CLOs) are backed by bonds and loans, respectively. Figure 19-6 illustrates a typical CDO structure. FIGURE 19-6 Collateralized Debt Obligation Structure Special Purpose Vehicle Tranche A/Aaa L+45bp

High-yield bonds Collateral: Pool of bond obligations

Percent of capital structure 69%

Tranche B/A3 L+130bp

10%

Tranche C/Baa2 L+225bp

5.5%

Tranche D/Ba3 L+625bp

5.5%

Equity/NR 22-27%

10%

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The ﬁrst step is to place a package of high-yield bonds in a special-purpose vehicle (SPV). The second step is to specify the waterfall, or priority of payments to the various tranches. Here, 69% of the capital structure is apportioned to tranche A, which has the highest credit rating of Aaa; it pays LIBOR Ⳮ 45bp. Other tranches have lower priority and rating; intermediate tranches are typically called mezzanine. At the bottom comes the equity tranche, which is not rated. After payment to the other tranches and costs, the excess spread can be around 2.5 to 3%, which with a 10-to-1 leverage gives a yield of 25 to 30% to equity investors. In exchange, the equity is exposed to the ﬁrst dollar loss in the portfolio. Thus, the rating enhancement for the senior classes is achieved through prioritizing the cash ﬂows. Rating agencies have developed internal models to rate the senior tranches based on the probability of shortfalls due to defaults. Whatever transformation is brought about, the resulting package must obey some basic laws of conservation. For the underlying and resulting securities, we must have the same cash ﬂows at each point in time. As a result, this implies (1) The same total market value (2) The same risk proﬁle, both for interest rate and default risk The weighted duration of the ﬁnal package must equal that of the underlying securities. The expected default rate, averaged by market values, must be the same. So, if some tranches are less risky, others must bear more risk. Like CMOs, CDOs are often structured so that most of the tranches have less risk. Inevitably, the remaining residual tranche is more risky. This is sometimes called “toxic waste.” If this residual is cheap enough, however, some investors should be willing to buy it. CDO transactions are typically classiﬁed as balance sheet or arbitrage. The primary goal of balance sheet CDOs is to move loans off the balance sheet of commercial banks to lower regulatory capital requirements. In contrast, arbitrage CDOs are designed to capture the spread between the portfolio of underlying securities and that of highly rated, overlying, tranches. Such CDOs exploit differences in the funding costs of assets and liabilities. The spreads on high-yield debt have historically more than compensated investors for their credit risk, which reﬂects a liquidity effect, or risk premium. Because CDO senior tranches create more liquid assets with automatic diversiﬁcation, investors require a lower risk premium for these. The arbitrage proﬁt then goes into the equity tranche (but also into management and investment banking fees.)

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The credit risk transfer can be achieved by cash ﬂow or synthetic structures. The example in Figure 19-6 is typical of traditional, or funded, cash-ﬂow CDOs. The physical assets are sold to a SPV and the underlying cash ﬂows used to back payments to the issued notes. In contrast, the credit risk exposure of synthetic CDOs is achieved with credit derivatives, which will be covered in a later chapter. Finally, CDOs differ in the management of the asset pool. In static CDOs, the asset pool is basically ﬁxed. In contrast, with managed CDOs, a portfolio manager is allowed to trade actively the underlying assets. This allows him or her to unwind assets with decreasing credit quality or to reinvest redeemed issues. Example 19-15: FRM Exam 2001----Question 12 19-15. A pool of high yield bonds is placed in a SPV and three tranches (including the equity tranche) of bonds are issued collateralized by the bonds to create a Collateralized Bond Obligation (CBO). Which of the following is true? a) At fair value the value of the issued bonds should be less than the collateral. b) At fair value the total default probability, weighted by size of issue, of the issued bonds should equal the default probability of the collateral pool. c) The equity tranche of the CBO has the least risk of default. d) The yield on the low risk tranche must be greater than the yield on the collateral pool. Example 19-16: FRM Exam 1998----Question 8/Credit Risk 19-16. In a typical collateralized bond obligation (CBO), a pool of high-yield bonds is posted as collateral and the cash ﬂows from the collateral are structured as several classes of securities (the offered securities) with different credit ratings and a residual piece (the equity), which absorbs most of the default risk. When comparing the market value weighted average rating of the collateral and that of the offered securities, which of the following is true? a) The market value weighted average rating of the collateral is about the same as the offered securities. b) The market value weighted average rating of the collateral is higher than the offered securities. c) The market value weighted average rating of the collateral is lower than the offered securities. d) The market value weighted average rating of the collateral may be lower or higher than the offered securities.

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Assessing Corporate and Sovereign Rating

19.5.1

Corporate Default

433

One issue is whether these ratings are the best forecasts of default probabilities based on public information. A substantial academic literature has examined this question and has generally concluded that ratings can be reasonably predicted from accounting information. provide important information about a ﬁrm’s viability. Analysts focus on the balance sheet leverage often deﬁned in terms of the debt-toequity ratio, and the debt coverage, deﬁned in terms of the ratio of income over debt payment. All else equal, companies with higher leverage and lower debt coverage are more likely to default. By nature, however, accounting information is backward-looking. The economic prospects of a company are even more important for assessing credit risk. These include growth potential, market competition, and exposure to ﬁnancial risk factors. Because they are forward-looking, market-based variables such as bond credit spreads and equity prices contain better forecasts of default probabilities than ratings. The data presented so far described default rates for U.S. industrial corporations. The next question is whether this historical experience applies to other countries. We would expect some difference in ratings transition because of a number of factors: Differences in ﬁnancial stability across countries: countries have different ﬁnancial market structures, such as the strength of the banking system, and different government policies. The mishandling of economic policy can turn, for instance, what should be a minor devaluation into a major problem leading to a recession. Differences in legal systems: the protection accorded to creditors can vary widely across countries, some of which have not yet established a bankruptcy process. Differences in industrial structure: there may be differences in default rates across countries simply due to different industrial structure. There is evidence that default rates vary across U.S. industries even with identical credit ratings.

19.5.2

Sovereign Default

Rating agencies have only recently started to rate sovereign bonds. In 1975, S&P only rated seven countries, all of which were investment grade. By 1990, the pool had expanded to thirty-one countries, of which only nine were from emerging markets.

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In now, S&P rates approximately 90 countries. The history of default is even more sparse, making it difﬁcult to generalize from a very small sample. Assessing sovereign credit risk is signiﬁcantly more difﬁcult than for corporates. When a corporate borrower defaults, legal action can be taken by the creditors. For instance, an unsecured creditor can ﬁle an action against a debtor and have the defendant’s assets seized under a “writ of attachment.” This creates a lien on its assets, or a claim on the assets as security for the payment of the debt. In contrast, it is impossible to attach the domestic assets of a sovereign nation. This implies that recovery rates on sovereign debt are usually lower than on corporate debt. Thus, sovereign credit evaluation involves not only economic risk (the ability to repay debts when due), but also political risk (the willingness to pay). Sovereign credit ratings also differ depending on whether the debt is local currency debt or foreign currency debt. Table 19-9 displays the factors entering local and foreign currency ratings. TABLE 19-9: Credit Ratings Factors Categories Political risk Price stability Income and economic structure Economic growth prospects Fiscal ﬂexibility Public debt burden Balance of payment ﬂexibility External debt and liquidity

Local Currency x x x x x x

Foreign Currency x x x x x x x x

Political risk factors (e.g., degree of political consensus, integration in global trade and ﬁnancial system, and internal or external security risk) play an important part in sovereign credit risk. Factors affecting local currency debt include economic, ﬁscal, and especially monetary risks. High rates of inﬂation typically reﬂect economic mismanagement and are associated with political instability. Countries rated AAA, for instance, have inﬂation rates from 0 to at most 10%; BB-rated countries have inﬂation rates ranging from 25% to 100%. Important factors affecting foreign currency debt include the international investment position of a country (that is, public and private external debt), the stock of foreign currency reserves, and patterns in the balance of payment. In particular, the ratio of external interest payments to exports is closely watched.

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In the case of the Asian crisis, agencies seem to have overlooked other important aspects of creditworthiness, such as the currency and maturity structure of national debt. Too many Asian creditors had borrowed short-term in dollars to invest in the local currency, which created a severe liquidity problem. Admittedly, the credit valuation process can be hindered by the reluctance of foreign nations to provide timely information. In the case of Argentina, on the other hand, most observers had anticipated a default. This was due to a combination of high external debt, slow economic growth, unwillingness to make the necessary spending adjustments, and ultimately was a political decision. Because local currency debt is backed by the taxation power of the government, local currency debt is considered to have less credit risk than foreign currency debt. Table 19-10 displays local and foreign currency debt ratings for a sample of countries. Ratings for foreign currency debt are the same, or one notch below, those of local currency debt. Similarly, sovereign debt is typically rated higher than corporate debt in the same country. Governments can repay foreign currency debt, for instance, by controlling capital ﬂows or seizing foreign currency reserves. TABLE 19-10: Standard & Poor’s Sovereign Long-Term Credit Ratings Selected Countries, March 2003 Issuer Argentina Australia Belgium Brazil Canada China France Germany Hong Kong Japan Korea Mexico Netherlands Russia South Africa Spain Switzerland Taiwan Thailand Turkey United Kingdom United States

Local Currency SD AAA AAⳭ BB AAA AAA AAA AA⫺ AA⫺ AⳭ A⫺ AAA BBⳭ A⫺ AAⳭ AAA AA⫺ A⫺ B⫺ AAA AAA

Foreign Currency SD AAA AAⳭ BⳭ AAA BBB AAA AAA AⳭ AA⫺ A⫺ BBB⫺ AAA BB BBB⫺ AAⳭ AAA AA⫺ BBB⫺ B⫺ AAA AAA

Note : Argentina is rated selective default (SD).

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Overall, sovereign debt ratings are considered less reliable than corporate ratings. Indeed, corporate bond spreads are greater for sovereigns than corporate issuers. In 1999, for example, the average spread on dollar-denominated sovereign bonds rated BB was about 160bp higher than for identically-rated corporates. There are also greater differences in sovereign ratings across agencies than for corporates. The evaluation of sovereign credit risk seems to be a much more subjective process than for corporates. Example 19-17: FRM Exam 1997----Question 27/Credit Risk 19-17. Which of the following credit events usually takes place ﬁrst? a) A bond is downgraded by a rating agency. b) A bond’s credit spread widens.

TE

AM FL Y

Example 19-18: FRM Exam 2001----Question 2 19-18. (Requires knowledge of markets) Which of the following is the best rated country according to the most important ratings agencies? a) Argentina b) Brazil c) Mexico d) Peru Example 19-19: FRM Exam 1999----Question 121/Credit Risk 19-19. In assessing the sovereign credit, a number of criteria are considered. Which of the following is the more critical one? a) Fiscal position of the government b) Prospect for domestic output and demand c) International asset position d) Structure of the government’s debt and debt service (external and internal) Example 19-20: FRM Exam 1998----Question 36/Credit Risk 19-20. What is the most signiﬁcant difference to consider when assessing the credit worthiness of a country rather than a company? a) The country’s willingness and its ability to pay must be analyzed. b) Financial data on a country is often available only with long lags. c) It is more costly to do due diligence on a country rather than on a company. d) A country is often unwilling to disclose sensitive ﬁnancial information.

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MEASURING ACTUARIAL DEFAULT RISK

437

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 19-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 5/Credit Risk b) Calling back a bond occurs when the borrower wants to reﬁnance its debt at a lower cost, which is not a credit event. Example 19-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 128/Credit Risk d) Losses I and II are due to market risk. Loss III is a credit event, due to restructuring. Loss IV is a tax event deriving from governmental action.. So, III and IV qualify as event risks. Example 19-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 8/Credit Risk d) Ba2 is the lowest rating among the list. Example 19-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 37/Credit Risk a) The cutoff point for pretax interest coverage ratio in Table 19-4 is 3.7 for BBB credits, which is similar to the ratio of 3.75 for company X. More importantly, the LT debt/equity ratio of 35% for company X translates into a LT debt/capital ratio of 26% (obtained as 35%/(1 + 35%) = 26%). Because this is well below the cutoff point of 43% for BBB-credits in Table 19-4, the category must be investment grade. Example 19-5: FRM Exam 1997----Question 28/Credit Risk c) This default rate is 1.47% from Table 19-4. Similarly, the Moody’s default rate for Ba credits is 1.42%. Example 19-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 29/Credit Risk a) From Table 19-4, the ratio of B to BBB defaults for a 1-year horizon is 6.72/0.36 ⳱ 19, which is slightly higher than the 16 ratio in the ﬁrst part of the question. The numbers are different because of variances in sample periods. The ratio at 10-year horizon is 44.59/7.60 ⳱ 6, which is close to 5. Intuitively, the default rate on B credits should increase at a lower rate than that on BBB credits. The cumulative default rate on B credits starts with a high value but cannot go above one. Example 19-7: FRM Exam 1997----Question 2/Credit Risk a) Using (1 ⫺ dM )4 ⳱ (1 ⫺ 0.06%), we ﬁnd an average rate of dM ⳱ 0.015%. For the next quarter, however, the marginal default rate will be lower because d increases with maturity for high credit ratings.

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Example 19-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 37/Credit Risk c) The probability of surviving is (1 ⫺ d )3 ⳱ 0.343; hence the probability of default at any point during the next three years is 66%. Example 19-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 31/Credit Risk d) The cumulative 6-year default rate is given by C6 (R ) ⳱ C5 (R ) Ⳮ k6 ⳱ C5 (R ) Ⳮ S5 ⫻ d6 ⳱ 0.15 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ 0.15) ⫻ 0.10 ⳱ 0.235. Example 19-10: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Credit Risk a) The question could refer to the cumulative or marginal probabilities. Intuitively, the probability is low for AA credit for short maturities but increases more, relative to the starting value, than for lower credits. Using the cumulative probabilities for AA and B credits in Table 19-4, we have, for 1 year, a ratio of 0.01/6.72 = 0.001 and, for 10 years, a ratio of 2.10/44.59 = 0.05. This increases with maturity. Similarly, the marginal default probability increases with time for high credits and decreases for low credits. Example 19-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 43/Credit Risk b) This is one minus the survival rate over 3 years: S3 (R ) ⳱ (1 ⫺ d1 )(1 ⫺ d2 )(1 ⫺ d3 ) ⳱ (1 ⫺ 0.03)(1 ⫺ 0.04)(1 ⫺ 0.05) ⳱ 0.8856. Hence, the cumulative default rate is 0.1154. Example 19-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 34/Credit Risk a) The marginal default rate is the probability of defaulting over the next year, conditional on having survived to the beginning of the year. Example 19-13: FRM Exam 2000----Question 50/Credit Risk d) The transition matrix represents the conditional probability of moving from one rating to another over a ﬁxed period, typically a year. Example 19-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 58/Credit Risk a) The recovery rate on loans is typically higher than that on bonds. Hence the credit rating, if it involves both probability of default and recovery, should be higher for loans than for bonds.

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Example 19-15: FRM Exam 2001-15 b) The market values and weighted probability of default should be equal for the collateral and various tranches. So, (a) is wrong. The equity tranche has the highest risk of default, so (c) is wrong. The yield on the low risk tranche must be the lowest, so (d) is wrong. Example 19-16: FRM Exam 1998----Question 8/Credit Risk c) The rating of the collateral must be between that of the offered securities and the residual. Say that the collateral is rated B, with 5% probability of default (PD); the offered securities represent 80% of the total market value. These are more highly rated than the collateral because the equity absorbs the default risk. If the offered securities are rated BB (with 1% PD), the equity must be such that 80% ⫻ 0.01 Ⳮ 20% ⫻ x ⳱ 0.05, which yields an PD of 21% for the equity, close to a CCC rating. Example 19-17: FRM Exam 1997----Question 27/Credit Risk b) The empirical evidence is that bond prices lead changes in credit ratings, because they are forward-looking instead of ratings. Example 19-18: FRM Exam 2001----Question 2 c) Mexico is the most highly rated country of this group, according to the table of S&P ratings. Argentina is in Selective Default (SD) since 2001. As of early 2003, Mexico is rated BBB⫺, Peru is rated BB⫺, Brazil is rated BⳭ. Example 19-19: FRM Exam 1999----Question 121/Credit Risk d) Empirically, the ratio of debt to exports seems to be the most important factor driving sovereign ratings (see the Handbook of Emerging Markets, pp. 10–11). Example 19-20: FRM Exam 1998----Question 36/Credit Risk a) Countries cannot be forced into bankruptcy. There is no enforcement mechanism for payment to creditors such as for private companies. Recent history has shown that a country can simply decide to renege on its debt. So, willingness to pay is a major factor.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 20 Measuring Default Risk from Market Prices The previous chapter discussed how to quantify credit risk from categorization into credit risk ratings. Based on these external ratings, we can forecast credit losses from historical default rates and recovery rates. Credit risk can also be assessed from market prices of securities whose values are affected by default. This includes corporate bonds, equities, and credit derivatives. In principle, these should provide more up-to-date and accurate measures of credit risk because ﬁnancial markets have access to a large amount of information. This chapter shows how to infer default risk from market prices. Section 20.1 will show how to use information about the market prices of creditsensitive bonds to infer default risk. In this chapter, we will call defaultable debt interchangeably credit-sensitive, corporate, and risky debt. Here, risky refers to credit risk and not market risk. We show how to break down the yield on a corporate bond into a default probability, a recovery rate, and a risk-free yield. Section 20.2 then turns to equity prices. The advantage of using equity prices is that they are much more widely available and of much better quality than corporate bond prices. We show how equity can be viewed as a call option on the value of the ﬁrm and how a default probability can be inferred from the value of this option. This approach also explains why credit positions are akin to short positions in options and are characterized by distributions that are skewed to the left. Chapter 22 will discuss credit derivatives, which can also be used to infer default risk.

20.1

Corporate Bond Prices

To assess the credit risk of a transaction with a counterparty, consider creditsensitive bonds issued by the same counterparty. We assume that default is a state that affects all obligations equally.

441

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT

Spreads and Default Risk

Assume for simplicity that the bond makes only one payment of $100 in one period. We can compute a market-determined yield y ⴱ from the price P ⴱ as Pⴱ ⳱

$100 (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )

(20.1)

This can be compared with the risk-free yield over the same period y . The payoffs on the bond can be described by a simpliﬁed default process, which is illustrated in Figure 20-1. At maturity, the bond can be in default or not. Its value is $100 if there is no default and f ⫻ $100 if default occurs, where f is the fractional recovery. We deﬁne π as the default rate over the period. How can we value this bond? FIGURE 20-1 A Simpliﬁed Bond Default Process

Probability =p

Default Payoff = f × $100

Initial price P*

No default Payoff = $100

Probability =1–p

Using risk-neutral pricing, the current price must be the mathematical expectation of the values in the two states, discounting the payoffs at the risk-free rate. Hence, Pⴱ ⳱

冋

册

冋

册

$100 $100 f ⫻ $100 ⫻ (1 ⫺ π ) Ⳮ ⫻π ⳱ ⴱ (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )

(20.2)

Note that the discounting uses the risk-free rate y because there is no risk premium with risk-neutral valuation. After rearranging terms, (1 Ⳮ y ) ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )[1 ⫺ π (1 ⫺ f )]

(20.3)

which implies a default probability of π⳱

冋

1 (1 Ⳮ y ) 1⫺ (1 ⫺ f ) (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )

册

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(20.4)

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Dropping second-order terms, this simpliﬁes into y ⴱ ⬇ y Ⳮ π (1 ⫺ f )

(20.5)

This equation shows that the credit spread y ⴱ ⫺ y measures credit risk, more speciﬁcally the probability of default, π , times the loss given default, (1 ⫺ f ). Let us now consider multiple periods, which number T . We compound interest rates and default rates over each period. In other words, π is now the average annual default rate. Assuming one payment only, the present value is Pⴱ ⳱

冋

$100 $100 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )T (1 Ⳮ y )T

册

⫻ (1 ⫺ π )T Ⳮ

冋

册

f ⫻ $100 ⫻ [1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ π )T ] (1 Ⳮ y )T

(20.6)

which can be written as (1 Ⳮ y )T ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )T 兵(1 ⫺ π )T Ⳮ f [1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ π )T ]其

(20.7)

Unfortunately, this does not simplify further. When we have risky bonds of various maturities, this can be used to compute default probabilities for different horizons. If we have two periods, for example, we could use Equation (20.3) to ﬁnd the probability of defaulting over the ﬁrst period π1 , and Equation (20.7) to ﬁnd the annualized, or average, probability of defaulting over the ﬁrst two periods, or π2 . As we have seen in the previous chapter, the marginal probability of defaulting d2 in the second period is given by solving (1 ⫺ π2 )2 ⳱ (1 ⫺ π1 )(1 ⫺ d2 )

(20.8)

This enables us to recover a term structure of forward default probabilities from a sequence of zero-coupon bonds. In practice, if we only have access to coupon-paying bonds, the computation becomes more complicated because we need to consider the payments in each period with and without default.

20.1.2

Risk Premium

It is worth emphasizing that this approach assumed risk-neutrality. As in the methodology for pricing options, we assumed both that the value of any asset grows at the risk-free rate and can be discounted at the same risk-free rate. Thus the probability measure π is a risk-neutral measure, which is not necessarily equal to the objective, physical, probability of default.

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Deﬁning this objective probability as π ⬘ and the discount rate as y ⬘, the current price can be also expressed in terms of the true expected value discounted at the risky rate y ⬘: Pⴱ ⳱

冋

册

冋

册

$100 $100 f ⫻ $100 ⫻ (1 ⫺ π ⬘) Ⳮ ⫻ π⬘ ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ ) (1 Ⳮ y ⬘) (1 Ⳮ y ⬘)

(20.9)

Equation (20.4) allows us to recover a risk-neutral default probability only. More generally, if investors require some compensation for bearing credit risk, the credit spread will include a risk premium rp y ⴱ ⬇ y Ⳮ π ⬘(1 ⫺ f ) Ⳮ rp

(20.10)

To be meaningful, this risk premium must be tied to some measure of bond riskiness as well as investor risk aversion. In addition, this premium may incorporate a liquidity premium, because the corporate issue may not be as easily traded as the corresponding Treasury issue and tax effects.1 Key concept: The yield spread betwen a corporate bond and an otherwise identical bond with no credit risk reﬂects the expected actuarial loss, or annual default rate times the loss given default, plus a risk premium.

Example: Deriving default probabilities We wish to compare a 10-year U.S. Treasury strip and a 10-year zero issued by International Business Machines (IBM), which is rated A by S&P and Moody’s. The respective yields are 6% and 7%, using semiannual compounding. Assuming that the recovery rate is 45% of the face value, what does the credit spread imply for the probability of default? Using Equation (20.1), we ﬁnd that π (1 ⫺ f ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 Ⳮ y 冫 200)20 冫 (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ 冫 200)20 ⳱ 0.0923. Hence, π ⳱ 9.23%冫 (1 ⫺ 45%) ⳱ 16.8%. Therefore, the cumulative (risk-neutral) probability of defaulting during next ten years is 16.8%. This number is rather high 1

For a decomposition of the yield spread into risk premium effects, see Elton, E., Gruber M., Agrawal D., & Mann C. (2001). Explaining the rate spread on corporate bonds. Journal of Finance, 56(1), 247–277. The authors ﬁnd a large risk premium, which they relate to common risk factors from the stock market. Part of the risk premium is also due to tax effects. Because Treasury coupon payments are no taxable at the state level, for example New York state, investors are willing to accept a lower yield on Treasury bonds, which artiﬁcially increases the corporate yield spread.

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compared with the historical record for this risk class. Table 19-3, Moody’s reports a historical 10-year default rate for A-credits of 3.4% only. If these historical default rates are used as the future probability of default, the implication is that a large part of the credit spread reﬂects a risk premium. For instance, assume that 80 basis points out of the 100 basis points credit spread reﬂects a risk premium. We change the 7% yield to 6.2% and ﬁnd a probability of default of 3.5%. This is more in line with the actual default experience of such issuers. Example 20-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 3/Credit Risk 20-1. When comparing the zero curve (semiannual compounding) of riskless bonds and risky bonds, one can estimate the implied default probabilities by examining the spread between the two. Assuming the 1-year riskless zero rate is 5%, the risky zero rate is 5.5%, and the recovery rate is zero, what is the implied 1-year default probability? a) 0.24% b) 0.48% c) 0.97% d) 1.92% Example 20-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Credit Risk 20-2. Assume the 3-month U.S. Treasury yield is 5.5% and the Eurodollar deposit rate is 6% (both on simple interest basis). What is the approximate probability of the Eurodollar deposit defaulting over its life (assuming a zero recovery rate)? a) 0.01% b) 0.1% c) 0.5% d) 1.0% Example 20-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 24/Credit Risk 20-3. Assume the 1-year U.S. Treasury yield is 5.5% (on simple interest basis) and a default probability of 1% for 1-year Commercial Paper. What should the yield of 1-year Commercial Paper be (on simple interest basis) assuming 50% recovery rate? a) 6.0% b) 6.5% c) 7.0% d) 7.5%

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The Cross-Section of Yield Spreads

We now turn to actual market data. Figure 20-2 illustrates a set of par yield curves for various credits as of December 1998. For reference, the spreads are listed in Table 20-1. The curves are sorted by credit rating, from AAA to B, using S&P’s ratings. cumulative default rates reported in the previous chapter. They increase with maturity and with lower credit quality. FIGURE 20-2 Yield Curves For Different Credits 10%

Yields B

9% BB

AM FL Y

8% BBB

7%

A AA AAA

6%

Treasuries

4%

TE

5%

1/4 1/2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

15 20 Maturity (years)

30

TABLE 20-1 Credit Spreads Maturity (Years) 3M 6M 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 15 20 30

AAA 46 40 45 51 47 50 61 53 45 45 51 59 55 52 60

Credit AA A 54 74 46 67 53 74 62 88 55 87 57 92 68 108 61 102 53 95 50 94 56 98 66 104 61 99 66 99 78 117

Rating BBB BB 116 172 106 177 112 191 133 220 130 225 138 241 157 266 154 270 150 274 152 282 161 291 169 306 161 285 156 278 179 278

B 275 275 289 321 328 358 387 397 407 420 435 450 445 455 447

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The lowest curve is the Treasury curve, which represents risk-free bonds. Spreads for AAA-credits are low, starting at 46bp at short maturities and increasing to 60bp at longer maturities Spreads for B-credits are much wider; they also increase faster, from 275 to 450. Finally, note how close together the AAA to AA spreads are, in spite of the fact that default probabilities approximately double from AAA to AA. The transition from Treasuries to AAA credits most likely reﬂects other factors, such as liquidity and tax effects, rather than credit risk. The previous sections have shown that we could use information in corporate bond yields to make inferences about credit risk. Indeed, bond prices represent the best assessment of traders, or real “bets,” on credit risk. As such, we would expect bond prices to be the best predictors of credit risk and to outperform credit ratings. To the extent that agencies use public information to form their credit rating, this information should be subsumed into market prices. Bond prices are also revised more frequently than credit ratings. As a result, movements in corporate bond prices tend to lead changes in credit ratings. Example 20-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 11/Credit Risk 20-4. What can be said about the spread (S1) between AAA and A credits, and the spread between BBB and B credits (S2) in general? a) S1 is equal to S2. b) S1 ⱖ S2. c) S1 ⱕ S2. d) S1 may be less or more than S2. Example 20-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 136/Credit Risk 20-5. Suppose XYZ Corp. has two bonds paying semiannually according to the table: Remaining Coupon T-bill rate maturity (sa 30/360) Price (bank discount) 6 months 8.0% 99 5.5% 1 year 9.0% 100 6.0% The recovery rate for each in the event of default is 50%. For simplicity, assume that each bond will default only at the end of a coupon period. The market-implied risk-neutral probability of default for XYZ Corp. is a) Greater in the ﬁrst six-month period than the second b) Equal for both coupon periods c) Greater in the second six-month period than the ﬁrst d) Cannot be determined from the information provided

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT

The Time-Series of Yield Spreads

Credit spreads reﬂect potential losses caused by default risk, and perhaps a risk premium. Some of this default risk is speciﬁc to the issuer and requires a detailed analysis of its prospective ﬁnancial condition. Part of this risk, however, can be attributed to common credit factors. These common factors are particularly important as they cannot be diversiﬁed away in a large portfolio of credit-sensitive bonds. First among these factors are general economic conditions. Economic growth is negatively correlated with credit spreads. When the economy slows down, more companies are likely to have cash-ﬂow problems and to default on their bonds. Indeed, Figure 13-6 shows that spreads widen during recessions. An inverting term structure, which indicates monetary tightening and lower expectations of growth, is similarly associated with a widening credit spread. Volatility is also a factor. In a more volatile environment, investors may require larger risk premiums, thus increasing credit spreads. When this happens, liquidity may also dry up. Investors may then require a greater credit spread in order to hold increasingly illiquid securities. In addition, volatility can have another effect. Corporate bond indices include many callable bonds, unlike Treasury indices. As a result, credit spreads also reﬂect this option component. The buyer of a callable bond requires a higher yield in exchange for granting the call option. Because the value of this option increases with volatility, greater volatility should also increase the credit spread.

20.2

Equity Prices

The credit spread approach, unfortunately, is only useful when there is good bond market data. The problem is that this is rarely the case, for a number of reasons. 1. Many countries do not have a well-developed corporate bond market. As Table 7-1 has shown, the United States has by far the largest corporate bond market. This means that other countries have much fewer outstanding bonds and a much less active market. 2. The counterparty may not have an outstanding publicly traded bond or if so, the bond may contain other features such as a call. 3. The bond may not trade actively and instead reported prices may simply be matrix prices, that is, interpolated from other, current yields.

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The Merton Model

An alternative is to turn to default risk models based on stock prices, because equity prices are available for a larger number of companies and are more actively traded than corporate bonds. The Merton (1974) model views equity as akin to a call option on the assets of the ﬁrm, with an exercise price given by the face value of debt. To simplify to the extreme, consider a ﬁrm with total value V that has one bond due in one period with face value K . If the value of the ﬁrm exceeds the promised payment, the bond is repaid in full and stockholders receive the remainder. However, if V is less than K , the ﬁrm is in default and the bondholders receive V only. The value of equity goes to zero. Throughout, we assume that there are no transaction costs. Hence, the value of the stock at expiration is ST ⳱ Max(VT ⫺ K, 0)

(20.11)

Because the bond and equity add up to the ﬁrm value, the value of the bond must be BT ⳱ VT ⫺ ST ⳱ VT ⫺ Max(VT ⫺ K, 0) ⳱ Min(VT , K )

(20.12)

The current stock price, therefore, embodies a forecast of default probability, in the same way that an option embodies a forecast of being exercised. Figures 20-3 and 20-4 describe how the value of the ﬁrm can be split up into the bond and stock values. FIGURE 20-3 Equity as an Option on the Value of the Firm Value of the firm

Equity Face value of debt

K

0

Debt

K

Value of the firm

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Note that the bond value can also be described as BT ⳱ K ⫺ Max(K ⫺ VT , 0)

(20.13)

In other words, a long position in a risky bond is equivalent to a long position in a risk-free bond plus a short put option, which is really a credit derivative. FIGURE 20-4 Components of the Value of the Firm Equity

0 Debt

K

K

0

Value of the firm

Key concept: Equity can be viewed as a call option on the ﬁrm value with strike price equal to the face value of debt. Corporate debt can be viewed as risk-free debt minus a put option on the ﬁrm value. This approach is particularly illuminating because it demonstrates that corporate debt has a payoff akin to a short position in an option, explaining the left skewness that is so characteristic of credit losses. In contrast, equity is equivalent to a long position in an option due to its limited liability feature, that is, investors can lose no more than their equity investment.

20.2.2

Pricing Equity and Debt

To illustrate, we proceed along the lines of the usual Black-Scholes (BS) framework, assuming the ﬁrm value follows the geometric Brownian motion process dV ⳱ µV dt Ⳮ σ V dz

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If we assume that markets are frictionless and that there are no bankruptcy costs, the value of the ﬁrms is simply the sum of the ﬁrm’s equity and debt: V ⳱ B Ⳮ S . To price a claim on the value of the ﬁrm, we need to solve a partial differential equation with appropriate boundary conditions. The corporate bond price is obtained as B ⳱ F (V , t ),

F (V , T ) ⳱ Min[V , BF ]

(20.15)

where BF ⳱ K is the face value of the bond to be repaid at expiration, or strike price. Similarly, the equity value is S ⳱ f (V , t ),

f (V , T ) ⳱ Max[V ⫺ BF , 0]

(20.16)

Stock Valuation The value of the stock is given by the BS formula S ⳱ Call ⳱ V N (d1 ) ⫺ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 )

(20.17)

where N (d ) is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution, and d1 ⳱

ln (V 冫 Ke⫺r τ ) σ 冪τ

Ⳮ

σ 冪τ , 2

d2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ 冪τ

where τ ⳱ T ⫺ t is the time to expiration. If we deﬁne x ⳱ Ke⫺r τ 冫 V as the debt/value ratio, this shows that the option value depends solely on x and σ 冪τ . Note that, in practice, this application is different from the BS model where we plug in the value of V , of its volatility σ ⳱ σV , and solve for the value of the call. Here, we observe the market value of the ﬁrm S and the equity volatility σS and must infer the values of V and its volatility so that Equation (20.17) is satisﬁed. This can only be done iteratively. Deﬁning ⌬ as the hedge ratio, we have dS ⳱

∂S dV ⳱ ⌬dV ∂V

(20.18)

Deﬁning σS as the volatility of (dS 冫 S ), we have (σS S ) ⳱ ⌬(σV V ) and σV ⳱ ⌬σS (S 冫 V )

(20.19)

Bond Valuation Next, the value of the bond is given by B ⳱ V ⫺ S , or B ⳱ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 ) Ⳮ V [1 ⫺ N (d1 )]

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(20.20)

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT B 冫 Ke⫺r τ ⳱ [N (d2 ) Ⳮ (V 冫 Ke⫺r τ )N (⫺d1 )]

(20.21)

Risk-Neutral Dynamics of Default In the Black-Scholes model, N (d2 ) is also the probability of exercising the call, or that the bond will not default. Conversely, 1 ⫺ N (d2 ) ⳱ N (⫺d2 ) is the risk-neutral probability of default. Pricing Credit Risk At maturity, the credit loss is the value of the risk-free bond minus the corporate bond, CL ⳱ BF ⫺ BT . At initiation, the expected credit loss (ECL) is BF e⫺r τ ⫺ B ⳱ Ke⫺r τ ⫺ 兵Ke⫺r τ N (d2 ) Ⳮ V [1 ⫺ N (d1 )]其 ⳱ Ke⫺r τ [1 ⫺ N (d2 )] ⫺ V [1 ⫺ N (d1 )] ⳱ Ke⫺r τ N (⫺d2 ) ⫺ V N (⫺d1 ) This decomposition is quite informative. Multiplying by the future value factor er τ , it shows that the ECL at maturity is ECLT ⳱ N (⫺d2 )[K ⫺ V er τ N (⫺d1 )冫 N (⫺d2 )] ⳱ p ⫻ [Exposure ⫻ LGD]

(20.22)

This involves two terms. The ﬁrst is the probability of default, N (⫺d2 ). The second is the loss when there is default. This is obtained as the face value of the bond K minus the recovery value of the loan when in default, V er τ N (⫺d1 )冫 N (⫺d2 ), which is also the expected value of the ﬁrm in the state of default. Note that the recovery rate is endogenous here, as it depends on the value of the ﬁrm, time, and debt ratio. Credit Option Valuation This approach can also be used to value the put option component of the credit-sensitive bond. This option pays K ⫺ BT in case of default. A portfolio with the bond plus the put is equivalent to a risk-free bond Ke⫺r τ ⳱ B ⳭPut. Hence, using Equation (20.20), the credit put should be worth Put ⳱ Ke⫺r τ ⫺ 兵Ke⫺r τ N (d2 ) Ⳮ V [1 ⫺ N (d1 )]其 ⳱ ⫺V [N (⫺d1 )] Ⳮ Ke⫺r τ [N (⫺d2 )] (20.23) This will be used later in the chapter on credit derivatives.

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Example 20-6: FRM Exam 2001----Question 14 20-6. To what sort of option on the counterparty’s assets can the current exposure of a credit-risky position better be compared? a) A short call b) A short put c) A short knock-in call d) A binary option

20.2.3

Applying the Merton Model

These valuation formulas can be used to recover, given the current value of equity and of nominal liabilities, the value of the ﬁrm and its probability of default. Figure 20-5 illustrates the evolution of the value of the ﬁrm. The ﬁrm defaults if this value falls below the liabilities at the horizon. We measure this risk-neutral probability by N (⫺d2 ). FIGURE 20-5 Default in the Merton Model Asset value

Equity

Liabilities

Default probability Now Time

T

In practice, default is much more complex than pictured here. We would have to collect information about all the nominal, ﬁxed liabilities of the company, as well as their maturities. Default can also happen at any intermediate point. also more complex than this one-period framework. So, instead of default on the target date, we could measure default probability as a function of the distance relative to a moving ﬂoor that represents liabilities. This was essentially the approach undertaken by

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KMV Corporation, which sells estimated default frequencies (EDF) for ﬁrms all over the world.2 The Merton approach has many advantages. First, it relies on equity prices rather than bond prices. There are many more ﬁrms with an actively traded stock price than with bonds. Second, correlations between equity prices can generate correlations between defaults, which would be otherwise difﬁcult to measure. Perhaps the most important advantage of this model is that it generates movements in EDFs that seem to lead changes in credit ratings. FIGURE 20-6 KMV’s EDF and Credit Rating WorldCom July 21, 2002 Bankruptcy

Probability of default

20 10 5 KMV’s EDF

KMV©s EDF

D CCC B

2 1.0 .50

Agency rating Agency rating

Agency rating

.20 .10

BB BBB A AA

.05 Dec Jul Feb Sep Apr Nov Mar Apr May Jul 98 99 00 00 01 01 02 02 02 02

.02

AAA

Figure 20-6 displays movements in EDFs and credit rating for Worldcom, using the same vertical scale. Worldcom went bankrupt on July 21, 2002. With $104 billion in assets, this was America’s largest bankruptcy ever. The agency rating was BBB until April 2002. It gives no warning of the impending default. In contrast, starting one year before the default, the EDF starts to move up. In April, it reached 20%, presaging bankruptcy. These models have disadvantages as well. The ﬁrst limitation of the model is that it cannot be used to price sovereign credit risk, as countries obviously do not have a stock price. This is a problem for credit derivatives, where a large share of the market consists of sovereign risks. 2

KMV is now part of Moody’s.

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A more fundamental drawback is that it relies on a static model of the ﬁrm’s capital and risk structure. The debt level is assumed to be constant over the horizon. Also, the model needs to be expanded to a more realistic setting where debt matures at various points in time, which is not an obvious extension. Another problem is that management could undertake new projects that increase not only the value of equity but also its volatility, thereby increasing the credit spread. This runs counter to the fundamental intuition of the Merton model, which is that, all else equal, a higher stock price reﬂects a lower probability of default and hence should be associated with a smaller credit spread. Finally, this class of models also fails to explain the magnitude of credit spreads we observe on credit-sensitive bonds. Recent work attempts to add other sources of risk such as interest rate risk, but it still falls short of explaining these spreads. Thus these models are most useful in tracking changes in EDFs over time.

20.2.4

Example

It is instructive to work through a simpliﬁed example. Consider a ﬁrm with assets worth V ⳱ $100, with volatility of σV ⳱ 20%. In practice, one would have to start from the observed stock price and volatility and iterate to ﬁnd σV . The horizon is τ ⳱ 1 year. The risk-free rate is r ⳱ 10% using continuous compounding. We assume a leverage x ⳱ 0.9, which implies a face value of K ⳱ $99.46 and a risk-free current value of Ke⫺r τ ⳱ $90. Working through the Merton analysis, one ﬁnds that the current stock price should be S ⳱ $13.59. Hence the current bond price is B ⳱ V ⫺ S ⳱ $100 ⫺ $13.59 ⳱ $86.41 which implies a yield of ln(K 冫 B )冫 τ ⳱ ln(99.46冫 86.41) ⳱ 14.07% or yield spread of 4.07%. The current value of the credit put is then P ⳱ Ke⫺r τ ⫺ B ⳱ $90 ⫺ $86.41 ⳱ $3.59 The analysis also generates values for N (d2 ) ⳱ 0.6653 and N (d1 ) ⳱ 0.7347. Thus the risk-neutral probability of default is EDF ⳱ N (⫺d2 ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ N (d2 ) ⳱ 33.47%. Note that this could differ from the actual, or objective probability of default since the stock could very well grow at a rate which is greater than the risk-free rate of 10%.

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Finally, let us decompose the expected loss at expiration from Equation (20.22), which gives N (⫺d2 )[K ⫺ V er τ N (⫺d1 )冫 N (⫺d2 )] ⳱ 0.3347 ⫻ [$99.46 ⫺ $110.56 ⫻ 0.2653冫 0.3347] ⳱ 0.3347 ⫻ [$11.85] ⳱ $3.96 This combines the probability of default with the expected loss upon default, which is $11.85. This future expected credit loss of $3.96 must also be the future value of the credit put, or $3.59er τ ⳱ $3.96. Note that the model needs very high leverage, here x ⳱ 90%, to generate a sizeable credit spread, here 4.07%. This implies a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.9/0.1 = 900%, which

AM FL Y

is unrealistically high. With lower leverage, say x ⳱ 0.7, the credit spread shrinks rapidly, to 0.36%. At x ⳱ 50% or below, the predicted spread goes to zero. As this leverage would be considered normal, the model fails to reproduce the size of observed credit spreads. Perhaps it is most useful for tracking time variation in estimated default frequencies.

TE

Example 20-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Credit Risk 20-7. Which of the following is used to estimate the probability of default in the KMV Model? a) Vector analysis b) Total return analysis c) Equity price volatility d) None of the above

Example 20-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 155/Credit Risk 20-8. Having equity in a ﬁrm’s capital structure adds to the creditworthiness of the ﬁrm. Which of the following statements support(s) this argument? I. Equity does not require payments that could lead to default. II. Equity capital does not mature, so it represents a permanent capital base. III. Equity provides a cushion for debt holders in case of bankruptcy. IV. The cost of equity is lower than the cost of debt. a) I, II, and III b) All of the above c) I, II, and IV d) III only

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 20-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 3/Credit Risk b) Using Equation (20.3), we have (1 ⫺ π ) ⳱

(1 Ⳮ y 冫 200)2 (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ 冫 200)2

which gives π ⳱1⫺

(1 Ⳮ 5冫 200)2 ⳱ 0.49% (1 Ⳮ 5.5冫 200)2

Example 20-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Credit Risk 0.055) b) Using Equation (20.3), the annual probability of default is π ⳱ 1⫺ (1(1Ⳮ ⳱ 0.47%, Ⳮ 0.06)

which gives 0.1% quarterly. Example 20-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 24/Credit Risk a) We add 50% of 1% to the risk-free rate, which gives 6.0%. Example 20-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 11/Credit Risk c) Credit spreads widen considerably for lower rated credits. Example 20-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 136/Credit Risk a) First, we compute the current yield on the 6-month bond, which is selling at a discount. We solve for y ⴱ such that 99 ⳱ 104冫 (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ 冫 200) and ﬁnd y ⴱ ⳱ 10.10%. Thus the yield spread for the ﬁrst bond is 10.1 ⫺ 5.5 ⳱ 4.6%. The second bond is at par, so the yield is y ⴱ ⳱ 9%. The spread for the second bond is 9 ⫺ 6 ⳱ 3%. The default rate for the ﬁrst period must be greater. The recovery rate is the same for the two periods, so does not matter for this problem. Example 20-6: FRM Exam 2001----Question 14 b) The lender is short a put option, since exposure only exists if the value of assets falls below the amount lent. Example 20-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Credit Risk c) The KMV model is based on the value of the equity and liabilities, the risk-free rate, and equity price volatility.

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Example 20-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 155/Credit Risk a) The cost of equity is generally higher than that of debt because it is riskier. Otherwise, all of the other arguments (a), (b), (c) are true. Equity will not cause default. It does not mature and provides a cushion for debtholders, as stockholders should lose money before debtholders.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 21 Credit Exposure Credit exposure is the amount at risk when default occurs. It is also called exposure at default (EAD). When banking simply consisted of making loans, exposure was essentially the face value of the loan or other obligation. This value could be taken as being roughly constant. Since the development of the swap markets, however, the measurement of credit exposure has become much more sophisticated. This is because swaps, like most derivatives, have an up-front value that is much smaller than the notional amount. Indeed, the initial value of a swap is typically zero, which means that at the outset, there is no credit risk because there is nothing to lose. As the swap contract matures, however, it can turn into a positive or negative value. The asymmetry of bankruptcy treatment is such that a credit loss can only occur if the asset owed by the defaulted counterparty has positive value. Thus, the credit exposure is the value of the asset if positive, like an option. This chapter turns to the quantitative measurement of credit exposure. Section 21.1 describes the general features of credit exposure for various types of ﬁnancial instruments, including loans or bonds, guarantees, credit commitments, repos, and derivatives. Section 21.2 shows how to compute the distribution of credit exposure and gives detailed examples of exposures of interest rate and currency swaps. Section 21.3 discusses exposure modiﬁers, or techniques that have been developed to reduce credit exposure further. It shows how credit risk can be controlled by marking to market, margins, position limits, recouponing, and netting agreements. For completeness, Section 21.4 includes credit risk modiﬁers such as credit triggers and time puts, which also control default risk instead of exposure only.

459

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Credit Exposure by Instrument

The credit exposure is the positive part of the value of the asset. In particular, the current exposure is equal to the value of the asset at the current time Vt if positive: Exposuret ⳱ Max(Vt , 0).

(21.1)

The potential exposure represents the exposure on some future date, or sets of dates. Based on this deﬁnition, we can characterize the exposure of a variety of ﬁnancial instruments. The measurement of current and potential exposure also motivates regulatory capital charges for credit risk, which are explained in Chapter 31. Loans or Bonds Loans or bonds are balance-sheet assets whose current and potential exposure is the notional, which is the amount loaned or invested. In fact, this should be the market value of the asset given current interest rates, but, as we will show, this is not very far from the notional on a percentage basis. The exposure is also the notional for receivables, trade credits as the potential loss is the amount due. Guarantees These are off-balance-sheet contracts whereby the bank has underwritten, or agrees to assume, the obligations of a third party. The exposure is the notional amount, because this will be fully drawn when default occurs. By nature, guarantees are irrevocable, that is, unconditional and binding whatever happens. An example of a guarantee is a contract whereby Bank A makes a loan to Client C only if guaranteed by Bank B. Should C default, B is exposed to the full amount of the loan. Another example is an acceptance, whereby a bank agrees to pay the face value of the bill at maturity. Alternatively, standby facilities, or ﬁnancial letters of credit, provide a guarantee to a third party to make a payment should the obligor default. Commitments These are off-balance-sheet contracts whereby the bank commits to a future transaction that may result in creating a credit exposure at a future date. For instance, a bank may provide a note issuance facility whereby it promises a minimum price for notes regularly issued by a borrower. If the notes cannot be placed at the market at the minimum price, the bank commits to buy them at a ﬁxed price. Such

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commitments have less risk than a guarantee because it is not certain that the bank will have to provide backup support. It is also useful to distinguish between irrevocable commitments, which are unconditional and binding on the bank, and revocable commitments, where the bank has the option to revoke the contract should the counterparty’s credit quality deteriorate. This option substantially decreases the credit exposure. Swaps or Forwards These are off-balance-sheet items that can be viewed as irrevocable commitments to purchase or sell some asset on prearranged terms. The current and potential exposure will vary from zero to a large amount depending on the movement in the driving risk factors. Similar arrangements are sale-repurchase agreements (repos), whereby a bank sells an asset to another in exchange for a promise to buy it back later. Long Options Options are also off-balance-sheet items that may create credit exposure. The current and potential exposure also depends on movements in the driving risk factors. Here, there is no possibility of negative values Vt because options always have positive value, or zero at worst. Short Options Unlike long options, the current and potential exposure is zero because the bank writing the option can only incur a negative cash ﬂow, assuming the option premium has been fully paid. Exposure also depends on the features of any embedded option. With an American option, for instance, the holder of an in-the-money swap may want to exercise early if the credit rating of its counterparty starts to deteriorate. This decreases the exposure relative to an equivalent European option. Example 21-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question –-130/Credit Risk 21-1. By selling a call option on the S&P 500 futures contract, which is cash settled, an organization is subject to a) Market risk, but not credit risk b) Credit risk, but not market risk c) Both market risk and credit risk d) Neither market risk nor credit risk

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Example 21-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 151/Credit Risk 21-2. Trader A purchased an at-the-money 1-year OTC put option on the DAX index for a cost of EUR 10,000. What does trader A consider his maximum potential credit exposure to the counterparty over the term of the trade? a) 0 b) Less than EUR 8,000 c) Between EUR 8,000 and EUR 12,000 d) Greater than EUR 12,000 Example 21-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 84 21-3. If a counterparty defaults before maturity, which of the following situations will cause a credit loss? a) You are short EUR in a 1-year EUR/USD forward FX contract and the EUR has appreciated. b) You are short EUR in a 1-year EUR/USD forward FX contract and the EUR has depreciated. c) You sold a 1-year OTC EUR call option and the EUR has appreciated. d) You sold a 1-year OTC EUR call option and the EUR has depreciated. Example 21-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 35/Credit Risk 21-4. Contracts such as interest-rate swaps that are private arrangements between two parties entail credit risks. Consider a ﬁnancial institution that has entered into offsetting interest-rate swap contracts with two manufacturing companies, General Equipment and Universal Tools. In which one of the following situations is the ﬁnancial institution exposed to credit risk from the swap position? The most likely possibility is a) A default by General Equipment when the value of the swap to the ﬁnancial institution is positive b) A default by Universal Tools when the value of the swap to the ﬁnancial institution is negative c) That the interest rates will move so that the value of the swap to Universal Tools becomes negative d) That the interest rates will move so that the value of the swap to General Equipment becomes positive

21.2

Distribution of Credit Exposure

The credit exposure consists of the current exposure, which is readily observable, and the potential exposure, or future exposure, which is random. Deﬁne x as the potential value of the asset on the target date. We describe this variable by its probability density function f (x). This is where market risk mingles with credit risk.

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Expected and Worst Exposure

The expected credit exposure (ECE) is the expected value of the asset replacement value x, if positive, on a target date: Expected Credit Exposure ⳱

冮

Ⳮ⬁

⫺⬁

Max(x, 0)f (x)dx

(21.2)

The worst credit exposure (WCE) is the largest (worst) credit exposure at some level of conﬁdence. deﬁned as Credit at Risk (CAR). It is implicitly deﬁned as the value such that it is not exceeded at the given conﬁdence level p: 1⫺p ⳱

冮

⬁

f (x)dx

(21.3)

WCE

To model the potential credit exposure, we need to (i) model the distribution of risk factors, and (ii) evaluate the instrument given these risk factors. This process is identical to a market value-at-risk (VAR) computation except that the aggregation takes place ﬁrst at the counterparty level and second at the portfolio level. To simplify to the extreme, suppose that the payoff x is normally distributed with mean zero and volatility σ . The expected credit exposure is then ECE ⳱

1 1 E (x 兩 x ⬎ 0) ⳱ σ 2 2

冪 π2 ⳱ 冪σ2π

(21.4)

Note that we divided by 2 because there is a 50 percent probability that the value will be positive. The worst credit exposure at the 95 percent level is given by WCE ⳱ 1.645σ

(21.5)

Figure 21-1 illustrates the measurement of ECE and WCE for a normal distribution. Note that negative values of x are not considered.

21.2.2

Time Proﬁle

The distribution can be summarized by the expected and worst credit exposures at each point in time. To summarize even further, we can express the average credit exposure by taking a simple arithmetic average over the life of the instrument.

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FIGURE 21-1 Expected and Worst Credit Exposures–Normal Distribution Frequency Expected Credit Exposure

Worst Credit Exposure -3

-2

-1

0 1 Credit exposure

2

3

The average expected credit exposure (AECE) is the average of the expected credit exposure over time, from now to maturity T : AECE ⳱ (1冫 T )

冮

T

t ⳱0

ECEt dt

(21.6)

The average worst credit exposure (AWCE) is deﬁned similarly: AWCE ⳱ (1冫 T )

21.2.3

冮

T

t ⳱0

WCEt dt

(21.7)

Exposure Proﬁle for Interest-Rate Swaps

We now consider the computation of the exposure proﬁle for an interest-rate swap. In general, we need to deﬁne (1) The number of market factor variables (2) The function and parameters for the joint stochastic processes (3) The pricing model for the swap We start with a one-factor stochastic process for the interest rate, deﬁning the movement in the rate rt at time t as drt ⳱ κ (θ ⫺ rt )dt Ⳮ σ rt γ dzt

(21.8)

as seen in Chapter 4. The ﬁrst term imposes mean reversion. When the current value of rt is higher than the long-run value, the term between parentheses is negative, which creates a downward trend. More generally, the mean term could reﬂect the path implied in forward interest rates.

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The second term deﬁnes the innovation, which can be given a normal distribution. An important issue is whether the volatility of the innovation should be constant or proportional to some power γ of the current value of the interest rate rt . If the horizon is short, this issue is not so important because the current rate will be close to the initial rate anyway. When γ ⳱ 0, changes in yields are normally distributed, which is the Vasicek model (1977). As seen in Chapter 13, a typical volatility of absolute changes in yields is 1% per annum. A potential problem with this is that the volatility is the same whether the yields starts at 20% or 1%. As a result, the yield could turn negative, depending on the initial starting point and the strength of the mean reversion. Another class of models is the lognormal model, which takes γ ⳱ 1. The model can then be rewritten in terms of drt 冫 rt ⳱ d ln(rt ). This speciﬁcation ensures that the volatility shrinks as r gets close to zero, avoiding negative values. A typical volatility of relative changes in yields is 15% per annum, which is also the 1% for changes in the level of rates divided by an initial rate of 6.7%. For illustration purposes, we choose the normal process γ ⳱ 0 with mean reversion κ ⳱ 0.02 and volatility σ ⳱ 0.25% per month, which are realistic parameters based on recent U.S. data. The initial and long-run values of r are 6%. Typical simulation values are shown in Figure 21-2. Note how rates can deviate from their initial value but are pulled back to the long-term value of 6%. We need, however, the whole distribution of values at each point in time. FIGURE 21-2 Simulation Paths for the Interest Rate 12

Yield

10 8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

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FIGURE 21-3 Distribution Proﬁle for the Interest Rate Yield 12 10 8 6 4 Maximum Max Expected Average Minimum Min

2 0 12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

AM FL Y

0

This model is convenient because it leads to closed-form solutions. The distribution of future values for r is summarized in Figure 21-3 by its mean and two-tailed 90 percent conﬁdence band (called maximum and minimum values). The graph shows that the mean is 6%, which is also the long-run value. The conﬁdence bands initially reversion effect.

TE

widen due to the increasing horizon, then converge to a ﬁxed value due to the mean The next step is to value the swap. At each point in time, the current market value of the swap is the difference between the value of a ﬁxed-coupon bond and a ﬂoatingrate note

Vt ⳱ B ($100, t, T , c, rt ) ⫺ B ($100, FRN)

(21.9)

Here, c is the annualized coupon rate, and T is the maturity date. The risk to the swap comes from the fact that the ﬁxed leg has a coupon c that could differ from prevailing market rates. The principals are not exchanged. Figure 21-4 illustrates the changes in cash ﬂows that could arise from a drop in rates from 6% to 4% after 5 years. The receive-ﬁxed party would then be owed every six months, for a semiannual pay swap, $100 ⫻ (6 ⫺ 4)% ⫻ 0.5 ⳱ $1 million until the maturity of the swap. With 10 payments remaining, this adds up to a positive credit exposure of $10 million. Discounting over the life of the remaining payments gives $8.1 million as of the valuation date. In what follows, we assume that the swap receives ﬁxed payments that are paid at a continuous rate instead of semiannually, which simpliﬁes the example. Otherwise, there would be discontinuities in cash-ﬂow patterns and we would have to consider

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FIGURE 21-4 Net Cash Flows When Rates Fall to 4% after 5 Years 1.2

Cash flow ($ million)

1.0 0.8 0.6 0.4 0.2 0.0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

the risk of the ﬂoating leg as well. We also use continuous compounding. Deﬁning N as the number of remaining years, the coupon bond value is c B ($100, N, c, r ) ⳱ $100 [1 ⫺ e⫺r N ] Ⳮ $100e⫺r N r

(21.10)

as we have seen in the Appendix to Chapter 1. The ﬁrst term is the present value of the ﬁxed-coupon cash ﬂows discounted at the current rate r . The second term is the repayment of principal. For the special case where the coupon rate is equal to the current market rate, c ⳱ r , and the market value is indeed $100 for this par bond. If c ⬎ r , the market value must be above par. The ﬂoating-rate note can be priced in the same way, but with a coupon rate that is always equal to the current rate. Hence, its value is always at par. To understand the exposure proﬁle of the coupon bond, we need to consider two opposing effects. (1) The diffusion effect: As time goes by, the uncertainty in the interest rate increases. (2) The amortization effect: As maturity draws near, the bond’s duration decreases to zero. This second effect is described in Figure 21-5, which shows the bond’s duration converging to zero. This explains why the bond’s market value converges to the face value upon maturity whatever happens to the current interest rate. Because the bond is a strictly monotonous function of the current yield, we can compute the 90 percent conﬁdence bands by valuing the bond using the extreme interest rates range at each point in time. We use Equation (21.10) at each point in time in Figure 21-3. This exposure proﬁle is shown in Figure 21-6.

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FIGURE 21-5 Duration Proﬁle for a 10-Year Bond 8

Years

7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

Initially, the market value of the bond is $100. After two or three years, the range of values is the greatest, from $87 to $115. Thereafter, the range converges to the face value of $100. But overall, the ﬂuctuations as a proportion of the face value are relatively small. When considering other approximations in the measurement of credit risk, such as the imprecision in default probability and recovery rate, assuming a constant exposure for the bond is not a bad approximation.

FIGURE 21-6 Exposure Proﬁle for a 10-Year Bond Bond price 120 100 80 60 Maximum Max Expected Average Minimum Min

40 20 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

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FIGURE 21-7 Exposure Proﬁle for a 10-Year Interest-Rate Swap Swap value 20 18 Maximum 16 Average of maximum

14

Expected

12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108

120

This is not the case, however, for the interest-rate swap. Its value can be found from subtracting $100 (the value of the ﬂoating-rate note) from that of the coupon bond. Initially, its value is zero. Thereafter, it can take on positive or negative values. Credit exposure is the positive value only. Figure 21-7 presents the proﬁle of the expected exposure and of the maximum (worst) exposure at the one-sided 95 percent level. It also shows the average maximum exposure over the whole life of the swap. Intuitively, the value of the swap is derived from the difference between the ﬁxed and ﬂoating cash ﬂows. Consider a swap with two remaining payments and a notional amount of $100. Its value is Vt ⳱$100

⳱$100

冋 冋

册

冋

c c 1 r r 1 Ⳮ Ⳮ ⫺ $100 Ⳮ Ⳮ 2 2 2 (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 r ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r )2 (c ⫺ r ) (c ⫺ r ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r )2

册

册

(21.11)

Note how the principal payments cancel out and we are left with the discounted net difference between the ﬁxed coupon and the prevailing rate (c ⫺ r ). This information can be used to assess the expected exposure and worst exposure on a target date. The peak exposure occurs around the second year into the swap, or about a fourth of the swap’s life. At that point, the expected exposure is about

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3 to 4 percent of the notional, which is much less than that of the bond. The worst exposure peaks at about 10 to 15 percent of notional. In practice, these values depend on the particular stochastic process used, but the exposure proﬁles will be qualitatively similar. To assess the potential variation in swap values, we can make some approximations based on duration. Consider ﬁrst the very short-term exposure, for which mean reversion and changes in durations are not important. The volatility of changes in rates then simply increases with the square root of time. Given a 0.25% per month volatility and 7.5-year initial duration, we can approximate the volatility of the swap value over the next year as σ (V ) ⳱ $100 ⫻ 7.5 ⫻ [0.25% 冪12] ⳱ $6.5 million Multiplying by 1.645, we get $10.7 million, which is close to the $9.4 million actual 95% worst exposure in a year reported in Figure 21-7. a ﬁxed duration and The trade-off between declining duration and increasing risk can be formalized with a slightly more realistic example. Assume that the bond’s (modiﬁed) duration is proportional to the remaining life, or D ⳱ k(T ⫺ t ) at any date t . The volatility from 0 to time t can be written as σ (rt ⫺ r0 ) ⳱ σ 冪t . Hence, the swap volatility is σ (V ) ⳱ [k(T ⫺ t )]σ 冪t

(21.12)

To see where it reaches a maximum, we differentiate with respect to t , and get dσ (V ) 1 ⳱ [k(⫺1)]σ 冪t Ⳮ [k(T ⫺ t )]σ dt 2 冪t Setting this to zero, we have 冪 t ⳱ (T ⫺ t )

1 2 冪t

or 2t ⳱ (T ⫺ t ) or tMAX ⳱ (1冫 3)T

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FIGURE 21-8 Exposure Proﬁle for a 5-Year Interest-Rate Swap Swap value 20 18

Maximum

16 Average of maximum

14

Expected

12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

The maximum exposure occurs at one-third of the life of the swap. This occurs later than the one-fourth reported previously because we assumed no mean reversion. At that point, the worst credit exposure will be 1.645 σ (VMAX ) ⳱ 1.645k(2冫 3)T σ 冪T 冫 3 ⳱ 1.645k(2冫 3)σ 冪1冫 3 T 3冫 2

(21.14)

which shows that the WCE increases as T 3冫 2 , which is faster than the maturity. Figure 21-8 shows the exposure proﬁle of a 5-year swap. Here again, the peak exposure occurs at a third of the swap’s life. As expected, the magnitude is lower, with The peak expected exposure is only about 1 percent of notional. Finally, Figure 21-9 displays the exposure proﬁle when the initial interest rate is at 5% with a coupon of 6%. As a result, the swap is already in-the-money, with a markto-market value of $7.9 million. If we assume a long-run rate of 6%, the total exposure proﬁle starts from a positive value, reaches a maximum after about two years, then converges to zero. Example 21-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 111/Credit Risk 21-5. What is the primary difference between the default implications of loans versus those of interest-rate swaps? a) The principal in a swap is not at risk. b) The cash ﬂows in the loans are determined by the level of rates, not the difference in rates. c) Default on a loan requires only that the ﬁrm be in ﬁnancial distress, a swap also requires that the remaining value be positive to the dealer. d) All of the above.

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FIGURE 21-9 Exposure Proﬁle for a 10-Year In-the-Money Swap Swap value 20 18

Maximum

16 Average of maximum

14

Expected

12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

Example 21-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 133/Credit Risk 21-6. Which criteria would result in the best measure of loan equivalent exposure for risk management and capital allocation purposes? a) Current mark-to-market value of a contract b) Current mark-to-market value of a contract plus an add-on factor for future potential exposure c) A factor of 3 percent multiplied by the notional amount multiplied by the number of years, or fraction thereof, until maturity, i.e. 3% ⫻ NT , where N is notional, and T is time to maturity in years d) Sum of the net notional amount of all transactions with the same counterparty Example 21-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 118/Credit Risk 21-7. Assume that swap rates are identical for all swap tenors. A swap dealer entered into a plain vanilla swap one year ago as the receive-ﬁxed party, when the price of the swap was 7%. Today, this swap dealer will face credit risk exposure from this swap only if the value of the swap for the dealer is a) Negative, which will occur if new swaps are being priced at 6% b) Negative, which will occur if new swaps are being priced at 8% c) Positive, which will occur if new swaps are being priced at 6% d) Positive, which will occur if new swaps are being priced at 8%

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Example 21-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 148/Credit Risk 21-8. Assume that the DV01 of an interest-rate swap is proportional to its time to maturity (which at the initiation of the swap is equal to T). Also, assume that the interest-rate curve moves are parallel, stochastic with constant volatility, normally distributed, and independent. At what time will the maximum potential exposure be reached? a) T/4 b) T/3 c) T/2 d) 3T/4 Example 21-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 29/Credit Risk 21-9. Determine at what point in the future a derivatives portfolio will reach its maximum potential exposure. All the derivatives are on one underlying, which is assumed to move in a stochastic fashion (variance in the underlying’s value increases linearly with time passage). The derivatives portfolio sensitivity to the underlying is expected to drop off as (T ⫺ t )2 (square of the time left to maturity), where T is the time from today the last contract in the portfolio rolls off, and t is the time from today. a) T/5 b) T/3 c) T/2 d) None of the above Example 21-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 149/Credit Risk 21-10. (Complex) Assume that the DV01 of an interest-rate swap is equal to 4,000 times its time left to maturity in years. At initiation, the swap tenor is three years and the swap is at par. Assume that the interest-rate curve moves are parallel, stochastic with constant volatility, and normally distributed and independent with 1 day standard deviation of 5 bp. Assume 250 business days per year. The swap’s maximum potential exposure at the 99% conﬁdence level is approximately a) 700,000 b) 1,000,000 c) 1,500,000 d) 2,000,000

21.2.4

Exposure Proﬁle for Currency Swaps

Exposure proﬁles are substantially different for other swaps. Consider, for instance, a currency swap where the notionals are $100 million against £50 million, set at an initial exchange rate of S ($冫 £) ⳱ 2.

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The market value of a currency swap that receives foreign currency is Vt ⳱ St ($冫 £)Bⴱ (£50, t, T, cⴱ , rⴱ ) ⫺ B($100, t, T, c, r)

(21.15)

Following usual conventions, asterisks refer to foreign currency values. In general, this swap is exposed to domestic as well as foreign interest-rate risk. When we just have two remaining coupons, the value of the swap evolves according to S £50

冤

冥

冋

册

cⴱ cⴱ c c 1 1 Ⳮ Ⳮ ⫺ $100 Ⳮ Ⳮ (21.16) ⴱ 2 2 2 ⴱ ⴱ (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r )2

Note that, relative to Equation (21.11), the principals do not cancel each other since they are paid in different currencies. In what follows, we will assume for simplicity that there is no interest-rate risk, or that the value of the swap is dominated by currency risk. Further, we assume that the coupons are the same in the two currencies, otherwise there would be an asymmetrical accumulation of payments. As before, we have to choose a stochastic process for the spot rate. Say this is a lognormal process with constant variance and no trend: dSt ⳱ σ St dzt

(21.17)

We choose σ ⳱ 12% annually, which is realistic as seen in Chapter 13. This process ensures that the rate never turns negative. Figure 21-10 presents the exposure proﬁle of a 10-year currency swap. Here, there is no amortization effect, and exposure increases continuously over time. The peak exposure occurs at the end of the life of the swap. At that point, the expected exposure is about 10 percent of the notional, which is much higher than for the interest-rate swap. The worst exposure is commensurately high, at about 45 percent of notional. Although these values depend on the particular stochastic process and parameters used, this example demonstrates that credit exposures for currency swaps is far greater than for interest-rate swaps, even with identical maturities.

21.2.5

Exposure Proﬁle for Different Coupons

So far, we have assumed a ﬂat term structure and equal coupon payments in different currencies, which create a symmetric situation for the exposure for the long and

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FIGURE 21-10 Exposure Proﬁle for a 10-Year Currency Swap 50

Swap value

40

30 Maximum 20

Expected

10

0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

short party. In reality, these conditions will not hold, creating asymmetric exposure patterns. Consider, for instance, the interest-rate swap in Equation (21.11). If the term structure slopes upward, the coupon rate is greater than the ﬂoating rate, c ⬎ r , and the ﬁxed receiver receives a net payment in the near term. The value of the swap can be analyzed projecting ﬂoating payments at the forward rate Vt ⳱

(c ⫺ s1 ) (c ⫺ f12 ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ s1 ) (1 Ⳮ s2 )2

where s1 , s2 are the 1- and 2-year spot rates, and f12 is the 1- to 2-year forward rate.

Example: Consider a $100 million interest-rate swap with two remaining payments. We have s1 ⳱ 5%, s2 ⳱ 6.03% and hence using (1 Ⳮ s2 )2 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ s1 )(1 Ⳮ f12 ), we have f12 ⳱ 7.07%. The coupon yield of c ⳱ 6% is such that the swap has zero initial value. The table below shows that the present value of the ﬁrst payment (to the party who receives ﬁxed) is positive and equal to $0.9524. The second payment then must be negative, and is equal to ⫺$0.9524. The two payments exactly offset each other because the swap has zero value.

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Expected Spot 5% 7.07%

Expected Payment 6.00 ⫺ 5.00 ⳱ Ⳮ1.00 6.00 ⫺ 7.07 ⳱ ⫺1.07

Discounted Ⳮ0.9524 ⫺0.9524 0.0000

This pattern of payments, however, creates more credit exposure to the ﬁxed payer because it involves a payment in the ﬁrst period offset by a receipt in the second. If the counterparty defaults shortly after the ﬁrst payment is made, there could be a credit loss even if interest rates have not changed.

AM FL Y

Key concept: With a positively sloped term structure, the receiver of ﬂoating rate (payer of the ﬁxed rate) has greater credit exposure than the counterparty. A similar issue arises with currency swaps when the two coupon rates differ. Low nominal interest rates imply a higher forward exchange rate. The party that receives payments in a low-coupon currency is expected to receive greater payments later during the exchange of principal. If the counterparty defaults, there could be a credit loss

TE

even if rates have not changed.

Table 21-1 gives the example of a ﬁxed-rate swap where one party receives 6% in dollars against paying 9% in pounds. We assume a ﬂat term structure in both currencies and an initial spot rate of $2/£. The ﬁrst panel describes the present-value factors as well as the forward rates. Because of the higher pound interest rate, the forward exchange value of the pound drops from $2.0000 to $1.5129 after 10 years. The two rightmost columns in the ﬁrst panel report the present value of the stream of payments, each discounted in its own currency. They sum to $100 million and ⫺£50 million respectively, which at the current spot rate of $2/£ adds up to zero. The initial value of the swap is zero. The second panel lays out the cash ﬂows in each currency. The three columns on the right describe the credit exposure. First, the pound cash ﬂow is translated into dollars at the forward rate. For instance, the ﬁrst payment of £4.50 is also 4.5 ⫻ 1.9449 ⳱ $8.75. The sum of the receipt of $6 million and payment of $8.75 million gives a net outﬂow of $2.75 million. The table shows that the ﬁrst 9 years involve an outﬂow, which is eventually offset by an inﬂow of $23.54 million in year 10. The last column converts these expected credit exposures at different point in time into a current

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TABLE 21-1 Credit Exposure Proﬁle for a Currency Swap $100 million at 6% against £50 million at 9% Time

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Total Time 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Total

Market Data PV-$ PV-£ FX($/£) 2.0000 0.9434 0.9174 1.9449 0.8900 0.8417 1.8914 0.8396 0.7722 1.8394 0.7921 0.7084 1.7887 0.7473 0.6499 1.7395 0.7050 0.5963 1.6916 0.6651 0.5470 1.6451 0.6274 0.5019 1.5998 0.5919 0.4604 1.5558 0.5584 0.4224 1.5129

Cash Flows Receive Pay $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $106.00 ⫺£54.50

Pay in $ ⫺$8.75 ⫺$8.51 ⫺$8.28 ⫺$8.05 ⫺$7.83 ⫺$7.61 ⫺$7.40 ⫺$7.20 ⫺$7.00 ⫺$82.46

Swap Valuation NPV($) NPV(£) $5.66 $5.34 $5.04 $4.75 $4.48 $4.23 $3.99 $3.76 $3.55 $59.19 $100.00

⫺£4.13 ⫺£3.79 ⫺£3.47 ⫺£3.19 ⫺£2.92 ⫺£2.68 ⫺£2.46 ⫺£2.26 ⫺£2.07 ⫺£23.02 ⫺£50.00

Exposure Difference ⫺$2.75 ⫺$2.51 ⫺$2.28 ⫺$2.05 ⫺$1.83 ⫺$1.61 ⫺$1.40 ⫺$1.20 ⫺$1.00 $23.54

NPV(Diff.) ⫺$2.60 ⫺$2.24 ⫺$1.91 ⫺$1.62 ⫺$1.37 ⫺$1.14 ⫺$0.93 ⫺$0.75 ⫺$0.59 $13.15 $0.00

value, discounting at the 6% dollar rate. The net present values (NPVs) of the differences sum to zero, as required. The table, however, shows that if the counterparty defaults in year 9, the remaining credit exposure is quite high. Key concept: The receiver of a low-coupon currency has greater credit exposure than the counterparty.

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Example 21-11: FRM Exam 2001----Question 8 21-11. Which of the following 10-year swaps has the highest potential credit exposure? a) A cross-currency swap after 2 years b) A cross-currency swap after 9 years c) An interest rate swap after 2 years d) An interest rate swap after 9 years Example 21-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 47/Credit Risk 21-12. Which one of the following deals would have the largest credit exposure for a $1,000,000 deal size (assume the counterparty in each deal is a AAA-rated bank and has no settlement risk)? a) Pay ﬁxed in an AUD interest-rate swap for 1 year b) Sell USD against AUD in a 1-year forward foreign exchange contract c) Sell a 1-year AUD Cap d) Purchase a 1-year Certiﬁcate of Deposit Example 21-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 153/Credit Risk 21-13. The amount of potential exposure arising from being long an OTC USD/EUR forward contract will be a function of the I) Credit quality of the counterparty II) Tenor of the contract III) Volatility of the spot USD/EUR exchange rate IV) Volatility of the USD interest rate V) Volatility of the EUR interest rate VI) Nominal amount of the contract a) All of the above b) All except I c) I, II, III, and VI d) III, IV, and V Example 21-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 33/Credit Risk 21-14. The amount of potential exposure arising from being long an over-the-counter USD/DEM forward contract will be a function of the a) Credit quality of the counterparty b) Credit quality of the counterparty and the tenor of the contract c) Volatility of the USD/DEM exchange rate and the tenor of the contract d) Volatility of the USD/DEM exchange rate and the credit quality of the counterparty

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Exposure Modiﬁers

In a continual attempt to decrease credit exposures, the industry has developed a number for methods to limit exposures. This section analyzes marking-to-market, margins and collateral, recouponing, and netting arrangements.

21.3.1

Marking to Market

The ultimate form of reducing credit exposure is marking-to-market (MTM). Markingto-market involves settling the variation in the contract value on a regular basis, e.g. daily. For OTC contracts, counterparties can agree to longer periods, e.g. monthly or quarterly. If the MTM treatment is symmetrical across the two counterparties, it is called two-way marking-to-market. Otherwise if one party settles losses only, it is called one-way marking-to-market. Marking-to-market has long been used by organized exchanges to deal with credit risk. The reason is that exchanges are accessible to a wide variety of investors, including retail investors, unlike OTC markets where institutions interacting with each other typically will have an on-going relationship. As one observer put it, “Futures markets are designed to permit trading among strangers, as against other markets which permit only trading among friends.” With daily marking-to-market, the current exposure is reduced to zero. There is still, however, potential exposure because the value of the contract could change before the next settlement. Potential exposure arises from (i) the time interval between MTM periods and (ii) the time required for liquidating the contract when the counterparty defaults. In the case of a retail client, the broker can generally liquidate the position fairly quickly, within a day. When positions are very large, as in the case of brokers dealing with long-term capital management (LTCM), however, the liquidation period could be much longer. Indeed LTCM’s bailout was motivated by the potential disruption to ﬁnancial markets should all brokers attempt to liquidate their contracts with LTCM at the same time.

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Another issue with marking-to-market is that it introduces other types of risks, in particular ● Operational risk, which is due to the need to keep track of contract values and to make or receive payments daily, and ● Liquidity risk, because the institution now needs to keep enough cash to absorb variations in contract values. Margins Potential exposure is covered by margin requirements. Margins represent cash or securities that must be advanced in order to open a position. The purpose of these funds is to provide a buffer against potential exposure. Exchanges, for instance, require customers to post initial margin, whenever establishing a new position. This margin serves as a performance bond to offset possible future losses should the customer default. Contract gains and losses are then added to the posted margin in the equity account. Whenever the value of this equity account falls below a threshold, set at a maintenance margin, new funds must be provided. Margins are set in relation to price volatility and to the type of position, speculative or hedging. Margins increase for more volatile contracts. Margins are typically lower for hedgers because a loss on the futures position can be offset by a gain on the physical, assuming no basis risk. Some exchanges set margins at a level that covers the 99th percentile of worst daily price changes, which is a daily VAR system for credit risk. Collateral Over-the-counter markets may allow posting securities as collateral instead of cash. This collateral protects against current and potential exposure. Typically, the amount of the collateral will exceed the funds owed by an amount known as the haircut. This difference will be a function of market and credit risk. For instance, cash can have a haircut of zero, which means that there is full protection against current exposure. Government securities can require a haircut of 1%, 3%, and 8% for shortterm, medium-term, and longer-term maturities. With greater price volatility, there is an increasing chance of losses if the counterparty defaults and the collateral loses value, which explains the increasing haircuts.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

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CREDIT EXPOSURE

481

Exposure Limits

Credit exposure can be managed by setting position limits on the exposure to a counterparty. Ideally, these should be evaluated in a portfolio context, taking into account all the contracts between an institution and a counterparty. To enforce limits, information on transactions must be centralized in middle-ofﬁce systems, which generate an exposure proﬁle for each counterparty. The exposure proﬁle is then used to manage credit line usage for several arbitrarily deﬁned maturity buckets. Each proposed additional trade with the same counterparty is then examined for incremental effect on total exposure. These limits can be also set at the instrument level. In the case of a swap, for instance, an exposure cap requires a payment to be made whenever the value of the contract exceeds some amount. Figure 21-11 shows the effect of a $5 million cap on our 10-year swap. If, after two years, say, the contract suddenly moves into a positive value of $11 million, the counterparty would be required to make a payment of $6 million to bring the swap’s outstanding value back to $5 million. This now limits the worst exposure to $5 million and also lowers the average exposure. FIGURE 21-11 Effect of Exposure Cap 20

Swap value

18 16 14 12 10 8

Maximum

6 4 2 0 0

21.3.3

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

Recouponing

Another method to control exposure at the instrument level is recouponing. Recouponing is a clause in the contract requiring the contract to be marked-to-market

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FIGURE 21-12 Effect of Recouponing After 5 Years 20

Swap value

18 16 14 12

Maximum

10 Expected

8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108

120

at some ﬁxed date. This involves (i) exchanging cash to bring the MTM value to zero and (ii) resetting the coupon or the exchange rate to prevailing market values. Figure 21-12 shows the effect of 5-year recouponing on our 100-year swap. The exposure is truncated to zero after 5 years. Thereafter, the exposure proﬁle is that of a swap with a remaining 5-year maturity.

21.3.4

Netting Arrangements

Perhaps the most powerful arrangement to control exposures are netting agreements. These are by now a common feature of standardized master swap agreements such as the one established in 1992 by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA). The purpose of these agreements is to provide for the netting of payments across a set of contracts. In case of default, a counterparty cannot stop payments on contracts that have negative value while demanding payment on positive value contracts. As a result, this system reduces the exposure to the net payment for all the contracts covered by the netting agreement. Table 21-2 gives an example with four contracts. Without a netting agreement, the exposure of the ﬁrst two contracts is the sum of the positive part of each, or $100 million. In contrast, if the ﬁrst two fall under a netting agreement, their value would offset each other, resulting in a net exposure of $100 ⫺ $60 ⳱ $40 million. If contracts

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TABLE 21-2 Comparison of Exposure with and without Netting Contract Value

Contract

1 2 Total, 1 & 2 3 4 Grand total, 1 to 4

Exposure No Netting

Exposure With Netting for 1 & 2 Under netting agreement Ⳮ$100 Ⳮ$100 ⫺$60 Ⳮ$0 Ⳮ$40 Ⳮ$100 Ⳮ$40 No netting agreement Ⳮ$25 Ⳮ$25 ⫺$15 Ⳮ$0 +$65 Ⳮ$50 Ⳮ$125

3 and 4 do not fall under the netting agreement, the exposure is then increased to $40 Ⳮ $25 ⳱ $65 million. To summarize, the net exposure with netting is N

冱 Vi , 0)

Net exposure ⳱ Max(V , 0) ⳱ Max(

(21.18)

i ⳱1

Without a netting agreement, the gross exposure is the sum of all positive-value contracts N

Gross exposure ⳱

冱 Max(Vi , 0)

(21.19)

i ⳱1

This is always greater than, or at best equal to, the exposure under the netting agreement. The beneﬁt from netting depends on the number of contracts N and the extent to which contract values covary with each other. The larger the value of N and the lower the correlation, the greater the beneﬁt from netting. It is easy to verify from Table 21-2 that if all contracts move into positive value at the same time, or have high correlation, there will be no beneﬁt from netting. Figures 21-13 and 21-14 illustrate the effect of netting on a portfolio of two swaps with the same counterparty. In each case, interest rates could increase or decrease with the same probability. In Figure 21-13, the bank is long both a 10-year and 5-year swap. The top panel describes the worst exposure when rates fall. In this case there is positive exposure for both contracts, which we add to get the total portfolio exposure. Whether there is

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FIGURE 21-13 Netting with Two Long Positions 10-year swap Netting r↓

No Netting

5-year swap

10-year swap

r↑

5-year swap

FIGURE 21-14 Netting with a Long and Short Position 10-year swap Netting r↓

No Netting

5-year swap

10-year swap

r↑

5-year swap

netting or not does not matter because the two positions are positive at the same time. The bottom panel describes the worst exposure when rates increase. Both positions as well as the portfolio have zero exposure. In Figure 21-14, the bank is long the 10-year and short the 5-year swap. When rates fall, the ﬁrst swap has positive value and the second has negative value. With netting,

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the worst exposure proﬁle is reduced. In contrast, with no netting the exposure is that of the 10-year swap. Conversely, when rates increase, the swap value is negative for the ﬁrst and positive for the second. With netting, the exposure proﬁle is zero, whereas without netting it is the same as that of the 5-year swap. Banks provide some information in their annual report about the beneﬁt of netting for their current exposure. Without netting agreements or collateral, the gross replacement value (GRV) is reported as the sum of the worst-case exposures if all counterparties K default at the same time: K

GRV ⳱

冱

K

Gross exposurek ⳱

Nk

冱 冱 Max(Vi , 0)

(21.20)

k⳱1 i ⳱1

k⳱1

With netting agreements and collateral, the resulting exposure is deﬁned as the net replacement value (NRV). This is the sum, over all counterparties, of the net positive exposure minus any collateral held: K

NRV ⳱

冱

k⳱1

冱

k⳱1

冢冱 冣 Nk

K

Net exposurek ⳱

Max

Vi , 0 ⫺ Collateralk

(21.21)

i ⳱1

Example 21-15: FRM Exam 1998----Question 34/Credit Risk 21-15. A diversiﬁed portfolio of OTC derivatives with a single counterparty currently has a net mark-to-market of $20 million. Assuming that there are no netting agreements in place with the counterparty, determine the current credit exposure to the counterparty. a) Less than $20 million b) Exactly $20 million c) Greater than $20 million d) Unable to be determined

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Example 21-16: FRM Exam 1999----Question 131/Credit Risk 21-16. To reduce credit risk, a company can a) Expose themselves to many different counterparties b) Take on a variety of positions c) Set up netting agreements with all of their approved trading partners d) All of the above

AM FL Y

Example 21-17: FRM Exam 1999----Question 154/Credit Risk 21-17. A diversiﬁed portfolio of OTC derivatives with a single counterparty currently has a net mark-to-market of USD 20,000,000 and a gross absolute mark-to-market (the sum of the value of all positive value positions minus the value of all negative value positions) of USD 80,000,000. Assuming there are no netting agreements in place with the counterparty, determine the current credit exposure to the counterparty. a) Less than or equal to USD 19,000,000 b) Greater than USD 19,000,000 but less than or equal to USD 40,000,000 c) Greater than USD 40,000,000 but less than USD 60,000,000 d) Greater than USD 60,000,000

TE

Example 21-18: FRM Exam 1999----Question 123/Credit Risk 21-18. An equity repo is a repo in which common stock is used as collateral in place of the more usual ﬁxed-income instrument. The mechanics of equity repos are effectively the same as ﬁxed-income repos, except that the haircut a) Is smaller because equities are more liquid than ﬁxed-income instruments b) Is larger because equity prices are more volatile than those of ﬁxed-income instruments c) About the same for both equity and ﬁxed-income deals because the counterparty credit risk is the same d) Cannot be determined in advance because equity prices, in contrast to ﬁxed-income instrument prices, are not martingales

21.4

Credit Risk Modiﬁers

Credit risk modiﬁers operate on credit exposure, default risk, or a combination of both. For completeness, this section discusses modiﬁers that affect default risk.

21.4.1

Credit Triggers

Credit triggers specify that if either counterparty credit rating falls below a speciﬁed level, the other party has the right to have the swap cash-settled. These are not

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exposure modiﬁers, but instead attempt to reduce the probability of default. For instance, if all outstanding swaps can be terminated when the counterparty rating falls below A, the probability of default is lowered to the probability that a counterparty will default while rated A or higher. These triggers are useful when the credit rating of a ﬁrm deteriorates slowly, because few ﬁrms directly jump from investment-grade into bankruptcy. The increased protection can be estimated by analyzing transition probabilities, as discussed in Chapter 19. For example, say a transaction with an AA-rated borrower has a cumulative probability of default of 0.81% over ten years. If the contract can be terminated whenever the rating falls to BB or below, this probability falls to 0.23% only.

21.4.2

Time Puts

Time puts, or mutual termination options, permit either counterparty to terminate unconditionally the transaction on one or more dates in the contract. This feature decreases both the default risk and the exposure. It allows one counterparty to terminate the contract if the exposure is large and the other party’s rating starts to slip. Triggers and puts, which are a type of contingent requirements, can cause serious trouble, however. They create calls on liquidity precisely in states of the world where the company is faring badly, putting further pressures on the company’s liquidity. Indeed triggers in some of Enron’s securities forced the company to make large cash payments and propelled it into bankruptcy. Rather than offering protection, these clauses can trigger bankruptcy, affecting all creditors adversely.

21.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 21-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 130/Credit Risk a) There is no credit risk from selling options if the premium is received up front. Example 21-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 151/Credit Risk d) The maximum exposure is potentially very large because this is a long position in an option, certainly larger than the initial premium. At a minimum, the exposure is the current exposure of EUR 10,000.

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Example 21-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 84 b) Being short an option creates no credit exposure, so answers (c) and (d) are false. With the short forward contract, a gain will be realized if the EUR has depreciated. Example 21-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 35/Credit Risk a) To have a credit loss, we need a combination of positive exposure and default. The swaps with Universal Tools have negative exposure, so they do not create credit risk. Answer (a) is the best because it combines positive exposure and default risk. Example 21-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 111/Credit Risk d) For a loan, the principal is at risk, and the payments depend on the level of rates; the swap needs to be in-the-money for a credit loss to occur. Example 21-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 133/Credit Risk b) MTM and notionals alone do not measure the potential exposure. We need a combination of current MTM plus an add-on for potential exposure. Example 21-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 118/Credit Risk c) The value of the swap must be positive to the dealer to have some exposure. This will happen if current rates are less than the ﬁxed coupon. Example 21-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 148/Credit Risk b) See Equation (21.14). Example 21-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 29/Credit Risk a) This question alters the variance proﬁle in Equation (21.12). Taking now the variance instead of the volatility, we have σ 2 ⳱ k(T ⫺ t )4 ⫻ t, where k is a constant. Differentiating with respect to t , dσ 2 ⳱ k[(⫺1)4(T ⫺ t )3 ]t Ⳮ k[(T ⫺ t )4 ] ⳱ k(T ⫺ t )3 [⫺4t Ⳮ T ⫺ t ] dt Setting this to zero, we have t ⳱ T 冫 5. Intuitively, because the exposure proﬁle drops off faster than in Equation (21.12), we must have earlier peak exposure than T 冫 3. Example 21-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 149/Credit Risk c) We know from the previous question that the maximum is at t ⳱ T 冫 3. We then plug into σMAX (V ) ⳱ [k(T ⫺t )]σ 冪t . This is also [kT (2冫 3)]σ 冪T 冫 3 ⳱ [4,000 ⫻ 2] ⫻ 5 ⫻ 冪250 ⳱ 632,456. Multiplying by 2.33, we get 1,473,621.

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Example 21-11: FRM Exam 2001----Question 8 a) The question asks about potential exposure for various swaps during their life. Interest rate swaps generally have lower exposure than currency swaps because there is no market risk on the principals. Currency swaps with longer remaining maturities have greater potential exposure. This is the case for the 10-year currency swap, which after 2 years has 8 years remaining to maturity. Example 21-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 47/Credit Risk d) The CD has the whole notional at risk. Otherwise, the next greatest exposure is for the forward currency contract and the interest rate swap. The short cap position has no exposure if the premium has been collected. Note that the question eliminates settlement risk for the forward contract. Example 21-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 153/Credit Risk b) All items have an effect on exposure except (I), which is default risk. Example 21-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 33/Credit Risk c) The credit quality is not involved in the calculation of the potential exposure. It is only taken into account for the computation of the Basel risk weights, or for the distribution of credit losses. Example 21-15: FRM Exam 1998----Question 34/Credit Risk d) Without additional information and no netting agreement, it is not possible to determine the exposure from the net amount only. The portfolio could have two swaps with value of $100 million and ⫺$80 million, which gives an exposure of $100 million without netting. Example 21-16: FRM Exam 1999----Question 131/Credit Risk d) Credit risk will be decreased with netting, more positions and counterparties. Example 21-17: FRM Exam 1999----Question 154/Credit Risk c) Deﬁne X and Y as the absolute values of the positive and negative positions. The net value is X ⫺ Y ⳱ 20 million. The absolute gross value is X Ⳮ Y ⳱ 80. Solving, we get X ⳱ 50 million. This is the positive part of the positions, or exposure. Example 21-18: FRM Exam 1999----Question 123/Credit Risk b) The haircut on equity repos is greater due to the greater price volatility of the collateral.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 22 Credit Derivatives Credit derivatives are the latest tool in the management of portfolio credit risk. From 1996 to 2002, the market is estimated to have grown from about $40 billion to more than $2,300 billion. The market has doubled in each of these years. Credit derivatives are contracts that pass credit risk from one counterparty to another. They allow credit risk to be stripped from loans and bonds and placed in a different market. Their performance is based on a credit spread, a credit rating, or default status. Like other derivatives, they can be traded on a stand-alone basis or embedded in some other instrument, such as a credit-linked note. Section 22.1 presents the rationale for credit derivatives. Section 22.2 describes credit default swaps, total return swaps, credit spread forward and option contracts, as well as credit-linked notes. Section 22.3 then provides a brief introduction to the pricing and hedging of credit derivatives. Finally, Section 22.4 discusses the pros and cons of credit derivatives.

22.1

Introduction

Credit derivatives have grown so quickly because they provide an efﬁcient mechanism to exchange credit risk. While modern banking is built on the sensible notion that a portfolio of loans is less risky than single ones, banks still tend to be too concentrated in geographic or industrial sectors. This is because their comparative advantage is “relationship banking,” which is usually limited to a clientele banks know best. So far, it has been difﬁcult to lay off this credit exposure, as there is only a limited market for secondary loans. In addition, borrowers may not like to see their bank selling their loans to another party, even for diversiﬁcation reasons. In fact, credit derivatives are not totally new. Bond insurance is a contract between a bond issuer and a guarantor (a bank or insurer) to provide additional payment should the issuer fail to make full and timely payment. A letter of credit is a

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guarantee by a bank to provide a payment to a third party should the primary credit fail on its obligations. The call feature in corporate bonds involves an option on the risk-free interest rate as well as the credit spread; this is generally not considered a credit derivative, however. Indeed the borrower can also call back the bond should its credit rating improve. What is new is the transparency and trading made possible by credit derivatives. Credit derivatives can also be found on organized exchanges. The value of Eurodollar futures is driven by short-term rates plus a credit spread. Hence a TreasuryEurodollar (TED) spread is solely exposed to credit risk. The credit risk component can be isolated by buying one type of futures contract and shorting the other. Example 22-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 44/Credit Risk 22-1. All of the following can be accomplished with the use of a credit derivative except a) Reducing credit concentration risk b) Allowing a fund to invest in corporate loans c) Preventing the bankruptcy of loan counterparty d) Leveraging credit risk

22.2

Types of Credit Derivatives

Credit derivatives are over-the-counter contracts that allow credit risk to be exchanged across counterparties. They can be classiﬁed in terms of ● The underlying credit, which can be either a single entity of a group of entities ● The exercise conditions, which can be a credit event (such as default or a rating downgrade, or an increase in credit spreads ● The payoff function, which can be a ﬁxed amount or a variable amount with a linear or nonlinear payoff Table 22-1 provides a breakdown of the credit derivatives market by instruments, which will be deﬁned later. The largest share of the market consists of plain-vanilla, credit default swaps, typically with 5-year maturities. The next segment consists of synthetic securitization, or collateralized debt obligations (CDOs), where the special purpose vehicle gains exposure to a speciﬁed portfolio of credit risk via credit derivatives and the payoffs are redistributed across different tranches. We now deﬁne each category in turn.

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TABLE 22-1 Credit Derivatives by Type Percentage of Total Notionals Type Credit default swaps Synthetic securitization Credit-linked notes Total return swaps Credit spread options Total

Percent 73% 22% 3% 1% 1% 100%

Source: Risk (February 2003).

22.2.1

Credit Default Swaps

In a credit default swap contract, a protection buyer (say A) pays a premium to the protection seller (say B), in exchange for payment if a credit event occurs. The premium payment can be a lump sum or periodic. The contingent payment is triggered by a credit event (CE) on the underlying credit. The structure of this swap is described in Figure 22-1. FIGURE 22-1 Credit Default Swap

COUNTERPARTY A: PROTECTION BUYER

Periodic payment Contingent payment

COUNTERPARTY B: PROTECTION SELLER

REFERENCE ASSET: BOND

These contracts represent the purest form of credit derivatives, as they are not affected by ﬂuctuations in market values as long as the credit event does not occur. In the next chapter, we will deﬁne this approach as “default mode” marking-to-market (MTM). Also, these contracts are really default options, not swaps. The main difference from a regular option is that the cost of the option is paid in installments instead of up front. When the premium is paid up front, these contracts are called default put options.1 1

Default swaps and default options are not identical instruments, however, because a default swap requires premium payments only until a triggering default event occurs.

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Example The protection buyer, call it A, enters a 1-year credit default swap on a notional of $100 million worth of 10-year bonds issued by XYZ. The swap entails an annual payment of 50bp. The bond is called the reference credit asset. At the beginning of the year, A pays $500,000 to the protection seller. Say that at the end of the year, Company XYZ defaults on this bond, which now trades at 40 cents on the dollar. The counterparty then has to pay $60 million to A. If A holds this bond in its portfolio, the credit default swap provides protection against credit loss due to default. Default swaps are embedded in many ﬁnancial products: Investing in a risky (credit-sensitive) bond is equivalent to investing in a risk-free bond plus selling a credit default swap. Say, for instance, that the risky bond sells at $90 and promises to pay $100 in one year. The risk-free bond sells at $95. Buying the risky bond is then equivalent to buying the risk-free bond at $95 and selling a credit default swap worth $5 now. The up-front cost is the same, $90. If the company defaults, the ﬁnal payoff will be the same. It is important to realize that entering a credit swap does not eliminate credit risk entirely. Instead, the protection buyer decreases exposure to the reference credit but assumes new credit exposure to seller. To be effective, there has to be a low correlation between the default risk of the underlying credit and of the counterparty. Table 22-2 illustrates the effect of the counterparty for the pricing of the CDS. If the counterparty is default free, the CDS spread on this BBB credit should be 194bp. The spread depends on the default risk for the counterparty as well as the correlation with the reference credit. In the worst case in the table, with a BBB rating for the counterparty and correlation of 0.8, protection is less effective, and the CDS is only worth 134 bp. Credit events must be subject to precise deﬁnitions. Chapter 19 provided such a list, drawn from the ISDA’s Master Netting Agreement. Ideally, there should be no uncertainty about the interpretation of a credit event. Otherwise, credit derivative transactions can create legal risks. The payment on default reﬂects the loss to the holders of the reference asset when the credit event occurs. Deﬁne Q as this payment per unit of notional. It can take a number of forms.

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TABLE 22-2 CDS Spreads for Different Counterparties Reference Obligation is 5-year Bond Rated BBB Correlation 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

Counterparty Credit Rating AAA AA A BBB 194 194 194 194 191 190 189 186 187 185 181 175 182 178 171 159 177 171 157 134

Source: Adapted from Hull J. and White A. (2001). Valuing credit default swaps II: Modeling default correlations. Journal of Derivatives, 8(3), 12–21.

Cash settlement, or a payment equal to the strike minus the prevailing market value of the underlying bond. Physical delivery of the defaulted obligation in exchange for a ﬁxed payment. A lump sum, or a ﬁxed amount based on some pre-agreed recovery rate. For instance, if the CE occurs, the recovery rate is set at 40%, leading to a payment of 60% of the notional. The payoff on a credit default swap is Payment ⳱ Notional ⫻ Q ⫻ I (CE)

(22.1)

where the indicator function I (CE) is one if the credit event has occurred and zero otherwise. These default swaps have several variants. For instance, the ﬁrst of basket to default swap gives the protection buyer the right to deliver one, and only one, defaulted security out of a basket of selected securities. Because the protection buyer has more choices, among a basket instead of just one reference credit, this type of protection will be more expensive than a single credit swap, keeping all else equal. The price of protection also depends on the correlation between credit events. The lower the correlation, the more expensive the swap. Example 22-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 122/Credit Risk 22-2. A portfolio manager holds a default swap to hedge an AA corporate bond position. If the counterparty of the default swap is acquired by the bond issuer, then the default swap: a) Increases in value b) Decreases in value c) Decreases in value only if the corporate bond is downgraded d) Is unchanged in value

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Example 22-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 39/Credit Risk 22-3. A portfolio consists of one (long) $100 million asset and a default protection contract on this asset. The probability of default over the next year is 10% for the asset and 20% for the counterparty that wrote the default protection. The joint probability of default for the asset and the contract counterparty is 3%. Estimate the expected loss on this portfolio due to credit defaults over the next year assuming 40% recovery rate on the asset and 0% recovery rate for the contract counterparty. a) $3.0 million b) $2.2 million c) $1.8 million d) None of the above

Total Return Swaps

AM FL Y

22.2.2

Total return swaps (TRS) are contracts where one party, called the protection buyer, makes a series of payments linked to the total return on a reference asset. They are also called asset swaps. exchange, the protection seller makes a series of payments tied to a reference rate, such as the yield on an equivalent Treasury issue (or LIBOR) plus a spread. If the price of the asset goes down, the protection buyer receives a

TE

payment from the counterparty; if the price goes up, a payment is due in the other direction. The structure of this swap is described in Figure 22-2. This type of swap is tied to changes in the market value of the underlying asset and provides protection against credit risk in an MTM framework. The TRS has the effect of removing all the economic risk of the underlying asset without selling it. Unlike a CDS, however, the swap has an element of market risk because one leg of the payment is a ﬁxed rate. FIGURE 22-2 Total Return Swap

COUNTERPARTY A: PROTECTION BUYER

Payment tied to reference asset COUNTERPARTY B: PROTECTION Payment tied to SELLER reference rate

REFERENCE ASSET: BOND

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Example Suppose that a bank, call it Bank A, has made a $100 million loan to company XYZ at a ﬁxed rate of 10 percent. The bank can hedge its exposure by entering a TRS with counterparty B, whereby it promises to pay the interest on the loan plus the change in the market value of the loan in exchange for LIBOR plus 50bp. If the market value of the loan increases, the bank has to make a greater payment. Otherwise, its payment will decrease, possibly becoming negative. Say that LIBOR is currently at 9 percent and that after one year, the value of the loan drops from $100 to $95 million. The net obligation from Bank A is the sum of ● Outﬂow of 10% ⫻ $100 ⳱ $10 million, for the loan’s interest payment ● Inﬂow of 9.5% ⫻ $100 ⳱ $9.5 million, for the reference payment ● Outﬂow of

(95⫺100) 100 %

⫻ $100 ⳱ ⫺$5 million, for the movement in the loan’s value

This sums to a net receipt of ⫺10 Ⳮ 9.5 ⫺ (⫺5) ⳱ $4.5 million. Bank A has been able to offset the change in the economic value of this loan by a gain on the TRS.

22.2.3

Credit Spread Forward and Options

These instruments are derivatives whose value is tied to an underlying credit spread between a risky and risk-free bond. In a credit spread forward contract, the buyer receives the difference between the credit spread at maturity and an agreed-upon spread, if positive. Conversely, a payment is made if the difference is negative. An example of the payment formula is Payment ⳱ (S ⫺ F ) ⫻ MD ⫻ Notional

(22.2)

where MD is the modiﬁed duration, S is the prevailing spread and F is the agreed-upon spread. Here, settlement is made in cash. Alternatively, this could be expressed in terms of prices: Payment ⳱ [P (y Ⳮ F , τ ) ⫺ P (y Ⳮ S, τ )] ⫻ Notional

(22.3)

where y is the yield-to-maturity of an equivalent Treasury and P (y ⳭS, τ ) is the present value of the security with τ years to expiration, discounted at y plus a spread. Note that if S ⬎ F , the payment will be positive as in the previous expression. In a credit spread option contract, the buyer pays a premium in exchange for the right to “put” any increase in the spread to the option seller at a predeﬁned maturity: Payment ⳱ Max(S ⫺ K, 0) ⫻ MD ⫻ Notional

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where K is the predeﬁned spread. The purchaser of the options buys credit protection, or the right to put the bond to the seller if it falls in value. The payout formula could also be expressed directly in terms of prices, as in Equation (22.3).

Example A credit spread option has a notional of $100 million with a maturity of one year. The underlying security is an 8% 10-year bond issued by the corporation XYZ. The current spread is 150bp against 10-year Treasuries. The option is European type with a strike of 160bp. Assume that, at expiration, Treasury yields have moved from 6.5% to 6% and the credit spread has widened to 180bp. The price of an 8% coupon, 9-year semiannual bond discounted at y Ⳮ S ⳱ 6 Ⳮ 1.8 ⳱ 7.8% is $101.276. The price of the same bond discounted at y Ⳮ K ⳱ 6 Ⳮ 1.6 ⳱ 7.6% is $102.574. Using the notional amount, the payout is (102.574 ⫺ 101.276)冫 100 ⫻ $100, 000, 000 ⳱ $1, 297, 237.

22.2.4

Credit-Linked Notes

Credit-linked notes are not stand-alone derivatives contracts but instead combine a regular coupon-paying note with some credit risk feature. The goal is generally to increase the yield paid to the investor in exchange for taking some credit risk. The simplest form is a corporate, or credit-sensitive, bond. A general example is provided in Figure 22-3. The investor makes an up-front payment that represents the par value of the credit-linked note. A trustee then invests the funds in a top-rated investment and takes a short position in a credit default swap. The investment could be an AAA-rated Fannie Mae agency note, for instance, that FIGURE 22-3 Credit-Linked Note

Xbp PROVIDER Contingent payment

CL Note: AAA Asset in trust + credit swap Par

Par Libor+X+Ybp INVESTOR Contingent payment

Libor +Ybp

AAA Asset

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TABLE 22-3 Types of Credit-Linked Notes Type Asset-backed Compound credit Principal protection Enhanced asset return

Maximum Loss Initial investment Amount from ﬁrst note’s default None on the principal Predetermined

pays LIBOR plus a spread of Y bp. The credit default swap is sold by a provider, for example a bank, for an additional annual receipt of X bp. The total regular payment to the investor is then LIBORⳭY Ⳮ X . In return for this higher yield, the investor must be willing to lose some of the principal should a default event occur. More generally, credit-linked notes can have exposure to one or more credit risks and increase the yield through leverage. The downside risk may be limited through the features described in Table 22-3. These structures offer various trade-offs between risk and return. “Asset-backed securities” could lose up to the whole initial investment. The payoffs on “compound credit” notes are linked to various credits and can only lose the amount corresponding to the ﬁrst credit’s default. “Principal protection” notes have their principal guaranteed. “Enhanced asset return” notes have a predetermined maximum loss. Example 22-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 33/Credit Risk 22-4. Which one of the following statements is most correct? a) Payment in a total return swap is contingent upon a future credit event. b) Investing in a risky (credit-sensitive) bond is similar to investing in. a risk-free bond plus selling a credit default swap. c) In the ﬁrst-to-default swap, the default event is a default on two or. more assets in the basket. d) Payment in a credit swap is contingent only upon the bankruptcy of the. counterparty. Example 22-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 113/Credit Risk 22-5. Which of the following statements is/are always true? a) Payment in a credit swap is contingent upon a future credit event. b) Payment in a total rate of return swap is not contingent upon a future credit event. c) Both (a) and (b) are true. d) None of the above are true.

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Example 22-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 114/Credit Risk 22-6. In the ﬁrst-to-default swap, the default event is a default on a) Any one of the assets in the basket b) All of the assets in the basket c) Two or more assets in the basket d) None of the above Example 22-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 144/Credit Risk 22-7. Which of the following is a type of credit derivative? I) A put option on a corporate bond II) A total return swap on a loan portfolio III) A note that pays an enhanced yield in the case of a bond downgrade IV) A put option on an off-the-run Treasury bond a) I, II, and III b) II and III only c) II only d) All of the above Example 22-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 26/Credit Risk 22-8. The BIS considers all of the following products to be credit derivatives except a) Credit-linked notes b) Total-return swaps c) Credit spread options d) Callable ﬂoating-rate notes Example 22-9: FRM Exam 1998----Question 46/Credit Risk 22-9. Company A and Company B enter into a trade agreement in which Company A will periodically pay all cash ﬂows and capital gains arising from Bond X to Company B. On the same dates Company B will pay Company A LIBOR + 50bp plus any decrease in the market value of Bond X. What type of trade is this? a) A total return swap b) A ﬁxed-income-linked swap c) An inverse ﬂoater d) An interest-rate swap

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Example 22-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 61/Credit Risk 22-10. (Complex–use the valuation formula with prices) A credit-spread option has a notional amount of $50 million with a maturity of one year. The underlying security is a 10-year, semiannual bond with a 7% coupon and a $1,000 face value. The current spread is 120 basis points against 10-year Treasuries. The option is a European option with a strike of 130 basis points. If at expiration, Treasury yields have moved from 6% to 6.3% and the credit-spread has widened to 150 basis points, what will be the payout to the buyer of this credit-spread option? a) $587,352 b) $611,893 c) $622,426 d) $639,023 Example 22-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 62/Credit Risk 22-11. Bank One has made a $200 million loan to a software company at a ﬁxed rate of 12 percent. The bank wants to hedge its exposure by entering into a total return swap with a counterparty, Interloan Co., in which Bank One promises to pay the interest on the loan plus the change in the market value of the loan in exchange for LIBOR plus 40 basis points. If after one year the market value of the loan has decreased by 3 percent and LIBOR is 11 percent, what will be the net obligation of Bank One? a) Net receipt of $4.8 million b) Net payment of $4.8 million c) Net receipt of $5.2 million d) Net payment of $5.2 million

22.3

Pricing and Hedging Credit Derivatives

By now, we have developed tools to price and hedge credit risk, which can be extended to credit derivatives. These credit derivatives, however, are complex instruments, as they combine market risk and the joint credit risk of the reference credit and of the counterparty. In general, we need a long list of variables to price these derivatives, including the term structure of risk-free rates, of the reference credit, of the counterparty credit, as well as the joint distribution of default and recoveries. Practitioners use shortcuts that typically ignore the default risk of the counterparty.

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Methods

The ﬁrst approach is the actuarial approach, which uses historical default rates to infer the objective expected loss on the credit derivative. For instance, we could use a transition matrix and estimates of recovery rates to assess the actuarial expected loss. This process, however, does not rely on a risk-neutral approach and will not lead to a fair price, which includes a risk premium. Neither does it provide a method to hedge the exposure. It only helps to build up a reserve that, in large samples, should be sufﬁcient to absorb the average loss. The second approach relies on bond credit spreads and requires a full yield curve of liquid bonds for the underlying credit. This approach allows us to derive a fair price for the credit derivative, as well as a hedging mechanism, which uses traded bonds for the underlying credit. The third approach relies on equity prices and requires a liquid market for the common stock for the underlying credit as well as information about the structure of liabilities. The Merton model, for instance, allows us to derive a fair price for the credit derivative, as well as a hedging mechanism, which uses the common stock of the underlying credit.

22.3.2

Example: Credit Default Swap

We are asked to value a credit default swap on a $10 million two-year agreement, whereby A (the protection buyer) agrees to pay B (the guarantor, or protection seller) a ﬁxed annual fee in exchange for protection against default of 2-year bonds XYZ. The payout will be the notional times (100 ⫺ B ), where B is the price of the bond at expiration, if the credit event occurs. Currently, XYZ bonds are rated A and trade at 6.60%. The 2-year T-note trades at 6.00%. Actuarial Method This method computes the credit exposure from the current credit rating and the probability that the company XYZ will default. We use a simpliﬁed transition matrix, shown in Table 22-4. Starting from an A rating, the company could default ● In year 1, with a probability of P (D1 兩 A0 ) ⳱ 1% ● In year 2, with a probability of P (D2 兩 A1 )P (A1 ) Ⳮ P (D2 兩 B1 )P (B1 ) Ⳮ P (D2 兩 C1 )P (C1 ) ⳱ 0.01 ⫻ 0.90 Ⳮ 0.02 ⫻ 0.07 Ⳮ 0.05 ⫻ 0.02 ⳱ 1.14%

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Table 22-4 Credit Ratings Transition Probabilities Starting State A B C D

A 0.90 0.05 0 0

Ending State B C 0.07 0.02 0.90 0.03 0.10 0.85 0 0

D 0.01 0.02 0.05 1.00

Total 1.00 1.00 1.00 1.00

If the recovery rate is 60%, the expected costs are, for the ﬁrst year, 1%[1 ⫺ 60%], and 1.14%[1 ⫺ 60%] in the second year. Ignoring discounting, the average annual cost is Annual Cost ⳱ $10, 000, 000 ⫻ (1% Ⳮ 1.14%)冫 2 ⫻ [1 ⫺ 60%] ⳱ $42,800 This approach assumes that the credit rating is appropriate and that the transition probabilities and recovery rates are accurately measured. Credit-Spread Method Here, we compare the yield on the XYZ bond with that on a default-free asset, such as the T-Note. If all bonds are treated equally, the bonds must have the same term as the maturity of the option. The annual cost of protection is then Annual Cost ⳱ $10, 000, 000 ⫻ (6.60% ⫺ 6.00%) ⳱ $60,000 This is higher than the cost from the actuarial approach. The difference can be ascribed to a risk premium, for instance because credit risk is correlated with the general level of economic activity. This approach also assumes that all of the yield spread difference is due to credit risk, when it could be also attributed to other factors, such as liquidity or tax effects. To hedge, the protection seller would go short the corporate bond and long the equivalent Treasury. Any loss on the default swap because of a credit event would be offset by a gain on the hedge. If the company defaults, the protection buyer could deliver the bond to the protection seller who could then in turn deliver the bond to close out the short sale. Equity Price Method This method is more involved. We require a measure of the stock market capitalization of XYZ, of the total value of liabilities, and of the volatility of equity prices. Using the notations of the chapter on the Merton model, the fair value of the put is Put ⳱ ⫺V [N (⫺d1 )] Ⳮ Ke⫺r τ [N (⫺d2 )]

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where d1 and d2 depend on V , K, r , σV , and the tenor of the put, τ . We could, for example, have a “fair” put option value of $120,000, which, again ignoring discounting, translates into an annual cost of $60,000. To hedge, the protection seller would go short the stock, in the amount of 1 1 1 ∂ Put ∂V ⫻ ⳱ ⫺[N (⫺d1 )] ⫻ ⳱ ⫺[1 ⫺ N (d1 )] ⫻ ⳱1⫺ ∂V ∂S N (d1 ) N (d1 ) N (d1 )

(22.6)

which indeed is negative, plus an appropriate position in the risk-free bond. Example 22-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 147/Credit Risk 22-12. Which of the following are needed to value a credit swap? I) Correlation structure for the default and recovery rates of the swap counterparty and reference credit II) The swap or treasury yield curve III) Reference credit spread curve over swap or treasury rates IV) Swap counterparty credit spread curve over swap or treasury rates a) II, III, and IV b) I, III, and IV c) II and III d) All of the above Example 22-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 135/Credit Risk 22-13. The Widget Company has outstanding debt of three different maturities as outlined in the table.

Maturity 1 year 5 years 10 years

Widget Company Bonds Corresponding U.S. Treasury Bonds Price Coupon (sa 30/360) Price Coupon (sa 30/360) 100 7.00% 100 6.00% 100 8.50% 100 6.50% 100 9.50% 100 7.00%

All Widget Co. debt ranks pari passu, all its debt contains cross default provisions, and the recovery value for each bond is 20. The correct price for a one-year credit default swap (sa 30/360) with the Widget Co., 9.5% 10-year bond as a reference asset is a) 1.0% per annum b) 2.0% per annum c) 2.5% per annum d) 3.5% per annum

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505

Pros and Cons of Credit Derivatives

The rapid growth of the credit derivatives market is the best testimony of their usefulness. These instruments are superior risk management tools, allowing the transfer of risks to those who can bear them best. Many observers, including bank regulators, have stated that credit risk diversiﬁcation using credit derivatives helped banks to weather the recession of 2001 and its accompanying increase in defaults, without apparent major problems. This period witnessed the largest-ever corporate bankruptcies (WorldCom and Enron) and sovereign default (Argentina) with barely a ripple in global ﬁnancial markets. The losses have been spread widely, saving the major U.S. banks from the catastrophic failures typical of previous downturns. In the case of Enron, for instance, exposures amounting to around $2.7 billion were transferred to credit derivatives. Credit derivatives have another useful function, which is price discovery. By creating or extending a market for credit risk, this new market gives market observers a better measure of the cost of credit risk. Credit derivatives also allow transactional efﬁciency, because they have lower transaction costs than in the cash markets. Counterparties can also take advantage of disparities in the pricing of loans and bonds, making both markets more efﬁcient. On the downside, this market may be relatively illiquid. This is because, unlike interest rate swaps, there is no standardization of the reference credit. By deﬁnition, credit risk is speciﬁc. Also, the market still uses various valuation methods. This is due to the short supply of data on essential parameters, such as default probabilities and recovery rates. As a result, there is less agreement on the fair valuation of credit derivatives than for other derivatives instruments. Credit derivatives also introduce a new element of risk, which is legal risk. Indeed parties can sometimes squabble over the deﬁnition of a credit event. Such disagreement occurred during the Russian default as well as notable debt restructurings and demergers. No doubt this explains why bank regulators are watching the growth of this market with some concern. The question is whether these contracts will be fully effective with widespread defaults. This is especially so because this market has evolved from regulatory arbitrage, that is, attempts to defeat onerous capital requirements mandated by bank

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regulators. Commercial banks have systematically lowered their capital requirements by laying off loan credit risk through credit derivatives. This can be advantageous if an economically equivalent credit exposure has lower capital requirements (we will discuss regulatory capital requirements in a later chapter). Whether this is a beneﬁt or drawback depends on one’s perspective.

22.5

AM FL Y

Example 22-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 30/Credit Risk 22-14. Which one of the following statements is not an application of credit derivatives for banks? a) Reduction in economic and regulatory capital usage b) Reduction in counterparty concentrations c) Management of the risk proﬁle of the loan portfolio d) Credit protection of private banking deposits

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 22-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 44/Credit Risk

TE

c) Credit derivatives certainly do not prevent the credit events from happening. Example 22-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 122/Credit Risk b) This is an interesting question that demonstrates that the credit risk of the underlying asset is exchange for that of the swap counterparty. The swap is now worthless; if the underlying credit defaults, the counterparty will default as well (since it is the same). Example 22-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 39/Credit Risk c) The only state of the world with a loss is a default on the asset jointly with a default of the guarantor. This has probability of 3%. The expected loss is $100, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.03 ⫻ (1⫺ 40%) ⳱ $1.8 million. Example 22-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 33/Credit Risk b) Answer (a) is not correct because payment is simply a function of market variables (this is not a credit default swap). Answer (c) is incorrect because the default event in this case is the ﬁrst default. Answer (d) is incorrect because a credit event is more general than simply bankruptcy. Answer (b) says that a risky bond is the sum of a risk-free bond plus a short position in a credit default swap.

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Example 22-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 113/Credit Risk c) Payment from the protection seller is contingent upon a credit event for a credit swap and a combination of payment tied to a reference rate and the asset depreciation for a TRS. Example 22-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 114/Credit Risk a) The default event is triggered when there is a ﬁrst default on necessarily any of the assets in the basket. Example 22-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 144/Credit Risk a) Part I, II, and III are correct. An option on a T-bond has no credit component. Example 22-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 26/Credit Risk d) The ﬁrst three instruments have a major credit component. Callable FRN are not considered credit derivatives. The call option is primarily an interest-rate option. Example 22-9: FRM Exam 1998----Question 46/Credit Risk a) The payments are linked to the total return on bond X. Example 22-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 61/Credit Risk c) We need to value the bond with remaining semiannual payments for 9 years using two yields, y Ⳮ S ⳱ 6.30 Ⳮ 1.50 ⳱ 7.80% and y Ⳮ K ⳱ 6.30 Ⳮ 1.30 ⳱ 7.60%. This gives $948.95 and $961.40, respectively. The total payout is then $50, 000, 000 ⫻ [$961.40 ⫺ $948.95]冫 $1000 ⳱ $622, 424. Example 22-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 62/Credit Risk a) The net payment is an outﬂow of 12% ⫺ 3% minus inﬂow of 11% Ⳮ 0.4%, which is a net receipt of ⫺2.4%. Applied to the notional of $200 million, this gives a receipt of $4.8 million. Example 22-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 147/Credit Risk d) As a ﬁrst approximation, the reference credit spread curve may be enough. To be complete, however, we also need information about the credit risk of the swap counterparty, the treasury curve (for discounting), and correlations. The correlation structure enters the pricing through the expectation of the product of the default and loss given default.

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Example 22-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 135/Credit Risk a) Because all bonds rank equally, all default occur at the same time and have the same loss given default. Therefore the cash ﬂow on the 1-year credit swap can be replicated (including any risk premium) by going long the 1-year Widget bond and short the 1-year T-Bond. Example 22-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 30/Credit Risk d) Credit derivatives are used to reduce regulatory capital usage and counterparty concentrations and to manage the risk proﬁle of the loan portfolio. Private banking deposits are bank liabilities, not assets.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 23 Managing Credit Risk The previous chapters have explained how to estimate default probabilities, credit exposures, and recovery rates for individual credits. We now turn to the measurement and management of credit risk for the overall portfolio. In the past, credit risk was measured on a stand-alone basis, in terms of a “yes” or “no” decision by a credit ofﬁcer. Some consideration was given to portfolio effect through very crude credit limits at the overall level. Portfolio theory, however, teaches us that risk should be viewed in the context of the contribution to the total risk of a portfolio, not in isolation. Diversiﬁcation creates what is perhaps the only “free lunch” in ﬁnance: The pricing of risk is markedly lower when considering portfolio effects. The revolution in risk management is now spreading from the portfolio measurement of market risk to credit risk. This is a result of a number of developments. At the top of the list are technological advances that now enable us to aggregate ﬁnancial risk in close to real time. Second, the market has witnessed an exponential growth in new products, such as credit derivatives, which allow better management of credit risk. Finally, developments in government policies and ﬁnancial markets are leading to greater emphasis on credit risk. With the European Monetary Union (EMU), exchange rate risk has disappeared within the Eurozone. This has transformed currency risk into credit risk for European government bonds.1 Thus, French government debt now carries credit risk, like debt issued by the state of California. Correspondingly, the increasing depth and liquidity of EMU corporate bond markets is leading to a rapid expansion of this market.

1

In the past there was very little credit risk on European government debt. Although governments could have defaulted on their national-currency denominated debt, it was easier to create inﬂation to expropriate bondholders. Some have done so with a vengeance, like Italy. Governments do not have this option any more, as the value of the new currency, the euro, is now in the hands of the European Central Bank. Indeed, Chapter 19 has shown that the credit rating of countries is lower when the debt is denominated in foreign currency rather than in the local currency.

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Section 23.1 introduces the distribution of credit losses. This contains two major components. The ﬁrst is the expected credit loss, which is essential information for pricing and reserving purposes, as explained in Section 23.2. The second component is the unexpected credit loss, or worst deviation from the expected loss at some conﬁdence level. Section 23.3 shows how this credit value at risk (VAR), like market VAR, can be used to determine the amount of capital necessary to support a position. The pricing of loans should not only cover expected losses, but also the remuneration of the economic capital set aside to cover the unexpected loss. Finally, Section 23.4 provides an overview of recently developed credit risk models, including CreditMetrics, CreditRiskⳭ, the KMV model, and Credit Portfolio View.

23.1

Measuring the Distribution of Credit Losses

We can now pool together the information on default probabilities, credit exposures, and recovery rates to measure the distribution of losses due to credit risk. For simplicity, we only consider losses in default mode (DM), that is, due to defaults instead of changes in market values. For one instrument, the current or potential credit loss is Credit Loss ⳱ b ⫻ Credit Exposure ⫻ LGD

(23.1)

which involves the random variable b that takes on the value of 1, with probability p, when the discrete state of default occurs, the credit exposure, and the loss given default (LGD). For a portfolio of N counterparties, the loss is N

Credit Loss ⳱

冱 bi ⫻ CEi ⫻ LGDi

(23.2)

i ⳱1

where CEi is now the total credit exposure to counterparty i , across all contracts and taking into account netting agreements. The distribution of credit loss is quite complex. Typically, information about credit is described by the net replacement value (NRV), which is also N

NRV ⳱

冱 CEi

(23.3)

i ⳱1

evaluated at the current time. This is the worst that could be lost if all parties defaulted at the same time and if there was no recovery. This is not very informative,

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however. The NRV, which is often disclosed in annual reports, is equivalent to using notionals to describe the risks of derivatives portfolios. It does not take into account the probability of default nor correlations across defaults and exposures. Chapter 18 gave an example of a loss distribution for a simple portfolio with three counterparties. This example was tractable as we could enumerate all possible states. In general, we need to consider many more credit events. We also need to account for movements and comovements in risk factors, which drive exposures, uncertain recovery rates, and correlations among defaults. This can only be done with the help of Monte Carlo simulations. Once this is performed for the whole portfolio, we obtain a distribution of credit losses on a target date. Figure 23-1 describes a typical distribution.

FIGURE 23-1 Distribution of Credit Losses Frequency distribution Unexpected credit loss at 99% level

Expected credit loss

Credit loss

This leads to a number of fundamental observations. Distribution The distribution of credit losses is highly skewed to the left, in contrast to that of market risk factors, which is in general roughly symmetrical. This distribution is actually similar to a short position in an option. This analogy is formalized in the Merton model, which equates a risky bond to a risk-free bond plus a short position in an option.

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Expected credit loss (ECL) The expected credit loss represents the average credit loss. The pricing of the portfolio should be such that it covers the expected loss. In other words, the price should be advantageous enough to offset average credit losses. In the case of a bond, the price should be low enough, or yield high enough, to compensate against expected losses. In the case of a derivative, the bank that takes on the credit risk should factor this expected loss into the pricing of its product. Loan loss reserves should also be accumulated as a credit provision against expected losses. Worst Credit Loss (WCL) The worst credit loss represents the loss that will not be exceeded at some level of conﬁdence. Like a VAR ﬁgure, the unexpected credit loss (UCL) is the deviation from the expected loss. The institution should have enough capital to cover the unexpected loss. As we have seen before, the UCL depends on the distribution of joint default rates, among other factors. Notably, the dispersion in the distribution narrows as the number of credits increases and when correlations among defaults decrease. Marginal Contribution to Risk The distribution of credit losses can also be used to analyze the incremental effect of a proposed trade on the total portfolio risk. As in the case of market risk, individual credits should be evaluated not only on the basis of their stand-alone risk, but also of their contribution to the portfolio risk. For the same expected return, a trade that lowers risk should be preferable over one that adds to the portfolio risk. Such trade-offs can only be made with a formal measurement of portfolio credit risk. Remuneration of Capital The measure of worst credit loss is also important for the pricing of creditsensitive instrument. Say that the distribution has an ECL of $1 billion and UCL of $5 billion. The bank then needs to set aside $5 billion just to cover deviations from expected credit losses. This equity capital, however, will require remuneration. So, the pricing of loans should not only cover expected losses, but also the remuneration of this economic capital. This is what we call a risk premium and explains why observed credit spreads are larger than simply to cover actuarial losses.

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Example 23-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 41/Credit Risk 23-1. Credit provisions should be taken to cover all of the following except a) Nonperforming loans b) The expected loss of a loan portfolio c) An amount equal to the VAR of the credit portfolio d) Excess credit proﬁts earned during below average loss years

23.2

Measuring Expected Credit Loss

23.2.1

Expected Loss over a Target Horizon

For pricing purposes, we need to measure the expected credit loss, which is E [CL] ⳱

冮 f (b, CE, LGD)(b ⫻ CE ⫻ LGD) db dCE dLGD

(23.4)

If the random variables are independent, the joint density reduces to the product of densities. We have E [CL] ⳱

冋冮

f (b)(b) db

册冋冮

册冋冮

f (CE)(CE) d CE

册

f (LGD)(LGD) d LGD

(23.5)

which is the product of the expected values. In other words, Expected Credit Loss ⳱ Prob[default] ⫻ E [Credit Exposure] ⫻ E [LGD]

(23.6)

As an example, the expected credit loss on a BBB-rated $100 million 5-year bond with 47% recovery rate is 2.28% ⫻ $100, 000, 000 ⫻ (1 ⫺ 47%) ⳱ $1.2 million. Note that this expected loss is the same whether the bank has one $100 million exposure or one hundred exposures worth $1 million each. The distributions, however, will be quite different. Example 23-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 39/Credit Risk 23-2. Calculate the 1-year expected loss of a $100 million portfolio comprising 10 B-rated issuers. Assume that the 1-year probability of default for each issuer is 6% and the average recovery value for each issuer in the event of default is 40%. a) $2.4 million b) $3.6 million c) $24 million d) $36 million

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Example 23-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 120/Credit Risk 23-3. Which loan is more risky? Assume that the obligors are rated the same, are from the same industry, and have more or less same sized idiosyncratic risk. A loan of a) $1,000,000 with 50% recovery rate b) $1,000,000 with no collateral c) $4,000,000 with 40% recovery rate d) $4,000,000 with 60% recovery rate Example 23-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 112/Credit Risk 23-4. Which of the following conditions results in a higher probability of default? a) The maturity of the transaction is longer. b) The counterparty is more creditworthy. c) The price of the bond, or underlying price in the case of a derivative, is less volatile. d) Both (a) and (c) result in a higher probability of default.

23.2.2

The Time Proﬁle of Expected Loss

So far, we have focused on a ﬁxed horizon, say a year. For pricing purposes, however, we need to consider the total credit loss over the life of the asset. This should involve the time proﬁle of the exposure, of the probability of default, and the discounting factor. Deﬁne PVt as the present value of a dollar paid at t . The present value of expected credit losses (PVECL) is obtained as the sum of the discounted expected credit losses, PVECL ⳱

冱 E [CLt] ⫻ PVt ⳱ 冱[kt ⫻ ECEt ⫻ (1 ⫺ f )] ⫻ PVt t

(23.7)

t

where the probability of default is kt ⳱ St ⫺1 dt , or the probability of defaulting at time t , conditional on not having defaulted before. Alternatively, we could simplify by using the average default probability and average exposure over the life of the asset PVECL2 ⳱ Ave[kt ] ⫻ Ave[ECEt ] ⫻ (1 ⫺ f ) ⫻

冤冱 冥 PVt

(23.8)

t

This approach, however, is only an approximation if default risk and exposure proﬁle change over time in a related fashion. As an example, currency swaps with highly-rated counterparties have an exposure and default probability that both increase with time. Due to this correlation, taking the product of the averages understates credit risk.

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Table 23-1 shows how to compute the PVECL. We consider a 5-year interest rate swap with a counterparty initially rated BBB and a notional of $100 million. The discount factor is 6 percent and the recovery rate 45 percent. We also assume default can only occur at the end of each year. TABLE 23-1 Computation of Expected Credit Loss for a Swap Year t 1 2 3 4 5 Total Average

P(default) ct dt 0.22 0.220 0.54 0.321 0.88 0.342 1.55 0.676 2.28 0.741

(%) kt 0.220 0.320 0.340 0.670 0.730 2.280 0.456

Exposure ECEt $1,660,000 $1,497,000 $1,069,000 $554,000 $0

LGD (1 ⫺ f ) 0.55 0.55 0.55 0.55 0.55

$956,000

0.55

Discount PVt 0.9434 0.8900 0.8396 0.7921 0.7473 4.2124 4.2124

Total $1,895 $2,345 $1,678 $1,617 $0 $7,535 $10,100

In the ﬁrst column, we have the cumulative default probability ct for a BBB-rated credit from year 1 to 5, expressed in percent. The second column shows the marginal probability of defaulting during that year dt and the third the probability of defaulting in each year, conditional on not having defaulted before, kt ⳱ St ⫺1 dt . The end-of-year expected credit exposure is reported in the fourth column ECEt . The sixth column displays the present value factor PVt . The ﬁnal column gives the product [kt ECEt (1 ⫺ f )PVt ]. Summing across years gives $7,535 on a swap with notional of $100 million. This is very small, less than 1 basis point. Basically, the expected credit loss is very low due to the small exposure proﬁle. For a regular bond or currency swap, the expected loss is much greater. The last line shows a shortcut to the measurement of expected credit losses based on averages, from Equation (23.8). The average annual default probability is 0.456. Multiplied by the average exposure, $956,000, the LGD, and the sum of the discount rates gives $10,100. This is on the same order of magnitude as the exact calculation. Table 23-2 details the computation for a bond assuming a constant exposure of $100 million. The expected credit loss is $1.02 million, about a hundred times larger than for the swap. This is because the exposure is also about a hundred times larger. As in the previous table, the last line shows results based on averages. Here, the expected credit loss is $1.06 million, very close to the exact number as there is no variation in credit exposures over time.

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We could also take the usual shortcut and simply compute an expected credit loss given by the cumulative 5-year default rate times $100 times the loss given default, which is $1.254 million. Discounting into the present, we get $0.937 million, close to the previous result. TABLE 23-2 Computation of Expected Credit Loss for a Bond

23.3

P(default) ct dt 0.22 0.220 0.54 0.321 0.88 0.342 1.55 0.676 2.28 0.741

(%) kt 0.220 0.320 0.340 0.670 0.730 2.280 0.456

Exposure ECEt $100,000,000 $100,000,000 $100,000,000 $100,000,000 $100,000,000

LGD (1 ⫺ f ) 0.55 0.55 0.55 0.55 0.55

AM FL Y

Year t 1 2 3 4 5 Total Average

$100,000,000

0.55

Discount PVt 0.9434 0.8900 0.8396 0.7921 0.7473 4.2124 4.2124

Total $114,151 $156,639 $157,009 $291,887 $300,024 $1,019,710 $1,056,461

Measuring Credit VAR

TE

The other component of the credit loss distribution is the Credit VAR, deﬁned as the unexpected credit loss at some conﬁdence level. Using the measure of credit loss in Equation (23.1), we construct a distribution of the credit loss f (CL) over a target horizon. At a given conﬁdence c , the worst credit loss (WCL) is deﬁned such that 1⫺c ⳱

冮

⬁

f (x)dx

(23.9)

WCL

The credit VAR is then measured as the deviation away from ECL CVAR ⳱ WCL ⫺ ECL

(23.10)

This CVAR number should be viewed as the economic capital to be held as a buffer against unexpected losses. Its application is fundamentally different from the expected credit loss, which aggregates expected losses over time and takes their present values. Instead, the CVAR is measured over a target horizon, say one year, which is deemed sufﬁcient for the bank to take corrective actions should credit problems start to develop. Corrective action can take the form of exposure reduction or adjustment of economic capital, all of which take considerably longer than the typical horizon for market risk.

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Once credit VAR is measured, it can be managed. The portfolio manager can examine the trades that contribute most to CVAR. If these trades are not particularly proﬁtable, they should be eliminated. The portfolio approach can also reveal correlations between different types of risk. For example, wrong-way trades are positions where the exposure is negatively correlated with the probability of default. Before the Asian crisis, for instance, many U.S. banks had lent to Asian companies in dollars, or entered equivalent swaps. Many of these Asian companies did not have dollar revenues but instead were speculating, reinvesting the funds in the local currency. When currencies devalued, the positions were in-the-money for the U.S. banks, but could not be collected because the counterparties had defaulted. Conversely, right-way trades are those where increasing exposure is associated with lower probability of counterparty default. This occurs when the transaction is a hedge for the counterparty, for instance when a loss on its side of the trade offsets an operating gain. Example 23-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 13/Credit Risk 23-5. A risk analyst is trying to estimate the credit VAR for a risky bond. The credit VAR is deﬁned as the maximum unexpected loss at a conﬁdence level of 99.9% over a one-month horizon. Assume that the bond is valued at $1,000,000 one month forward, and the one-year cumulative default probability is 2% for this bond, what is your best estimate of the credit VAR for this bond assuming no recovery? a) $20,000 b) $1,682 c) $998,318 d) $0 Example 23-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 10/Credit Risk 23-6. A risk analyst is trying to estimate the credit VAR for a portfolio of two risky bonds. The credit VAR is deﬁned as the maximum unexpected loss at a conﬁdence level of 99.9% over a one-month horizon. Assume that each bond is valued at $500,000 one month forward, and the one-year cumulative default probability is 2% for each of these bonds. What is your best estimate of the credit VAR for this portfolio, assuming no default correlation and no recovery? a) $841 b) $1,682 c) $998,318 d) $498,318

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23.4

Portfolio Credit Risk Models

23.4.1

Approaches to Portfolio Credit Risk Models

Portfolio credit risk models can be classiﬁed according to their approaches. Top-Down vs. Bottom-Up Models Top-down models group credit risks using single statistics. They aggregate many sources of risk viewed as homogeneous into an overall portfolio risk, without going into the detail of individual transactions. This approach is appropriate for retail portfolios with large numbers of credits, but less so for corporate or sovereign loans. Even within retail portfolios, top-down models may hide speciﬁc risks, by industry or geographic location. Bottom-up models account for features of each asset/credit. This approach is most similar to the structural decomposition of positions that characterizes market VAR systems. It is appropriate for corporate and capital market portfolios. Bottom-up models are also most useful to take corrective action, because the risk structure can be reverse-engineered to modify the risk proﬁle. Risk Deﬁnitions Default-mode models consider only outright default as a credit event. Hence any movement in the market value of the bond or in the credit rating is irrelevant. Mark-to-market models consider changes in market values and ratings changes, including defaults. These fair market value models provide a better assessment of risk, which is consistent with the holding period deﬁned in terms of liquidation period. Conditional vs. Unconditional Models of Default Probability Conditional models incorporate changing macroeconomic factors into the default probability. Notably, the rate of default increases in a recession. Unconditional models have ﬁxed default probabilities and instead tend to focus on borrower or factors-speciﬁc information. Some changes in the environment, however, can be allowed by changing parameters. Structural vs. Reduced-Form Models of Default Correlations Structural models explain correlations by the joint movements of assets, for example stock prices. For each obligor, this price is the random variable that represents movements in default probabilities. Reduced-form models explain correlations by assuming a particular functional relationship between default and “background factors”. For example, the correlation

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between defaults across obligors can be modeled by the loadings on common risk factors, say, industrial and country. Table 23-3 summarizes the essential features of portfolio credit risk models in the industry. TABLE 23-3 Comparison of Credit Risk Models Originator Model type Risk deﬁnition Risk drivers Credit events ⫺Probability ⫺Volatility ⫺Correlation

Recovery rates Solution

23.4.2

CreditMetrics JP Morgan Bottom-up Market value (MTM) Asset values Rating change/ default Unconditional Constant From equities (structural) (structural) Random Simulation/ analytic

CreditRiskⳭ Credit Suisse Bottom-up Default losses (DM) Default rates Default Unconditional Variable Default process (reduced-form) (reduced-form) Constant within band Analytic

KMV KMV Bottom-up Default losses (MTM/DM) Asset values Continuous default prob. Conditional Variable From equities (structural) (structural) Random

CreditPf.View McKinsey Top-down Market value (MTM) Macro factors Rating change/ default Conditional Variable From macro factors (reduced-form) Random

Analytic

Simulation

CreditMetrics

CreditMetrics, published in April 1997 by J.P. Morgan, was the ﬁrst model to measure portfolio credit risk. The system is a “bottom-up” approach where credit risk is driven by movements in bond ratings. The components of the system are described in Figure 23-2. (1) Measurement of exposure by instrument This starts from the user’s portfolio, decomposing all instruments by their exposure and assessing the effect of market volatility on expected exposures on the target date. The range of covered instruments includes bonds and loans, swaps, receivables, commitments, and letters of credit. (2) Distribution of individual default risk This step starts with assigning each instrument to a particular credit rating. Credit events are then deﬁned by rating migrations, which include default, through a matrix

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FIGURE 23-2 Structure of CreditMetrics Exposures

Credit VAR

User portfolio

Credit spreads

Credit rating

Rating Bond migration valuation

Market volatilities

Expected exposure

Correlations Equities correlations

Seniority

Debtor Recovery correlations rate

Joint rating changes

Distribution of values for a single credit

Portfolio Value at Risk due to credit Source: CreditMetrics

of migration probabilities. Thus movements in default probabilities are discrete. After the credit event, the instrument is valued using credit spreads for each rating class. In the case of default, the distributions of recovery rates are used from historical data for various seniority. This is illustrated in Figure 23-3. We start from a bond or credit instrument with an initial rating of BBB. Over the horizon, the rating can jump to 8 new values, including default. For each rating, the value of the instrument is recomputed, for example $109.37 if the rating goes to AAA, or to the recovery value of $51.13 in case of default. Given the state probabilities and associate values, we can compute an expected bond value, which is $107.09, and standard deviation of $2.99. FIGURE 23-3 Building the Distribution of Bond Values Probability (pi)

BBB

Value (Vi)

Exp. Var. 2 Σ piVi Σ pi(Vi-m)

AAA

0.02%

$109.37

0.02

0.00

AAA

0.33%

$109.19

0.36

0.01

AAA

5.95%

$108.66

6.47

0.15

BBB

86.93%

$107.55

93.49

0.19

BB

5.30%

$102.02

5.41

1.36

B

1.17%

$98.10

1.15

0.95

CCC

0.12%

$83.64

0.10

0.66

Default

0.18%

$51.13

0.09

5.64

Sum=

100.00%

m= $107.09

V= 8.95 SD=

$2.99

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(3) Correlations among defaults Correlations among defaults are inferred from correlations between asset prices. Each obligor is assigned to an industry and geographical sector, using a factor decomposition. Correlations are inferred from the comovements of the common risk factors, using a database with some 152 country-industry indices, 28 country indices, and 19 worldwide industry indices. As an example, company 1 may be such that 90% of its volatility comes from the U.S. chemical industry. Using standardized returns, we can write r1 ⳱ 0.90rUS,Ch Ⳮ k1 1 where the residual is uncorrelated with other variables. Next, company 2 has a 74% weight on the German insurance index and 15% on the German banking index r2 ⳱ 0.74rGE,In Ⳮ 0.15rGE,Ba Ⳮ k2 2 The correlation between asset values for the two companies is ρ (r1 , r2 ) ⳱ (0.90 ⫻ 0.74)ρ (rUS,Ch , rGE,In ) Ⳮ (0.90 ⫻ 0.15)ρ (rUS,Ch , rGE,Ba ) ⳱ 0.11 CreditMetrics then uses simulations of the joint asset values, assuming a multivariate normal distribution. Each asset value has a standard normal distribution with cutoff points selected to represent the probabilities of changes in credit ratings. Table 23-4 illustrates the computations for our BBB credit. From Figure 23-3, there is a 0.18% probability of going from BBB into the state of default. We choose z1 such that the area to its left is N (z1 ) ⳱ 0.18%. This gives z1 ⳱ ⫺2.91, and so on.. Next, we need to choose z2 so that the probability of falling between z1 and z2 is 0.12%, or that the total left-tail probability is N (z2 ) ⳱ 0.18%Ⳮ0.12% ⳱ 0.30%. This gives z2 ⳱ ⫺2.75. And so on. The cutoff points must be selected for each rating class. TABLE 23-4 Cutoff Values for Simulations Rating i AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC Default

Prob. pi 0.02% 0.33% 5.95% 86.93% 5.30% 1.17% 0.12% 0.18%

Cum.Prob. N (zi ) 100.00% 99.98% 99.65% 93.70% 6.77% 1.47% 0.30% 0.18%

Cutoff zi 3.54 2.70 1.53 ⫺1.49 ⫺2.18 ⫺2.75 ⫺2.91

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The simulation generates joint assets values that have a multivariate standard normal distribution with the prespeciﬁed correlations. Each realization is mapped into a credit rating and a bond value for each obligor. This gives a total value for the portfolio and a distribution of credit losses over an annual horizon. These simulations can also be used to compute a correlation among default eventss. Because defaults are much less frequent than rating changes, the correlation is typically much less than the correlation between asset values. CreditMetrics asset correlations in the range of 40% to 60% will typically translate into default correlations of 2% to 4%. This result, however, is driven by the joint normality assumption, which is not totally realistic. Other distributions can generate greater likelihood of simultaneous defaults. Another drawback of this approach is that it does not integrate credit and market risk. Losses are only generated by changes in credit states, not by market movements. There is no uncertainty over market exposures. For swaps, for instance, the exposure on the target date is taken from the expected exposure. Bonds are revalued using today’s forward rate and current credit spreads, applied to the credit rating on the horizon. So, there is no interest rate risk.

23.4.3

CreditRisk+

CreditRiskⳭ was made public by Credit Suisse in October 1997. The approach is drastically different from CreditMetrics. It is based on a purely actuarial approach found in the property insurance literature. CreditRiskⳭ is a default mode (DM) model rather than a mark-to-market (MTM) model. Only two states of the world are considered—default and no-default. Another difference is that the default intensity is time-varying, as it can be modeled as a function of factors that change over time. When defaults are independent, the distribution of default probabilities resembles a Poisson distribution. The system also allows for some correlation by dividing the portfolio into homogeneous sectors within which obligors share the same systematic risk factors. The other component of the approach is the severity of losses. This is roughly modeled by sorting assets by severity bands, say loans around $20,000 for the ﬁrst band, $40,000 for the second band, and so on. A distribution of losses is then obtained

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for each band. These distributions are then combined across bands to generate an overall distribution of default losses. Overall, the method provides a quick analytical solution to the distribution of credit losses with minimal data inputs. As with CreditMetrics, however, there is no uncertainty over market exposures.

23.4.4

Moody’s KMV

Moody’s KMV provides forecasts of estimated default frequencies (EDFs) for approximately 30,000 public ﬁrms globally.2 Much of its technology is considered proprietary and unpublished. The basic idea, however, is an application of the Merton approach to credit risk. The value of equity is viewed as a call option on the value of the ﬁrm’s assets S ⳱ c (A, K, r , σA , τ )

(23.11)

where K is the value of liabilities, taken as the value of all short-term liabilities (one year and under) plus half the book value of all long-term debt. This has to be iteratively estimated from observable variables, in particular the stock market value S and its volatility σS . This model generates an estimated default frequency based on the distance between the current value of assets and the boundary point. Suppose for instance that A ⳱ $100 million, K ⳱ $80 million, and σA ⳱ $10 million. The normalized distance from default is then z⳱

$100 ⫺ $80 A⫺K ⳱ ⳱2 $10 σA

(23.12)

If we assume normally distributed returns, the probability of a standard normal variate z falling below ⫺2 is about 2.3 percent. Hence the default frequency is EDF ⳱ 0.023. The strength of this approach is that it relies on what is perhaps the best market data for a company—namely, its stock price. KMV claims that this model predicts defaults much better than credit ratings. The recovery rate and correlations across default are also automatically generated by the model.

2

KMV was founded by S. Kealhofer, J. McQuown, and O. Vasicek (hence the abbreviation KMV) to provide credit risk services. KMV started as a private ﬁrm based in San Francisco in 1989 and was acquired by Moody’s in April 2002.

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23.4.5

PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT

Credit Portfolio View

The last model we consider is Credit Portfolio View (CPV), published by the consulting ﬁrm McKinsey in 1997. The focus of this top-down model is on the effect of macroeconomic factors on portfolio credit risk. This approach models loss distributions from the number and size of credits in subportfolios, typically consisting of customer segments. Instead of considering ﬁxed transition probabilities, this model conditions the default rate on the state of the economy, the assumption being that default rates increase during recessions. The default rate pt at time t is driven by a set of macroeconomic variables xk for various countries and industries through a linear combination called yt . It functional relationship to yt , called logit model, ensures that the probability is always between zero and one pt ⳱ 1冫 [1 Ⳮ exp(yt )],

yt ⳱ α Ⳮ

冱 βkxkt

(23.13)

Using a multifactor model, each debtor is assigned to a country, industry, and rating segment. Uncertainty in recovery rates is also factored in. The model uses numerical simulations to construct the distribution of default losses for the portfolio. While useful for modeling default probabilities conditioned on the state of the economy, this approach is mainly top-down and does not generate sufﬁcient detail of credit risk for corporate portfolios.

23.4.6

Comparison

The International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) recently conducted a comparative survey of credit risk models. The empirical study consisted of three portfolios of 1-year loans with a total exposure of $66.3 billion for each portfolio. A. High credit quality, diversiﬁed portfolio (500 names) B. High credit quality, concentrated portfolio (100 names) C. Low credit quality, diversiﬁed portfolio (500 names) The models are listed in Table 23-5 and include CreditMetrics, CreditRiskⳭ, two internal models, all with a 1-year horizon and 99% conﬁdence level. Also reported are the charges from the Basel I “standard” rules, which will be detailed in a later chapter. Sufﬁce to say that these rules make no allowance for variation in credit quality or diversiﬁcation effects. Instead, the capital charge is based on 8% of the loan notional.

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TABLE 23-5 Capital Charges from Various Credit Risk Models

CreditMetrics CreditRiskⳭ Internal Model 1 Internal Model 2 Basel I Rules

CreditMetrics CreditRiskⳭ Internal Model 1 Basel I Rules

Assuming Zero Correlation Portfolio A Portfolio B Portfolio C 777 2,093 1,989 789 2,020 2,074 767 1,967 1,907 724 1,906 1,756 5,304 5,304 5,304 Assessing Correlations Portfolio A Portfolio B Portfolio C 2,264 2,941 11,436 1,638 2,574 10,000 1,373 2,366 9,654 5,304 5,304 5,304

The top of the table ﬁrst examines the case of zero correlations. The Basel rules yield the same capital charge, irrespective of quality or diversiﬁcation effects. The charge is also uniformly higher than most others, at $5,304 million, which is approximately 8% of the notional. Generally, the four credit portfolio models show remarkable consistency in capital charges. Portfolios A and B have the same credit quality but B is more concentrated. A has indeed lower CVAR, $800 million against $2,000 million for B. This reﬂects the beneﬁt from greater diversiﬁcation. Portfolios A and C have the same number of names but C has lower credit quality. This increases CVAR from around $800 million to $2,000 million. The bottom panel assesses empirical correlations. The Basel charges are unchanged, as expected because they do not account for correlations anyway. Internal models show capital charges systematically higher than in the previous case. There is also more dispersion in results across models, however. It is interesting to see, in particular, that the economic capital charge for Portfolio C, with low credit quality, is typically twice the Basel charge. Such results demonstrate that the Basel rules can lead to inappropriate credit risk charges. As a result, banks subject to these capital requirements may shift the risk proﬁle to lower-rated credits until their economic capital is in line with regulatory capital. This shift to lower credit quality was certainly not an objective of the Basel rules.

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Example 23-7: FRM Exam 2001----Question 27 23-7. What can be said about default correlations in CreditMetrics? a) Default correlations can be estimated by ratings changes. b) Firm-speciﬁc aspects are more important than correlation. c) Past history is insufﬁcient to judge default correlations. d) Default correlations can be estimated by equity valuation.

AM FL Y

Example 23-8: FRM Exam 2001----Question 23 23-8. What is the central assumption made by CreditMetrics? a) An asset or portfolio should be thought of in terms of its diversiﬁcation. b) An asset or portfolio should be thought of in terms of the likelihood of default. c) An asset or portfolio should be thought of in terms of the likelihood of default and in terms of changes in credit quality over time. d) An asset or portfolio should be thought in terms of changes in credit quality over time.

TE

Example 23-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 145/Credit Risk 23-9. J.P. Morgan’s CreditMetrics uses which of the following to estimate default correlations? a) CreditMetrics does not estimate default correlations; it assumes zero correlations between defaults. b) Correlations of equity returns are used. c) Correlations between changes in corporate bond spreads to treasury are used. d) Historical correlation of corporate bond defaults are used. Example 23-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 146/Credit Risk 23-10. Which of the following is used to estimate the probability of default for a ﬁrm in the KMV model? I) Historical probability of default based on the credit rating of the ﬁrm (KMV has a method to assign a rating to the ﬁrm if unrated) II) Stock price volatility III) The book value of the ﬁrm’s equity IV) The market value of the ﬁrm’s equity V) The book value of the ﬁrm’s debt VI) The market value of the ﬁrm’s debt a) I only b) II, IV, and V c) II, III, VI d) VI only

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Example 23-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 60/Credit Risk 23-11. The KMV credit risk model generates an estimated default frequency (EDF) based on the distance between the current value of assets and the book value of liabilities. Suppose that the current value of a ﬁrm’s assets and the book value of its liabilities are $500 million and $300 million, respectively. Assume that the standard deviation of returns on the assets is $100 million, and that the returns on the assets are normally distributed. Assuming a standard Merton Model, what is the approximate default frequency (EDF) for this ﬁrm? a) 0.010 b) 0.015 c) 0.020 d) 0.030 Example 23-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 44/Credit Risk 23-12. Which one of the following statements regarding credit risk models is most correct? a) The CreditRiskⳭ model decomposes all the instruments by their exposure and assesses the effect of movements in risk factors on the distribution of potential exposure. b) The CreditMetrics model provides a quick analytical solution to the distribution of credit losses with minimal data input. c) The KMV model requires the historical probability of default based on the credit rating of the ﬁrm. d) The Credit Portfolio View (McKinsey) model conditions the default rate on the state of the economy.

23.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 23-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 41/Credit Risk c) Credit provisions should be made for actual and expected losses. Capital, however, is supposed to provide a cushion against unexpected losses based on CVAR. Example 23-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 39/Credit Risk b) The expected loss is $100, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.06 ⫻ (1 ⫺ 0.4) ⳱ $3.6 million. Note that correlations across obligors does not matter for expected credit loss. Example 23-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 120/Credit Risk c) The exposure times the loss given default is, respectively, $500,000, $1,000,000, $2,400,000, and $1,600,000. Loan (c) has the most to lose.

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Example 23-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 112/Credit Risk a) The cumulative probability of default increases with the horizon, so answer (a) is correct. Answer (b) should be “less”, not more. Answer (c) deals with exposure, not default. Example 23-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 13/Credit Risk c) First, we have to transform the annual default probability into a monthly probability. Using (1 ⫺ 2%) ⳱ (1 ⫺ d )12 , we ﬁnd d ⳱ 0.00168, which assumes a constant probability of default during the year. Next, we compute the expected credit loss, which is d ⫻ $1, 000, 000 ⳱ $1, 682. Finally, we calculate the WCL at the 99.9% conﬁdence level, which is the lowest number CLi such that P (CL ⱕ CLi ) ⱖ 99.9%. We have P (CL ⳱ 0) ⳱ 99.83%; P (CL ⱕ 1, 000, 000) ⳱ 100.00%. Therefore, the WCL is $1,000,000, and the CVAR is $1,000,000 ⫺ $1,682 ⳱ $998,318. Example 23-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 10/Credit Risk d) As in the previous question, the monthly default probability is 0.0168. The following table shows the distribution of credit losses. Default 2 bonds 1 bond 0 bond Total

Probability (pi ) ⳱ 0.00000282 2d (1 ⫺ d ) ⳱ 0.00335862 (1 ⫺ d )2 ⳱ 0.99663854 1.00000000 d2

Loss Li $1,000,000 $500,000 $0

pi Li $2.8 $1,679.3 $0.0 $1,682.1

1 ⫺ 冱 pi 100.00000% 99.99972% 99.66385%

This gives an expected loss of $1,682, the same as before. Next, $500,000 is the WCL at a minimum 99.9% conﬁdence level because the total probability of observing a number equal to, or lower than this, is greater then 99.9%. The CVAR is then $500,000$1,682=$498,318. Example 23-7: FRM Exam 2001----Question 27 a) Correlations are important drivers of portfolio risk, so (b) is wrong. In CreditMetrics, correlations in asset values drive correlations in ratings change, which drive default correlations. Answer (d) is not correct as it refers to the Merton model, where default probabilities are inferred from equity valuation, liabilities, and volatilities. Example 23-8: FRM Exam 2001----Question 23 c) The central assumption in CreditMetrics is that asset values are driven by changes in their credit ratings, including default. So, this is more general than (b) and (d).

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Example 23-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 145/Credit Risk b) CreditMetrics infers the default correlation from equity correlations. Example 23-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 146/Credit Risk b) KMV uses information about the market value of the stock plus the book value of debt. Example 23-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 60/Credit Risk c) The distance between the current value of assets and that of liabilities is $200 million, which corresponds to twice the standard deviation of $100 million. Hence the probability of default is N (⫺2.0) ⳱ 2.3%, or about 0.020. Example 23-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 44/Credit Risk d) Answer (d) is most correct. Answer (a) is wrong because CreditRiskⳭ assumes ﬁxed exposures. Answer (b) is also wrong because CreditMetrics is a simulation, not analytical model. Finally, KMV uses the current stock price and not the historical default rate.

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ﬁve

Operational and Integrated Risk Management

Chapter 24 Operational Risk By now, the ﬁnancial industry has developed standard methods to measure and manage market risk and credit risk. The industry is turning next to operational risk, which has proved to be an important cause of ﬁnancial losses. Indeed, most ﬁnancial disasters can be attributed to a combination of exposure to market risk or credit risk along with some failure of controls, which is a form of operational risk. As in the case of market and credit risk, the ﬁnancial industry is being pushed in the direction of better controls of operational risk by bank regulators. For the ﬁrst time, the Basel Committee is proposing to establish capital charges for operational risk, in exchange for lowering them on market and credit risk. The proposed charge would constitute approximately 12% of the total capital requirement. This charge is focusing the attention of the banking industry on operational risk. The problem is that operational risk is much harder to identify than market and credit risk. Even the very deﬁnition of operational risk is open to debate. A narrow view is that operational risk is conﬁned to transaction processing. Another, much wider deﬁnition views operational risk as any ﬁnancial risk other than market and credit risk. As we shall see, it is important for an institution to adopt a deﬁnition of operational risk. Consider the sequence of logical steps in a risk management process: (1) identiﬁcation, (2) measurement, (3) monitoring, and (4) control. Without proper risk identiﬁcation, it is very difﬁcult to manage risk effectively.1 Previously, operational risk was managed by internal control mechanisms within business lines, supplemented by the audit function. The industry is now starting to use speciﬁc structures and control processes speciﬁcally tailored to operational risk.

1

This sequence is appropriate for market or credit risks. Reﬂecting the different nature of operational risk, the Basel Committee deﬁnes this sequence in terms of: (1) identiﬁcation, (2) assessment, (3) monitoring, and (4) control/mitigation. See Basel Committee on Banking Supervision. (2003). Sound Practices for the Management and Supervision of Operational Risk, BIS.

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To introduce operational risk, Section 24.1 summarizes lessons from well-known ﬁnancial disasters. It then compares the relative importance of operational risk to its siblings, market and credit risk, across business lines. Given this information, Section 24.2 turns to deﬁnitions of operational risk. Various measurement approaches are discussed in Section 24.3. Finally, Section 24.4 shows how to use the distribution of operational losses to manage this risk better operational risk and offers some concluding comments.

24.1

The Importance of Operational Risk

The Basel Committee recently reported that “[a]n informal survey . . . highlights the growing realization of the signiﬁcance of risks other than credit and market risks, such as operational risk, which have been at the heart of some important banking problems in recent years.” These problems are described in case histories next.

24.1.1

Case Histories

February 2002–Allied Irish Bank’s ($691 million loss): A rogue trader, John Rusnack, hides 3 years of losing trades on the yen/dollar exchange rate at the U.S. subsidiary. The bank’s reputation is damaged. March 1997–NatWest ($127 million loss): A swaption trader, Kyriacos Papouis, deliberately covers up losses by mis-pricing and over-valuing option contracts. The bank’s reputation is damaged: NatWest is eventually taken over by the Royal Bank of Scotland. September 1996–Morgan Grenfell Asset Management ($720 million loss): A fund manager, Peter Young, exceeds his guidelines, leading to a large loss. Deutsche Bank, the German owner of MGAM, agrees to compensate the investors in the fund. June 1996–Sumitomo ($2.6 billion loss): A copper trader amasses unreported losses over 3 years. Yasuo Hamanaka, known as “Mr. Five Percent,” after the proportion of the copper market he controlled, is sentenced to prison for forgery and fraud. The banks’ reputation is severely damaged.

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September 1995–Daiwa ($1.1 billion loss): A bond trader, Toshihide Igushi, amasses unreported losses over 11 years at the U.S. subsidiary. The bank is declared insolvent. February 1995–Barings ($1.3 billion loss): Nick Leeson, a derivatives trader amasses unreported losses over 2 years. Barings goes bankrupt. October 1994–Bankers Trust ($150 million loss): The bank becomes embroiled in a high-proﬁle lawsuit with a customer that accuses it of improper selling practices. Bankers settles but its reputation is badly damaged. It is later bought out by Deutsche Bank. The biggest of these spectacular failures can be traced to a rogue trader, or a case of internal fraud. They involve a mix of market risk and operational risk (failure to supervise). It should be noted that the cost of these events has been quite high. They led to large direct monetary losses, often to indirect losses due to reputational damage, and sometimes even to bankruptcy.

24.1.2

Business Lines

These failures have occurred across a variety of business lines. Some are more exposed than others to market risk or credit risk. All have some exposure to operational risk. Figure 24-1 provides a typical attribution of risk by business line. This attribution can FIGURE 24-1 Breakdown of Financial Risks Commercial banking

Investment Treasury Retail Asset banking management brokerage management

Operational

Credit

Market Source: Robert Ceske

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be interpreted in terms of the amount of economic capital necessary to support each type of risk. Commercial banking is mainly exposed to credit risk, then to operational risk, then to market risk. Investment banking, trading, and treasury management have greater exposure to market risk. At the other end, business lines such as retail brokerage and asset management are primarily exposed to operational risk. Asset managers, for instance, take no market risk since they act as agents for the investors. If they act in breach of guidelines, however, they may be liable to reimburse clients for their losses, which represents operational risk. Without an appropriate measure of operational risk, institutions may decide to expand into the asset management business if revenues are not properly adjusted for risk.

AM FL Y

Similarly, Table 24-1 presents a partial list of risks for market banks that are primarily involved in trading, and credit banks that specialize in lending activities. The table shows that different lines of business are characterized by very different exposures to the listed risks. Credit banks deal with relatively standard products, such as mortgages, with little trading. Hence they have medium operations risk and low operational settlement risk. This is in contrast with trading banks, with constantly

TE

changing products and large trading volume, for which both risks are high. Trading banks also have high model risk, because of the complexity of products and high

TABLE 24-1 Examples of Operational Risks Type of Risk Operations risk Ops. settlement risk Model risk Fraud risk Misselling risk Legal risk

Deﬁnition losses due to complex systems and processes lost interest/ﬁnes due to failed settlements losses due to imperfect model or data reputational/ﬁnancial damage due to fraud losses due to unsuitable sales reputational/ﬁnancial damage due to fraud

Market Bank High risk

Credit Bank Medium risk

High risk

Low risk

High risk

Low risk

High risk

Low risk

Medium risk

Medium risk

High risk

Medium risk

Source: Financial Services Authority. (1999). “Allocating Regulatory Capital for Operational Risk,” FSA: London.

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fraud risk, because of the autonomy given to traders. In contrast, these two risks are low for credit banks. For trading banks that deal with so-called sophisticated investors, misselling risk has low probability but high value; hence it is a medium risk. (A good example is that of Merrill Lynch settling with Orange County for about $400 million following allegations that the broker had sold the county unsuitable investments.) For credit banks that deal with retail investors, this risk has higher probability but lower value, hence it is a medium risk. Legal risks are high for market banks and medium for credit banks due to the more litigious environment of corporations relative to retail investors.

24.2

Identifying Operational Risk

Operational risk has no clear-cut deﬁnition, unlike market risk and credit risk. We can distinguish three approaches, ranging from a broad to a narrow deﬁnition. The ﬁrst deﬁnition is the broadest. It deﬁnes operational risk as any ﬁnancial risk other than market and credit risk. This deﬁnition is perhaps too broad, as it also includes business risk, which the ﬁrm must assume to create shareholder value. This includes poor strategic decision making, such as entering a line of business where margins are too thin. Such risks are not directly controllable by risk managers. Also, a deﬁnition in the negative makes it difﬁcult to identify and measure all risks. This opens up the possibility of double counting or gaps in coverage. As a result, this deﬁnition is usually viewed as too broad. At the other extreme is the second deﬁnition, which is the narrowest. It deﬁnes operational risk as risk arising from operations. This includes back ofﬁce problems, failures in transaction processing and in systems, and technology failures in transaction processing and in systems, and technology breakdowns. This deﬁnition, however, just focuses on operations, which is a subset of operational risk, and does not include other signiﬁcant risks such as internal fraud, improper sales practices, or model risk. As a result, this deﬁnition is usually viewed as too narrow. The third deﬁnition is intermediate and seems to be gaining industry acceptance. It deﬁnes operational risk as the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems, or from external events

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This excludes business risk but includes external events such as external fraud, security breaches, regulatory effects, or natural disasters. Indeed it is now the ofﬁcial Basel Committee deﬁnition. It includes legal risk, which arises when a transaction proves unenforceable in law, but excludes strategic and reputational risk. The British Bankers’ Association provides further detail for this deﬁnition. Table 24-2 breaks down operational risk into categories of people risk, process risk, system risk, and external risk. Among these risks, a notable risk for complex products is model risk, which is due to using wrong models for valuing and hedging assets. This is an internal risk that combines lack of knowledge (people) with product complexity/valuation errors (process) and perhaps programming errors (technology). These classiﬁcations are still not totally rigorous, as they confuse the primary source of risks with exposures. Fundamental risks are due to people, technology, and

TABLE 24-2 Operational Risk Classiﬁcation People Employee collusion/fraud Employee error Employee misdeed Employers liability Employment law Health and safety Industrial action Lack of knowledge/skills Loss of key personnel

Internal Risks Processes Accounting error Capacity risk Contract risk Misselling/suitability Product complexity Project risk Reporting error Settlement/payment error Transaction error Valuation error

External External Legal Money laundering Outsourcing Political Regulatory Supplier risk Tax

Systems Data quality Programming errors Security breach Strategic risks (platform/suppliers) System capacity System compatibility System delivery System failure System suitability

Risks Physical Fire Natural disaster Physical security Terrorist Theft

Source: British Bankers’ Association survey.

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external factors. Exposures, for instance systems and controls, do not represent risks but rather means of mitigating risk. Controls can be of two types, preventative controls and damage limitation controls. The former attempt to decrease the probability of a loss happening; the latter try to limit the size of losses when they occur. The choice of the appropriate deﬁnition is important as the industry starts to tackle operational risk. It is impossible to measure operational risk without a deﬁnition, or identiﬁcation. Measurement, as in the case of market and credit risk, is necessary for better management of operational risk. Also, the function of operational risk manager cannot be properly deﬁned without a deﬁnition of the risks that the manager is supposed to oversee. The lack of a precise deﬁnition would most likely create conﬂicts between different categories of risk managers, who would be tempted to attribute losses to somebody else’s area of responsibility. Example 24-1: FRM Exam 2001----Question 48 24-1. Which of the following most reﬂect an operational risk faced by a bank? a) A counterparty invokes force majeure on a swap contract. b) The Federal Reserve unexpectedly cuts interest rates by 100 bps. c) A power outage shuts down the trading ﬂoor indeﬁnitely with no back-up facility. d) The rating agencies downgrade the sovereign debt of the bank’s sovereign counterparty. Example 24-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 3/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-2. Which of the following risks are not related to operational risk? a) Errors in trade entry b) Fluctuation in market prices c) Errors in preparing Master Agreement d) Late conﬁrmation Example 24-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 173/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-3. A deﬁnition of operational risk is I. All the risks that are not currently captured under market and credit risk II. The potential for losses due to a failure in the operational processes or in the systems that support them III. The risk of losses due to a failure in people, process, technology or due to external events a) I only b) II only c) II and III only d) I, II, and III

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Example 24-4: FRM Exam 1997----Question 32/Regulatory 24-4. Which of the following is not an example of model risk in the context of value at risk measurement models? a) Model assumptions are adjusted on an annual basis regardless of market and political conditions. b) The model is developed by a small group of quantitative professionals who are the only personnel who understand its strengths and limitations. c) Models are validated by an independent risk professional employed by the institution, but who works in another division. d) Risk managers who use the models are not familiar with underlying model assumptions. Example 24-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 5/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-5. Which of the following may result in an operational risk? a) Changing a spreadsheet’s calculation mode from manual to automatic (Autocalc) b) Automatic ﬁltering of outliers in historical data c) Increasing the memory of computers d) Increasing the CPU speed of computers Example 24-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-6. Which of the following steps should be done ﬁrst during risk management processes? a) Risk measurement b) Risk control c) Risk identiﬁcation d) Limit setting

24.3

Assessing Operational Risk

Once identiﬁed, operational risk should be measured, or assessed if it is less amenable to precise quantiﬁcation than market or credit risks. Various approaches can be broadly classiﬁed into top-down models and bottom-up models.

24.3.1

Comparison of Approaches

Top-down models attempt to measure operational risk at the broadest level, that is, ﬁrm-wide or industry-wide data. Results are then used to determine the amount of capital that needs to be set aside as a buffer against this risk. This capital is allocated to business units.

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Bottom-up models start at the individual business unit or process level. The results are then aggregated to determine the risk proﬁle of the institution. The main beneﬁt of such approaches is that they lead to a better understanding of the causes of operational losses. Tools used to manage operational risk can be classiﬁed into six categories: Audit oversight, which consist of reviews of business processes by an external audit department. Critical self assessment, where each business unit identiﬁes the nature and size of operational risk. These subjective evaluations include their expected frequency and severity of losses, as well as a description of how risk is controlled. The tools used for this type of process include checklists, questionnaires, and facilitated workshops. Key risk indicators, which consist of simple measures that provide an indication of whether risks are changing over time. These early warning signs can include audit scores, staff turnover, trade volumes, and so on. The assumption is that operational risk events are more likely to occur when these indicators increase. These objective measures allow the risk manager to forecast losses through the application of regression techniques, for example. Earnings volatility can be used, after stripping the effect of market and credit risk, to assess operational risk. The approach consists of taking a time-series of earnings adjusted for trends, and computing its volatility. This measure is simple to use. It has numerous problems, unfortunately. This risk measure also includes ﬂuctuations due to business and macroeconomic risks, which fall outside of operational risk. Also, such measure is backward-looking and does not account for improvement or degradation in the quality of controls. Causal networks describe how losses can occur from a cascade of different causes. Causes and effects are linked through conditional probabilities. This process is explained in the appendix. Simulations are then run on the network, generating a distribution of losses. Such bottom-up models improve the understanding of losses since they focus on drivers of risk. Actuarial models, which combine the distribution of frequency of losses with their severity distribution to produce an objective distribution of losses due to operational risk. These can be either bottom-up or top-down models.

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PART V: OPERATIONAL AND INTEGRATED RISK MANAGEMENT

Actuarial Models

Actuarial models estimate the objective distribution of losses from historical data and are widely used in the insurance industry. Such models combine two distributions, loss frequencies and loss severities. The loss frequency distribution describes the number of loss events over a ﬁxed interval of time. The loss severity distribution describes the size of the loss once it occurs. Loss severities can be tabulated from historical data, for instance measures of the loss severity yk , at time k. These measures can be adjusted for inﬂation and some measure of current business activity. Deﬁne Pk as the consumer price index at time k and Vk as a business activity measure such as the number of trades. We could assume that the severity is proportional to the volume of business V and to the price level. The scaled loss is measured as of time t as xt ⳱ yk ⫻

Pt Vt ⫻ Pk Vk

(24.1)

Next, deﬁne the loss frequency distribution by the variable n, which represents the number of occurrences of losses over the period. The density function is pdf of loss frequency ⳱ f (n), n ⳱ 0, 1, 2, . . .

(24.2)

If x (or X ) is the loss severity when a loss occurs, its density is pdf of loss severity ⳱ g (x 兩 n ⳱ 1), x ⱖ 0

(24.3)

Finally, the total loss over the period is given by the sum of individual losses over a random number of occurrences: n

Sn ⳱

冱 Xi

(24.4)

i ⳱1

Table 24-3 provides a simple example of two such distributions. Our task is now to combine these two distributions into one, that of total losses over the period. Assuming that the frequency and severity of losses are independent, the two distributions can be combined into a distribution of aggregate loss through a process known as convolution. Convolution can be implemented, for instance, through tabu-

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TABLE 24-3 Sample Loss Frequency and Severity Distributions Frequency Distribution Probability Frequency 0.6 0 0.3 1 0.1 2 Expectation 0.5

Severity Distribution Probability Severity 0.5 $1,000 0.3 $10,000 0.2 $100,000 Expectation $23,500

lation. Tabulation consist of systematically recording all possible combinations with their probability and is illustrated in Table 24-4. We start with the obvious case with no loss, which has probability 0.6. Next, we go through all possible realizations of one loss only. From Table 24-3, we see that a loss of $1,000 can occur with total probability of P (n ⳱ 1) ⫻ P (x ⳱ $1,000) ⳱ 0.3 ⫻ 0.5 ⳱ 0.15. Similarly for the probability of a one time-loss of $10,000 and $100,000, the probability is 0.09 and 0.06, respectively. We then go through all occurrences of two losses, which can result from many different combinations. For instance, a loss of $1,000 can occur twice, for a total of $2,000, with a probability of 0.1 ⫻ 0.5 ⫻ 0.5 ⳱ 0.025. We can have a loss of $1,000 and $10,000, for a total of $11,000, with probability of 0.1 ⫻ 0.5 ⫻ 0.3 ⳱ 0.015. And so on until we exhaust all combinations.

TABLE 24-4 Tabulation of Loss Distribution Nb of losses 0 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 Expectation

First Loss 0 1000 10000 100000 1000 1000 1000 10000 10000 10000 100000 100000 100000

Second Loss 0 0 0 0 1000 10000 100000 1000 10000 100000 1000 10000 100000

Total Loss 0 1000 10000 100000 2000 11000 101000 11000 20000 110000 101000 110000 200000 11750

Probability 0.6 0.15 0.09 0.06 0.025 0.015 0.010 0.015 0.009 0.006 0.010 0.006 0.004

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FIGURE 24-2 Construction of the Loss Distribution

Frequency distribution1 Severity distributio

1

0.5

0

0.5

0

1

0

2

$1

Number of losses (per year)

$100

Loss distribution

1

Expected loss $11,750

0.5

0

$10

Loss size ($ 000s)

0

1

2

10

11

VAR $88,250 20

100 101 110 200

Loss per year ($ 000s)

The resulting distribution is displayed in Figure 24-2. It is interesting to note that the very simple distributions in Table 24-3, with only three realizations, create a complex distribution. We can compute the expected loss, which is simply the product of expected values for the two distributions, or E [S ] ⳱ E [N ] ⫻ E [X ] ⳱ 0.5 ⫻ $23,500 ⳱ $11,750. The risk manager can also report the lowest number such that the probability is greater than 95 percent quantile. This is $100,000 with a probability of 96.4%. Hence the unexpected loss, or operational VAR, is $100, 000 ⫺ $11, 750 ⳱ $88, 250. More generally, convolution must be implemented by numerical methods, as there are too many combinations of variables for a systematic tabulation. Example 24-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 64/Operational Risk Mgt. 24-7. Which statement about operational risk is true? a) Measuring operational risk requires both estimating the probability of an operational loss event and the potential size of the loss. b) Measurement of operational risk is well developed, given the general agreement among institutions about the deﬁnition of this risk. c) The operational risk manager has the primary responsibility for management of operational risk. d) Operational risks are clearly separate from other risks, such as credit and market.

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Example 24-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 166/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-8. When measuring operational risk, the complete distribution of potential losses for each risk type is formed using a) An insurance-based volatility distribution b) Back ofﬁce distributions of transaction size and number of transactions per day c) An operational and catastrophic distribution d) A frequency and severity distribution Example 24-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 167/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-9. A particular operational risk event is estimated to occur once in 200 years for an institution. The loss for this type of event is expected to be between HKD 25 million and HKD 100 million with equal probability of loss in that range (and zero probability outside that range). Based on this information, determine the fair price of insurance to protect the institution against a loss of over HKD 80 million for this particular operational risk. a) HKD 133,333 b) HKD 90,000 c) HKD 120,000 d) HKD 106,667 Example 24-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 169/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-10. The measurement of exposure to operational risk should be based on the assessment of I. The probability of an operational failure II. The extent of insurance coverage III. The probability distribution of losses in case of failure a) I only b) II only c) I and III only d) I, II, and III

24.4

Managing Operational Risk

24.4.1

Capital Allocation and Insurance

Like market VAR, the distribution of operational losses can be used to estimate expected losses as well as the amount of capital required to support this ﬁnancial risk. Figure 24-3 highlights important attributes of a distribution of losses, taken as positive values, due to operational risk.

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FIGURE 24-3 Distribution of Operational Losses

Frequency of loss

Unexpected loss

Stress loss

AM FL Y

Expected loss Operational loss

The expected loss represents the size of operational losses that should be expected to occur. Typically, this represents high frequency, low severity events. This

TE

type of loss is generally absorbed as an ongoing cost and managed through internal controls. Such losses are rarely disclosed. systems. The unexpected loss represents the deviation between the quantile loss at some conﬁdence level and the expected loss. Typically, this represents lower frequency, higher severity events. This type of loss is generally offset against capital reserves or transferred to an outside insurance company, when available. Such losses are sometimes disclosed publicly but often with little detail. The stress loss represents a loss in excess of the unexpected loss. By deﬁnition, such losses are very infrequent but extremely damaging to the institution. The Barings bankruptcy can be attributed, for instance, in large part to operational risk. This type of loss cannot be easily offset through capital allocation, as this would require too much capital. Ideally, it should be transferred to an insurance company. Due to their severity, such losses are disclosed publicly. Even so, purchasing insurance is no panacea. The insurance payment would have to be very quick and in full. The bank could fail while waiting for payment, or arguing over the size of compensation. because, once the insurance is acquired, the purchaser has less incentives to control losses. This problem is called moral hazard. The insurer

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will be aware of this and increase the premium accordingly. The premium may also be high because of the adverse selection problem. This describes a situation where banks vary in the quality of their controls. Banks with poor controls are more likely to purchase insurance than banks with good controls. Because the insurance company does not know what type of bank it is facing, it will increase the average premium. Example 24-11: FRM Exam 2001----Question 49 24-11. Which of the term below is used within the insurance industry to refer to the effect of a reduction in control of losses by an individual insured insured due to the protection provided by insurance? a) Control trap b) Moral hazard c) Adverse selection d) Control hazard Example 24-12: FRM Exam 2001----Question 51 24-12. Which of the terms below refers to the situation where the various buyers of insurance have different expected losses, but the insurer (or the capital market, as the seller of insurance) is unable to distinguish between the different types of hedge buyer and is therefore unable to charge differentiated premiums? a) Moral hazard b) Average insurance c) Adverse selection d) Control hazard

24.4.2

Mitigating Operational Risk

The approach so far has consisted of taking operational risk as given. Such measures are extremely useful because they highlight the size of losses due to operational risk. Armed with this information, the institution can then decide whether it is worth spending resources on decreasing operational risk. Say that a bank is wondering whether to install a straight-through processing system, which automatically captures trades in the front ofﬁce and transmits them to the back ofﬁce. Such system eliminates manual intervention and the potential for human errors, thereby decreasing losses due to operational risk. The bank should purchase the system if its cost is less than its operational risk beneﬁt. More generally, reduction of operational risk can occur in the frequency of losses and/or in the size of losses when they occur. Operational risk is also contained by a

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ﬁrm-wide risk management framework. In a later chapter, we will discuss best practices in risk management, which are designed to provide some protection against operational risk. Consider for instance a transaction in a plain-vanilla, 5-year, interest rate swap. This simple instrument generates a large number of cash ﬂows, each of which have the potential for errors. At initiation, the trade needs to be booked and conﬁrmed with the counterparty. It needs to be valued so that a P&L can be attributed to the trading unit. With biannual payments, the swap will generate ten cash ﬂows along with ten rate resets and net payment computations. These payments need to be computed with absolute accuracy, that is, to the last cent. Errors can range from minor issues, such as paying a day late, to major problems, such as failure to hedge or fraudulent valuation by the trader. The swap will also create some market risk, which may need to be hedged. The position needs to be transmitted to the market risk management system, which will monitor the total position and risk of the trader and of the institution as a whole. In addition, the current and potential credit exposure needs to be regularly measured and added up to all other trades with the same counterparty. Errors in this risk measurement process can lead to excessive exposure to market and/or credit risk. Operational risk can be minimized in a number of ways.2 Internal control methods consist of Separation of functions: Individuals responsible for committing transactions should not perform clearance and accounting functions. Dual entries: Entries (inputs) should be matched from two different sources, that is, the trade ticket and the conﬁrmation by the back ofﬁce. Reconciliations: Results (outputs) should be matched from different sources, for instance the trader’s proﬁt estimate and the computation by the middle ofﬁce. Tickler systems: Important dates for a transaction (e.g., settlement, exercise dates) should be entered into a calendar system that automatically generates a message before the due date. Controls over amendments: Any amendment to original deal tickets should be subject to the same strict controls as original trade tickets. 2

See also Brewer. (1997). Minimizing Operations Risk. In Schwartz, R. & Smith C. (Eds.). Derivatives Handbook. New York: Wiley.

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External control methods consist of Conﬁrmations: Trade tickets need to be conﬁrmed with the counterparty, which provides an independent check on the transaction. Veriﬁcation of prices: To value positions, prices should be obtained from external sources. This also implies that an institution should have the capability of valuing a transaction in-house before entering it. Authorization: The counterparty should be provided with a list of personnel authorized to trade, as well as a list of allowed transactions. Settlement: The payment process itself can indicate if some of the terms of the transaction have been incorrectly recorded, for instance, as the ﬁrst cash payments on a swap are not matched across counterparties. Internal/external audits: These examinations provide useful information on potential weakness areas in the organizational structure or business process.

24.5

Conceptual Issues

The management of operational risk, however, is still beset by conceptual problems. First, unlike market and credit risk, operational risk is largely internal to ﬁnancial institutions. This makes it difﬁcult to collect data on operational losses which ideally should cover a large number of operational failures, because institutions are understandably reluctant to advertise their mistakes. Another problem is that losses may not be directly applicable to another institution, as they were incurred under possibly different business proﬁles and internal controls. Second, market and credit risk can be conceptually separated into exposures and risk factors. Exposures can be easily measured and controlled. In contrast, the link between risk factors and the likelihood and size of operational losses is not so easy to establish. Here, the line of causation runs through internal controls. Third, very large operational losses, which can threaten the stability of an institution, are relatively rare (thankfully so). This leads to a very small number or observations in the tails. Such “thin tails” problem makes it very difﬁcult to come up with a robust “value for operational risk” (VOR) at a high conﬁdence level. As a result, there is still some skepticism as to whether operational risk can be subject to the same quantiﬁcation as market and credit risks.

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Example 24-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 170/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-13. Operational risk capital (ORC) should provide a cushion against I. Expected losses II. Unexpected losses III. Catastrophic losses a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I, II, and III Example 24-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 4/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-14. What can be said about the impact of operational risk on both market risk and credit risk? a) Operational risk has no impact on market risk and credit risk. b) Operational risk has no impact on market risk but has impact on credit risk. c) Operational risk has impact on market risk but no impact on credit risk. d) Operational risk has impact on market risk and credit risk.

24.6

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 24-1: FRM Exam 2001----Question 48 c) A power outage is an example of system failure, which is part of the operational risk deﬁnition. Answer (d) is a case of credit risk. Answer (b) is a case of market risk. Answer (a) is a mix of credit and legal risk. Example 24-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 3/Oper.&Integr.Risk b) Fluctuations in market prices reﬂect market risk. Example 24-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 173/Oper.&Integr.Risk d) All the three deﬁnitions have been used and highlight a different aspect of operational risk. Example 24-4: FRM Exam 1997----Question 32/Regulatory c) Model risk includes model assumptions that are too rigid (a), that are only understood by a small group of people (b) or not understood by risk managers (d). Having the models validated by independent reviewers decreases model risk.

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Example 24-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 5/Oper.&Integr.Risk b) Automatic ﬁltering of outliers may weed out bad data points but also reject real observations, which may bias downward forward-looking measures of risk. Also, changing a spreadsheet’s calculation mode from automatic to manual can create operational risk. Example 24-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Oper.&Integr.Risk c) We need to identify risk, before measuring, controlling and managing them. Example 24-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 64/Operational Risk Mgt. a) Constructing the operational loss requires the probability, or frequency, of the event as well as estimates of potential loss sizes. Answer (b) is wrong as measurement of op risk is still developing. Answer (c) is wrong as the business unit is also responsible for controlling operational risk. Answer (d) is wrong as losses can occur as a combination of operational and market or credit risks. Example 24-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 166/Oper.&Integr.Risk d) The distribution of losses due to operational risk results from the combination of loss frequencies and loss severities. Example 24-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 167/Oper.&Integr.Risk c) The expected loss severity is, with a uniform distribution from 80 to 100 million, 90 million. The frequency of this happening would be once every 200 years times the ratio of the [80, 100] range to the total range [25, 100], which is (20冫 75)冫 200 ⳱ 0.001333. The expected loss is 90, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.00133 ⳱ HKD120,000. Example 24-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 169/Oper.&Integr.Risk c) The distribution of losses due to operational risk is derived from the loss frequency (I) and loss severity distributions (III). Example 24-11: FRM Exam 2001----Question 49 b) Moral hazard arises when insured individuals have no incentive to control their losses because they are insured.

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Example 24-12: FRM Exam 2001----Question 51 b) Adverse selection refers to the fact that individuals buy insurance knowing that they have greater risk than the average, but that the insurer charges the same premium to all. Example 24-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 170/Oper.&Integr.Risk b) Capital can only provide protection against unexpected losses at a high conﬁdence level. Above that, insurance can pick up the risk. Example 24-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 4/Oper.&Integr.Risk d) As seen in the example of the effect of a failure to record the terms of the swap correctly, operational risk can create both market and credit risk.

Appendix: Causal Networks Causal networks explain losses in terms of a sequence of random variables. Each variable itself can be due to the combination of other variables. For instance, settlement losses can be viewed as caused by a combination of (1) exposure and (2) time delay. In turn, exposure depends on (a) the value of the transaction and (b) whether it is a buy or sell. Next, the causal factor for time delay can be chosen as (a) the exchange, (b) the domicile, (c) the counterparty, (d) the product, and (e) daily volume. These links are displayed through graphical models based on process work ﬂows. One approach is the Bayesian network. Here, each node represents a random variable; each arrow represents a causal link. Causes and effects are related through conditional probabilities, an application of Bayes’ theorem. For instance, suppose we want to predict the probability of a settlement failure, or fail. Set y ⳱ 1 if there is a failure and zero otherwise. The causal factor is, say, the quality of the back-ofﬁce team, which can be either good or bad. Set x ⳱ 1 if the team is bad. Assume there is a 20 percent probability that the team is bad. If the team is good, the conditional probability of a fail is P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 0) ⳱ 0.1. If the team is bad, this probability is higher, P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 1) ⳱ 0.7. We can now construct the unconditional probability of a fail, which is P (y ⳱ 1) ⳱ P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 0)P (x ⳱ 0) Ⳮ P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 1)P (x ⳱ 1)

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which is here P (y ⳱ 1) ⳱ 0.1 ⫻ (1 ⫺ 0.20) Ⳮ 0.7 ⫻ 0.20 ⳱ 0.22. Armed with this information, we can now evaluate the beneﬁt of changing the team from bad to good through training, for example, or new hires. Or, we could assess the probability that the team is bad given that a fail has occurred. Using Bayes’ rule, this is P (x ⳱ 1 兩 y ⳱ 1) ⳱

P (y ⳱ 1, x ⳱ 1) P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 1)P (x ⳱ 1) ⳱ P (y ⳱ 1) P (y ⳱ 1)

which is here P (x ⳱ 1 兩 y ⳱ 1) ⳱

0.7 ⫻ 0.20 0.22

(24.6)

⳱ 0.64. In other words, the probability that

the team is bad has increased from 20 percent to 64 percent based on the observed fail. Such observation is useful for process diagnostics. Once all initial nodes have been assigned probabilities, the Bayesian network is complete. The bank can now perform Monte Carlo simulations over the network, starting from the initial variables and continuing to the operational loss to derive a distribution of losses.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 25 Risk Capital and RAROC The methodologies described so far have covered market, credit, and operational risk. In each case, the distribution of proﬁts and losses reveals a number of essential insights. First, the expected loss is a measure of reserves necessary to guard against future losses. At the very least, the pricing of products should provide a buffer against expected losses. Second, the unexpected loss is a measure of the amount of economic capital required to support the bank’s ﬁnancial risk. This capital, also called risk capital, is basically a value-at-risk (VAR) measure. Armed with this information, institutions can now make better informed decision about business lines. Each activity should provide sufﬁcient proﬁt to compensate for the risks involved. Thus, product pricing should account not only for expected losses but also for the remuneration of risk capital. Some activities may require large amounts of risk capital, which in turn requires higher than otherwise returns. This is the essence of risk-adjusted return on capital (RAROC) measures. The central objective is to establish benchmarks to evaluate the economic return of business activities. This includes transactions, products, customer trades, business lines, as well as the entire business. RAROC is also related to concepts such as shareholder value analysis and economic value added. In the past, performance was measured by yardsticks such as return on assets (ROA), which adjusts proﬁts for the associated book value of assets, or return on equity (ROE), which adjusts proﬁts for the associated book value of equity. None of these measures is satisfactory for evaluating the performance of business lines as they ignore risks. Section 25.1 introduces RAROC measures for performance evaluation. The section also demonstrates the link between RAROC and other concepts such as shareholder value analysis and economic value added. Section 25.2 then shows how to use riskadjusted returns to evaluate products and business lines.

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25.1

RAROC

RAROC was developed by Bankers Trust in the late 1970s. The bank was faced with the problem of evaluating traders involved in activities with different risk proﬁles.

25.1.1

Risk Capital

RAROC is part of the family of risk-adjusted performance measures (RAPM). Consider, for instance, two traders that each returned a proﬁt of $10 million over the last year. The ﬁrst is a foreign currency trader, the second a bond trader. The question is, How do we compare their performance? This is important in order to provide appropriate compensation as well as to decide in which line of activity to expand.

AM FL Y

Assume the FX and bond traders have notional amount and volatility as described in Table 25-1. The bond trader deals in larger amounts, $200 million, but in a market with lower volatility, at 4 percent per annum, against $100 million and 12 percent for the FX trader. The risk capital (RC) can be computed as a VAR measure, say at the 99 percent level over a year, as Bankers Trust did. Assuming normal distributions, this

TE

translates into a risk capital of

Risk Capital (RC) ⳱ VAR ⳱ $100, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.12 ⫻ 2.33 ⳱ $28million for the FX trader and $19 million for the bond trader. More precisely, Bankers Trust computes risk capital from a weekly standard deviation σw as RC ⳱ 2.33 ⫻ σw ⫻ 冪52 ⫻ (1 ⫺ tax rate) ⫻ Notional

(25.1)

which includes a tax factor that determines the amount required on an after-tax basis. TABLE 25-1 Computing RAPM FX trader Bond trader

Proﬁt $10 $10

Notional $100 $200

Volatility 12 4

VAR $28 19%

RAPM 36% 54%

The risk-adjusted performance is then measured as the dollar proﬁt divided by the risk capital RAPM ⳱

Proﬁt RC

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and is shown in the last column. Thus the bond trader is actually performing better than the FX trader as the activity requires less risk capital. More generally, risk capital should account for credit risk, operational risk, as well as any interaction. It should be noted that this approach views risk on a stand-alone basis, i.e. using each product’s volatility. In theory, for capital allocation purposes, risk should be viewed in the context of the bank’s whole portfolio and measured in terms of marginal contribution to the bank’s overall risk. In practice, however, it is best to charge traders for risks under their control, which means the volatility of their portfolio.

25.1.2

RAROC Methodology

RAROC measures proceed in three steps. Risk measurement. This requires the measurement of portfolio exposure, of the volatility and correlations of the risk factors. Capital allocation. This requires the choice of a conﬁdence level and horizon for the VAR measure, which translates into an economic capital. The transaction may also require a regulatory capital charge if appropriate. Performance measurement. This requires the adjustment of performance for the risk capital. Performance measurement can be based on a RAPM method or one of its variants. For instance, economic value added (EVA) focuses on the creation of value during a particular period in excess of the required return on capital. EVA measures residual economic proﬁts as EVA ⳱ Proﬁt ⫺ (Capital ⫻ k)

(25.3)

where proﬁts are adjusted for the cost of economic capital deﬁning k as a discount rate. Assuming the whole worth is captured by EVA, the higher the EVA, the better the project or product. RAROC is formally deﬁned as RAROC ⳱

[Proﬁt ⫺ (Capital ⫻ k)] Capital

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This is a rate of return, obtained by dividing the dollar EVA return by the dollar amount of capital.1 Another popular performance measure is shareholder value analysis (SVA), whose purpose is to maximize the total value to shareholders. The framework is that of a net present value (NPV) analysis, where the worth of a project is computed by taking the present value of future cash ﬂows, discounted at the appropriate interest rate k, minus the up-front capital. A project that has positive NPV creates positive shareholder value. Although SVA is a prospective multiperiod measure whereas EVA is a one-period measure, EVA and SVA are consistent with each other provided the same inputs are used. Consider, for instance, a one-period model where capital is fully invested or excess capital has zero return. The next period payoff is then the proﬁt plus the initial capital; we discount this payoff at the cost of capital and subtract the initial capital. We seek to maximize the NPV, or SVA, which is NPV ⳱

[Proﬁt Ⳮ Capital] [Proﬁt ⫺ Capital ⫻ k] ⫺ Capital ⳱ (1 Ⳮ k) (1 Ⳮ k)

(25.5)

which is equivalent to maximizing the numerator, or EVA. If the risk capital can be invested at the rate r , the ﬁnal payoff must account for the return on capital. The numerator is then modiﬁed to EVA ⳱ [Proﬁt ⫺ Capital ⫻ (k ⫺ r )]

25.1.3

(25.6)

Application to Compensation

This system allows the trader’s compensation to be adjusted for the risk of the activities. The goal is not to decrease total compensation, however. This is illustrated in Table 25-2. Under the old bonus system, the bonus is 20 percent of the proﬁt, or $2 million for the FX trader. We assume that the FX trader has control over the average volatility and want to encourage him or her to lower risk.

1

This measure is sometimes called RARORAC, or risk-adjusted return on risk-adjusted capital. Some deﬁnitions of RAROC use regulatory capital in the denominator. Another measure is RORAC, or return on risk-adjusted capital, which omits the adjustment in the denominator.

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The benchmark, or target risk, is set at $20 million and described in the last row. The new bonus scheme pays a percentage of the EVA using a cost of capital of 15 percent. Thus for the FX trader, the EVA is $10 ⫺ 15% ⫻ $28 ⳱ $5.8 million. We now calibrate the multiplier so that a target RC of $20 million would result in a bonus of $2 million. Hence, the total compensation is still the same if the risk capital is equal to that of the benchmark. This yields a multiplier of 29 percent. Note that the benchmark compensation is the same under the old and new system. Table 25-2 shows that the new bonus system would result in a payment of 29% ⫻ $5.8 ⳱ $1.7 million to the FX trader. This is less than under the old system due to the fact that the risk capital was higher than the benchmark. Such a system will immediately capture the attention of the trader, who will now focus on risk as well as proﬁts. The other trader, with the same proﬁt but lower capital, has a higher bonus than under the old system, at $2.1 million instead of $2 million. TABLE 25-2 Risk-Adjusted Compensation ($ Millions) Proﬁt

FX trader Bond trader Benchmark

(1)

Capital (VAR) (2)

$10 $10 $10

$28 $19 $20

Bonus old (3) 20% ⫻ (1) $2.0 $2.0 $2.0

Capital Charge (4) 15% ⫻ (2) $4.2 $2.8 $3.0

EVA (5) (1) ⫺ (4) $5.8 $7.2 $7.0

Bonus new (6) 29% ⫻ (5) $1.7 $2.1 $2.0

Example 25-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 159/Oper.&Integr.Risk 25-1. To calculate risk-adjusted return on capital (RAROC), what information is required? a) 1-year holding period, 99% conﬁdence interval loss for the portfolio b) Tax rate c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

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Example 25-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 70/Operational Risk Mgt. 25-2. A bond trader deals in $100 million in a market with very high volatility of 20 percent per annum. He yields $10 million proﬁt. The risk capital (RC) is computed as a value-at-risk (VAR) measure at the 99 percent level over a year. Assuming normal distribution of return, calculate the risk-adjusted performance measure (RAPM). a) 15.35% b) 19.13% c) 21.46% d) 25.02%

25.2

Performance Evaluation and Pricing

We now give the example of the analysis of the risk-adjusted return for an interest rate swap. All revenue and cost items should be attributed to the product. Gross revenue consists of the present value of the bid and ask spread plus any fees. Hedging costs can be traced to the need to hedge out market risk, as incurred. Expected credit costs measure the statistically expected losses due to credit risk (also known as credit provision) and operational risk. Operating costs reﬂect direct, indirect, and overhead expenses. Tax costs measure tax expenses. The sum of revenues minus all costs can be called expected net income. It still does not account for the remuneration of risk capital. This is the purpose of EVA, as in Equation (25.3). EVA and RAROC allow the institution to evaluate an existing product or business line. This application is still passive. The same methodology can be inverted to make pricing decisions, i.e. to determine the minimum revenue required for a transaction to be viable. Consider the EVA formula, Equation (25.3). This can also be viewed as a minimum amount of revenues that covers costs and the cost of risk capital: Revenue ⳱ Costs Ⳮ [Capital ⫻ (k ⫺ r )]

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As an example, we illustrate the pricing of a 5-year interest rate swap for various credit counterparties, which is shown in Table 25-3.2 Assuming there is only credit risk or that the swap is hedged against market risk, we can compute various costs expressed in basis points (bp) of the notional, including the expected credit loss. This corresponds to the actuarial estimate of credit loss, from the combination of credit exposure, probability of default, and loss given default. For the Aaa credit, for example, this amounts to 0.29bp of principal, which is very low, reﬂecting the low probability of default.3 The next step is to compute the amount of risk capital required to support the transaction. This can be derived from th

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Financial Risk Manager

Handbook Second Edition Philippe Jorion

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Wiley John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Copyright 䊚 2003 by Philippe Jorion, except for FRM sample questions, which are copyright 1997–2001 by GARP. The FRM designation is a GARP trademark. All rights reserved. Published by John Wiley & Sons, Inc., Hoboken, New Jersey Published simultaneously in Canada No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, or otherwise, except as permitted under Section 107 or 108 of the 1976 United States Copyright Act, without either the prior written permission of the Publisher, or authorization through payment of the appropriate per-copy fee to the Copyright Clearance Center, Inc., 222 Rosewood Drive, Danvers, MA 01923, 978-750-8400, fax 978-750-4470, or on the web at www.copyright.com. Requests to the Publisher for permission should be addressed to the Permissions Department, John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 111 River Street, Hoboken, NJ 07030, 201-748-6011, fax 201-748-6008, e-mail: permcoordinator§wiley.com. Limit of Liability/Disclaimer of Warranty: While the publisher and author have used their best efforts in preparing this book, they make no representations or warranties with respect to the accuracy or completeness of the contents of this book and speciﬁcally disclaim any implied warranties of merchantability or ﬁtness for a particular purpose. No warranty may be created or extended by sales representatives or written sales materials. The advice and strategies contained herein may not be suitable for your situation. You should consult with a professional where appropriate. Neither the publisher nor author shall be liable for any loss of proﬁt or any other commercial damages, including but not limited to special, incidental, consequential, or other damages. For general information on our other products and services, or technical support, please contact our Customer Care Department within the United States at 800-762-2974, outside the United States at 317-572-3993 or fax 317-572-4002. Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication Data: ISBN 0-471-43003-X Printed in the United States of America. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

About the Author Philippe Jorion is Professor of Finance at the Graduate School of Management at the University of California at Irvine. He has also taught at Columbia University, Northwestern University, the University of Chicago, and the University of British Columbia. He holds an M.B.A. and a Ph.D. from the University of Chicago and a degree in engineering from the University of Brussels. Dr. Jorion has authored more than seventy publications directed to academics and practitioners on the topics of risk management and international ﬁnance. Dr. Jorion has written a number of books, including Big Bets Gone Bad: Derivatives and Bankruptcy in Orange County, the ﬁrst account of the largest municipal failure in U.S. history, and Value at Risk: The New Benchmark for Managing Financial Risk, which is aimed at ﬁnance practitioners and has become an “industry standard.” Philippe Jorion is a frequent speaker at academic and professional conferences. He is on the editorial board of a number of ﬁnance journals and is editor in chief of the Journal of Risk.

About GARP The Global Association of Risk Professionals (GARP), established in 1996, is a notfor-proﬁt independent association of risk management practitioners and researchers. Its members represent banks, investment management ﬁrms, governmental bodies, academic institutions, corporations, and other ﬁnancial organizations from all over the world. GARP’s mission, as adopted by its Board of Trustees in a statement issued in February 2003, is to be the leading professional association for risk managers, managed by and for its members dedicated to the advancement of the risk profession through education, training and the promotion of best practices globally. In just seven years the Association’s membership has grown to over 27,000 individuals from around the world. In the just six years since its inception in 1997, the FRM program has become the world’s most prestigious ﬁnancial risk management certiﬁcation program. Professional risk managers having earned the FRM credential are globally recognized as having achieved a minimum level of professional competency along with a demonstrated ability to dynamically measure and manage ﬁnancial risk in a real-world setting in accord with global standards. Further information about GARP, the FRM Exam, and FRM readings are available at www.garp.com.

v

Contents Preface

xix

Introduction

xxi

Part I: Quantitative Analysis Ch. 1

Ch. 2

1

Bond Fundamentals 1.1 Discounting, Present, and Future Value . . 1.2 Price-Yield Relationship . . . . . . . . . . 1.2.1 Valuation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.2.2 Taylor Expansion . . . . . . . . . . 1.2.3 Bond Price Derivatives . . . . . . . 1.2.4 Interpreting Duration and Convexity 1.2.5 Portfolio Duration and Convexity . . 1.3 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . .

3 3 6 6 7 9 16 23 26

Fundamentals of Probability 2.1 Characterizing Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.1.1 Univariate Distribution Functions . . . . . . . . . . . 2.1.2 Moments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.2 Multivariate Distribution Functions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3 Functions of Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3.1 Linear Transformation of Random Variables . . . . . . 2.3.2 Sum of Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3.3 Portfolios of Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3.4 Product of Random Variables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3.5 Distributions of Transformations of Random Variables 2.4 Important Distribution Functions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.1 Uniform Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.2 Normal Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.3 Lognormal Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.4 Student’s t Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.4.5 Binomial Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

31 31 32 33 37 40 41 42 42 43 44 46 46 47 51 54 56 57

vii

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viii Ch. 3

Ch. 4

CONTENTS Fundamentals of Statistics 3.1 Real Data . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.1.1 Measuring Returns . . . 3.1.2 Time Aggregation . . . . 3.1.3 Portfolio Aggregation . . 3.2 Parameter Estimation . . . . . . 3.3 Regression Analysis . . . . . . 3.3.1 Bivariate Regression . . 3.3.2 Autoregression . . . . . 3.3.3 Multivariate Regression . 3.3.4 Example . . . . . . . . . 3.3.5 Pitfalls with Regressions 3.4 Answers to Chapter Examples .

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Monte Carlo Methods 4.1 Simulations with One Random Variable 4.1.1 Simulating Markov Processes . . 4.1.2 The Geometric Brownian Motion 4.1.3 Simulating Yields . . . . . . . . 4.1.4 Binomial Trees . . . . . . . . . 4.2 Implementing Simulations . . . . . . . 4.2.1 Simulation for VAR . . . . . . . 4.2.2 Simulation for Derivatives . . . 4.2.3 Accuracy . . . . . . . . . . . . 4.3 Multiple Sources of Risk . . . . . . . . 4.3.1 The Cholesky Factorization . . . 4.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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Introduction to Derivatives 5.1 Overview of Derivatives Markets . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.2 Forward Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.2.1 Deﬁnition . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.2.2 Valuing Forward Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.2.3 Valuing an Off-Market Forward Contract . . . . . . 5.2.4 Valuing Forward Contracts with Income Payments . 5.3 Futures Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.3.1 Deﬁnitions of Futures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.3.2 Valuing Futures Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.4 Swap Contracts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

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Options 6.1 Option Payoffs . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6.1.1 Basic Options . . . . . . . . . . 6.1.2 Put-Call Parity . . . . . . . . . . 6.1.3 Combination of Options . . . . 6.2 Valuing Options . . . . . . . . . . . . 6.2.1 Option Premiums . . . . . . . . 6.2.2 Early Exercise of Options . . . . 6.2.3 Black-Scholes Valuation . . . . . 6.2.4 Market vs. Model Prices . . . . . 6.3 Other Option Contracts . . . . . . . . . 6.4 Valuing Options by Numerical Methods 6.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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Fixed-Income Securities 7.1 Overview of Debt Markets . . . . . . . 7.2 Fixed-Income Securities . . . . . . . . . 7.2.1 Instrument Types . . . . . . . . 7.2.2 Methods of Quotation . . . . . . 7.3 Analysis of Fixed-Income Securities . . 7.3.1 The NPV Approach . . . . . . . 7.3.2 Duration . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7.4 Spot and Forward Rates . . . . . . . . 7.5 Mortgage-Backed Securities . . . . . . . 7.5.1 Description . . . . . . . . . . . 7.5.2 Prepayment Risk . . . . . . . . 7.5.3 Financial Engineering and CMOs 7.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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Fixed-Income Derivatives 8.1 Forward Contracts . . . . . . . . 8.2 Futures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.2.1 Eurodollar Futures . . . . 8.2.2 T-bond Futures . . . . . . 8.3 Swaps . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.3.1 Deﬁnitions . . . . . . . . 8.3.2 Quotations . . . . . . . . 8.3.3 Pricing . . . . . . . . . . . 8.4 Options . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.4.1 Caps and Floors . . . . . . 8.4.2 Swaptions . . . . . . . . . 8.4.3 Exchange-Traded Options . 8.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . .

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Currencies and Commodities Markets 10.1 Currency Markets . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.2 Currency Swaps . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.2.1 Deﬁnitions . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.2.2 Pricing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.3 Commodities . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.3.1 Products . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.3.2 Pricing of Futures . . . . . . . . . 10.3.3 Futures and Expected Spot Prices . 10.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . .

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Equity Markets 9.1 Equities . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9.1.1 Overview . . . . . . . . 9.1.2 Valuation . . . . . . . . 9.1.3 Equity Indices . . . . . . 9.2 Convertible Bonds and Warrants 9.2.1 Deﬁnitions . . . . . . . 9.2.2 Valuation . . . . . . . . 9.3 Equity Derivatives . . . . . . . 9.3.1 Stock Index Futures . . . 9.3.2 Single Stock Futures . . 9.3.3 Equity Options . . . . . 9.3.4 Equity Swaps . . . . . . 9.4 Answers to Chapter Examples .

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Part III: Market Risk Management

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Introduction to Market Risk Measurement 11.1 Introduction to Financial Market Risks . 11.2 VAR as Downside Risk . . . . . . . . . 11.2.1 VAR: Deﬁnition . . . . . . . . . 11.2.2 VAR: Caveats . . . . . . . . . . 11.2.3 Alternative Measures of Risk . . 11.3 VAR: Parameters . . . . . . . . . . . . 11.3.1 Conﬁdence Level . . . . . . . . 11.3.2 Horizon . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11.3.3 Application: The Basel Rules . . 11.4 Elements of VAR Systems . . . . . . . 11.4.1 Portfolio Positions . . . . . . . 11.4.2 Risk Factors . . . . . . . . . . . 11.4.3 VAR Methods . . . . . . . . . .

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11.5 Stress-Testing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 258 11.6 Cash Flow at Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 260 11.7 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 261 Ch. 12

Ch. 13

Identiﬁcation of Risk Factors 12.1 Market Risks . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12.1.1 Absolute and Relative Risk . . 12.1.2 Directional and Nondirectional 12.1.3 Market vs. Credit Risk . . . . . 12.1.4 Risk Interaction . . . . . . . . 12.2 Sources of Loss: A Decomposition . . 12.2.1 Exposure and Uncertainty . . 12.2.2 Speciﬁc Risk . . . . . . . . . . 12.3 Discontinuity and Event Risk . . . . . 12.3.1 Continuous Processes . . . . . 12.3.2 Jump Process . . . . . . . . . 12.3.3 Event Risk . . . . . . . . . . . 12.4 Liquidity Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . Sources of Risk 13.1 Currency Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13.1.1 Currency Volatility . . . . . . 13.1.2 Correlations . . . . . . . . . . 13.1.3 Devaluation Risk . . . . . . . 13.1.4 Cross-Rate Volatility . . . . . 13.2 Fixed-Income Risk . . . . . . . . . . 13.2.1 Factors Affecting Yields . . . . 13.2.2 Bond Price and Yield Volatility 13.2.3 Correlations . . . . . . . . . . 13.2.4 Global Interest Rate Risk . . . 13.2.5 Real Yield Risk . . . . . . . . 13.2.6 Credit Spread Risk . . . . . . 13.2.7 Prepayment Risk . . . . . . . 13.3 Equity Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13.3.1 Stock Market Volatility . . . . 13.3.2 Forwards and Futures . . . . . 13.4 Commodity Risk . . . . . . . . . . . 13.4.1 Commodity Volatility Risk . . 13.4.2 Forwards and Futures . . . . . 13.4.3 Delivery and Liquidity Risk . .

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CONTENTS 13.5 Risk Simpliﬁcation . . . . . . . . . 13.5.1 Diagonal Model . . . . . . . 13.5.2 Factor Models . . . . . . . . 13.5.3 Fixed-Income Portfolio Risk . 13.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . .

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Hedging Linear Risk 14.1 Introduction to Futures Hedging . . . 14.1.1 Unitary Hedging . . . . . . . . 14.1.2 Basis Risk . . . . . . . . . . . 14.2 Optimal Hedging . . . . . . . . . . . 14.2.1 The Optimal Hedge Ratio . . . 14.2.2 The Hedge Ratio as Regression 14.2.3 Example . . . . . . . . . . . . 14.2.4 Liquidity Issues . . . . . . . . 14.3 Applications of Optimal Hedging . . 14.3.1 Duration Hedging . . . . . . . 14.3.2 Beta Hedging . . . . . . . . . 14.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . .

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Nonlinear Risk: Options 15.1 Evaluating Options . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.1.1 Deﬁnitions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.1.2 Taylor Expansion . . . . . . . . . . . 15.1.3 Option Pricing . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.2 Option “Greeks” . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.2.1 Option Sensitivities: Delta and Gamma 15.2.2 Option Sensitivities: Vega . . . . . . . 15.2.3 Option Sensitivities: Rho . . . . . . . 15.2.4 Option Sensitivities: Theta . . . . . . 15.2.5 Option Pricing and the “Greeks” . . . 15.2.6 Option Sensitivities: Summary . . . . 15.3 Dynamic Hedging . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.3.1 Delta and Dynamic Hedging . . . . . 15.3.2 Implications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15.3.3 Distribution of Option Payoffs . . . . 15.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . .

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Modeling Risk Factors 355 16.1 The Normal Distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 355 16.1.1 Why the Normal? . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 355

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16.1.2 Computing Returns . . 16.1.3 Time Aggregation . . . 16.2 Fat Tails . . . . . . . . . . . . 16.3 Time-Variation in Risk . . . . 16.3.1 GARCH . . . . . . . . 16.3.2 EWMA . . . . . . . . . 16.3.3 Option Data . . . . . . 16.3.4 Implied Distributions . 16.4 Answers to Chapter Examples Ch. 17

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VAR Methods 17.1 VAR: Local vs. Full Valuation . . . . . . 17.1.1 Local Valuation . . . . . . . . . 17.1.2 Full Valuation . . . . . . . . . . 17.1.3 Delta-Gamma Method . . . . . . 17.2 VAR Methods: Overview . . . . . . . . 17.2.1 Mapping . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17.2.2 Delta-Normal Method . . . . . . 17.2.3 Historical Simulation Method . . 17.2.4 Monte Carlo Simulation Method 17.2.5 Comparison of Methods . . . . 17.3 Example . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17.3.1 Mark-to-Market . . . . . . . . . 17.3.2 Risk Factors . . . . . . . . . . . 17.3.3 VAR: Historical Simulation . . . 17.3.4 VAR: Delta-Normal Method . . . 17.4 Risk Budgeting . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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Part IV: Credit Risk Management Ch. 18

Introduction to Credit Risk 18.1 Settlement Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18.1.1 Presettlement vs. Settlement Risk 18.1.2 Handling Settlement Risk . . . . . 18.2 Overview of Credit Risk . . . . . . . . . 18.2.1 Drivers of Credit Risk . . . . . . . 18.2.2 Measurement of Credit Risk . . . 18.2.3 Credit Risk vs. Market Risk . . . . 18.3 Measuring Credit Risk . . . . . . . . . . 18.3.1 Credit Losses . . . . . . . . . . . 18.3.2 Joint Events . . . . . . . . . . . .

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CONTENTS 18.3.3 An Example . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 401 18.4 Credit Risk Diversiﬁcation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 404 18.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 409

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Ch. 21

Measuring Actuarial Default Risk 19.1 Credit Event . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.2 Default Rates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.2.1 Credit Ratings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.2.2 Historical Default Rates . . . . . . . . . 19.2.3 Cumulative and Marginal Default Rates 19.2.4 Transition Probabilities . . . . . . . . . 19.2.5 Predicting Default Probabilities . . . . . 19.3 Recovery Rates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.3.1 The Bankruptcy Process . . . . . . . . 19.3.2 Estimates of Recovery Rates . . . . . . 19.4 Application to Portfolio Rating . . . . . . . . . 19.5 Assessing Corporate and Sovereign Rating . . 19.5.1 Corporate Default . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.5.2 Sovereign Default . . . . . . . . . . . . 19.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . Measuring Default Risk from Market Prices 20.1 Corporate Bond Prices . . . . . . . . . . 20.1.1 Spreads and Default Risk . . . . . 20.1.2 Risk Premium . . . . . . . . . . . 20.1.3 The Cross-Section of Yield Spreads 20.1.4 The Time-Series of Yield Spreads . 20.2 Equity Prices . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20.2.1 The Merton Model . . . . . . . . . 20.2.2 Pricing Equity and Debt . . . . . . 20.2.3 Applying the Merton Model . . . . 20.2.4 Example . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20.3 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . .

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Credit Exposure 21.1 Credit Exposure by Instrument . . . . . . . . . 21.2 Distribution of Credit Exposure . . . . . . . . 21.2.1 Expected and Worst Exposure . . . . . 21.2.2 Time Proﬁle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.2.3 Exposure Proﬁle for Interest-Rate Swaps 21.2.4 Exposure Proﬁle for Currency Swaps . .

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21.2.5 Exposure Proﬁle for Different Coupons 21.3 Exposure Modiﬁers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3.1 Marking to Market . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3.2 Exposure Limits . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3.3 Recouponing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3.4 Netting Arrangements . . . . . . . . . 21.4 Credit Risk Modiﬁers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.4.1 Credit Triggers . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.4.2 Time Puts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . Ch. 22

Ch. 23

Credit Derivatives 22.1 Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22.2 Types of Credit Derivatives . . . . . . . . . 22.2.1 Credit Default Swaps . . . . . . . . 22.2.2 Total Return Swaps . . . . . . . . . 22.2.3 Credit Spread Forward and Options 22.2.4 Credit-Linked Notes . . . . . . . . . 22.3 Pricing and Hedging Credit Derivatives . . 22.3.1 Methods . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22.3.2 Example: Credit Default Swap . . . 22.4 Pros and Cons of Credit Derivatives . . . . 22.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . .

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Managing Credit Risk 23.1 Measuring the Distribution of Credit Losses . . . . 23.2 Measuring Expected Credit Loss . . . . . . . . . . 23.2.1 Expected Loss over a Target Horizon . . . . 23.2.2 The Time Proﬁle of Expected Loss . . . . . 23.3 Measuring Credit VAR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4 Portfolio Credit Risk Models . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.1 Approaches to Portfolio Credit Risk Models 23.4.2 CreditMetrics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.3 CreditRisk+ . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.4 Moody’s KMV . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.5 Credit Portfolio View . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.4.6 Comparison . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . .

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474 479 479 481 481 482 486 486 487 487

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491 491 492 493 496 497 498 501 502 502 505 506

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509 510 513 513 514 516 518 518 519 522 523 524 524 527

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CONTENTS

Part V: Operational and Integrated Risk Management Ch. 24

Ch. 25

Ch. 26

Ch. 27

531

Operational Risk 24.1 The Importance of Operational Risk . . 24.1.1 Case Histories . . . . . . . . . . 24.1.2 Business Lines . . . . . . . . . . 24.2 Identifying Operational Risk . . . . . . 24.3 Assessing Operational Risk . . . . . . . 24.3.1 Comparison of Approaches . . . 24.3.2 Acturial Models . . . . . . . . . 24.4 Managing Operational Risk . . . . . . . 24.4.1 Capital Allocation and Insurance 24.4.2 Mitigating Operational Risk . . . 24.5 Conceptual Issues . . . . . . . . . . . 24.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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533 534 534 535 537 540 540 542 545 545 547 549 550

Risk Capital and RAROC 25.1 RAROC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25.1.1 Risk Capital . . . . . . . . . . 25.1.2 RAROC Methodology . . . . . 25.1.3 Application to Compensation . 25.2 Performance Evaluation and Pricing . 25.3 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . .

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555 556 556 557 558 560 562

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563 563 567 569 571

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573 574 575 575 576 576 577 581 581 582 585

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Best Practices Reports 26.1 The G-30 Report . . . . . . . . . . . . 26.2 The Bank of England Report on Barings 26.3 The CRMPG Report on LTCM . . . . . . 26.4 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . Firmwide Risk Management 27.1 Types of Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . 27.2 Three-Pillar Framework . . . . . . . 27.2.1 Best-Practice Policies . . . . 27.2.2 Best-Practice Methodologies 27.2.3 Best-Practice Infrastructure . 27.3 Organizational Structure . . . . . . 27.4 Controlling Traders . . . . . . . . . 27.4.1 Trader Compensation . . . . 27.4.2 Trader Limits . . . . . . . . 27.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . .

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Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

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CONTENTS

xvii

Part VI: Legal, Accounting, and Tax Risk Management

587

Ch. 28

Ch. 29

Legal Issues 28.1 Legal Risks with Derivatives . . . . . . 28.2 Netting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28.2.1 G-30 Recommendations . . . . . 28.2.2 Netting under the Basel Accord . 28.2.3 Walk-Away Clauses . . . . . . . 28.2.4 Netting and Exchange Margins . 28.3 ISDA Master Netting Agreement . . . . 28.4 The 2002 Sarbanes-Oxley Act . . . . . 28.5 Glossary . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28.5.1 General Legal Terms . . . . . . 28.5.2 Bankruptcy Terms . . . . . . . 28.5.3 Contract Terms . . . . . . . . . 28.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . .

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Accounting and Tax Issues 29.1 Internal Reporting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.1.1 Purpose of Internal Reporting . . . . . . 29.1.2 Comparison of Methods . . . . . . . . . 29.1.3 Historical Cost versus Marking-to-Market 29.2 External Reporting: FASB . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.1 FAS 133 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.2 Deﬁnition of Derivative . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.3 Embedded Derivative . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.4 Disclosure Rules . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.5 Hedge Effectiveness . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.2.6 General Evaluation of FAS 133 . . . . . . 29.2.7 Accounting Treatment of SPEs . . . . . . 29.3 External Reporting: IASB . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.3.1 IAS 37 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.3.2 IAS 39 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.4 Tax Considerations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . .

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589 590 593 593 594 595 596 596 600 601 601 602 602 603

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605 606 606 607 610 612 612 613 614 615 616 617 617 620 620 621 622 623

Part VII: Regulation and Compliance

627

Ch. 30

629 629 631 632

Regulation of Financial Institutions 30.1 Deﬁnition of Financial Institutions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30.2 Systemic Risk . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30.3 Regulation of Commercial Banks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

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CONTENTS 30.4 Regulation of Securities Houses . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 635 30.5 Tools and Objectives of Regulation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 637 30.6 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 639

Ch. 31

Ch. 32

The Basel Accord 31.1 Steps in The Basel Accord . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.1.1 The 1988 Accord . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.1.2 The 1996 Amendment . . . . . . . . . . . 31.1.3 The New Basel Accord . . . . . . . . . . . 31.2 The 1988 Basel Accord . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.2.1 Risk Capital . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.2.2 On-Balance-Sheet Risk Charges . . . . . . . 31.2.3 Off-Balance-Sheet Risk Charges . . . . . . . 31.2.4 Total Risk Charge . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.3 Illustration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.4 The New Basel Accord . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31.4.1 Issues with the 1988 Basel Accord . . . . . 31.4.2 The New Basel Accord: Credit Risk Charges 31.4.3 Securitization and Credit Risk Mitigation . . 31.4.4 The Basel Operational Risk Charge . . . . . 31.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . . . . . . . . . . 31.6 Further Information . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . The Basel Market Risk Charges 32.1 The Standardized Method . . . . . 32.2 The Internal Models Approach . . . 32.2.1 Qualitative Requirements . . 32.2.2 The Market Risk Charge . . . 32.2.3 Combination of Approaches 32.3 Stress-Testing . . . . . . . . . . . . 32.4 Backtesting . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32.4.1 Measuring Exceptions . . . . 32.4.2 Statistical Decision Rules . . 32.4.3 The Penalty Zones . . . . . . 32.5 Answers to Chapter Examples . . .

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Index

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641 641 641 642 642 645 645 647 648 652 654 656 657 658 660 661 663 665

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669 669 671 671 672 674 677 679 680 680 681 684 695

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Preface The FRM Handbook provides the core body of knowledge for ﬁnancial risk managers. Risk management has rapidly evolved over the last decade and has become an indispensable function in many institutions. This Handbook was originally written to provide support for candidates taking the FRM examination administered by GARP. As such, it reviews a wide variety of practical topics in a consistent and systematic fashion. It covers quantitative methods, capital markets, as well as market, credit, operational, and integrated risk management. It also discusses the latest regulatory, legal, and accounting issues essential to risk professionals. Modern risk management systems cut across the entire organization. This breadth is reﬂected in the subjects covered in this Handbook. This Handbook was designed to be self-contained, but only for readers who already have some exposure to ﬁnancial markets. To reap maximum beneﬁt from this book, readers should have taken the equivalent of an MBA-level class on investments. Finally, I wanted to acknowledge the help received in the writing of this second edition. In particular, I would like to thank the numerous readers who shared comments on the previous edition. Any comment and suggestion for improvement will be welcome. This feedback will help us to maintain the high quality of the FRM designation. Philippe Jorion April 2003

xix

AM FL Y TE Team-Fly®

Introduction The Financial Risk Manager Handbook was ﬁrst created in 2000 as a study support manual for candidates preparing for GARP’s annual FRM exam and as a general guide to assessing and controlling ﬁnancial risk in today’s rapidly changing environment. But the growth in the number of risk professionals, the now commonly held view that risk management is an integral and indispensable part of any organization’s management culture, and the ever increasing complexity of the ﬁeld of risk management have changed our goal for the Handbook. This dramatically enhanced second edition of the Handbook reﬂects our belief that a dynamically changing business environment requires a comprehensive text that provides an in-depth overview of the various disciplines associated with ﬁnancial risk management. The Handbook has now evolved into the essential reference text for any risk professional, whether they are seeking FRM Certiﬁcation or whether they simply have a desire to remain current on the subject of ﬁnancial risk. For those using the FRM Handbook as a guide for the FRM Exam, each chapter includes questions from previous FRM exams. The questions are selected to provide systematic coverage of advanced FRM topics. The answers to the questions are explained by comprehensive tutorials. The FRM examination is designed to test risk professionals on a combination of basic analytical skills, general knowledge, and intuitive capability acquired through experience in capital markets. Its focus is on the core body of knowledge required for independent risk management analysis and decision-making. The exam has been administered every autumn since 1997 and has now expanded to 43 international testing sites.

xxi

xxii

INTRODUCTION

The FRM exam is recognized at the world’s most prestigious global certiﬁcation program for risk management professionals. As of 2002, 3,265 risk management professionals have earned the FRM designation. They represent over 1,450 different companies, ﬁnancial institutions, regulatory bodies, brokerages, asset management ﬁrms, banks, exchanges, universities, and other ﬁrms from all over the world. GARP is very proud, through its alliance with John Wiley & Sons, to make this ﬂagship book available not only to FRM candidates, but to risk professionals, professors, and their students everywhere. Philippe Jorion, preeminent in his ﬁeld, has once again prepared and updated the Handbook so that it remains an essential reference for risk professionals. Any queries, comments or suggestions about the Handbook may be directed to frmhandbook噝garp.com. Corrections to this edition, if any, will be posted on GARP’s Web site. Whether preparing for the FRM examination, furthering your knowledge of risk management, or just wanting a comprehensive reference manual to refer to in a time of need, any ﬁnancial services professional will ﬁnd the FRM Handbook an indispensable asset. Global Association of Risk Professionals April 2003

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Financial Risk Manager

Handbook Second Edition

PART

one

Quantitative Analysis

Chapter 1 Bond Fundamentals Risk management starts with the pricing of assets. The simplest assets to study are ﬁxed-coupon bonds, for which cash ﬂows are predetermined. As a result, we can translate the stream of cash ﬂows into a present value by discounting at a ﬁxed yield. Thus the valuation of bonds involves understanding compounded interest, discounting, as well as the relationship between present values and interest rates. Risk management goes one step further than pricing, however. It examines potential changes in the value of assets as the interest rate changes. In this chapter, we assume that there is a single interest rate that is used to discount to all bonds. This will be our fundamental risk factor. Even for as simple an instrument as a bond, the relationship between the price and the risk factor can be complex. This is why the industry has developed a number of tools that summarize the risk proﬁle of ﬁxed-income portfolios. This chapter starts our coverage of quantitative analysis by discussing bond fundamentals. Section 1.1 reviews the concepts of discounting, present values, and future values. Section 1.2 then plunges into the price-yield relationship. It shows how the Taylor expansion rule can be used to measure price movements. These concepts are presented ﬁrst because they are so central to the measurement of ﬁnancial risk. The section then discusses the economic interpretation of duration and convexity.

1.1

Discounting, Present, and Future Value

An investor considers a zero-coupon bond that pays $100 in 10 years. Say that the investment is guaranteed by the U.S. government and has no default risk. Because the payment occurs at a future date, the investment is surely less valuable than an up-front payment of $100. To value the payment, we need a discounting factor. This is also the interest rate, or more simply the yield. Deﬁne Ct as the cash ﬂow at time t ⳱ T and the discounting

3

4

PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

factor as y . Here, T is the number of periods until maturity, e.g. number of years, also known as tenor. The present value (P V ) of the bond can be computed as PV ⳱

CT (1 Ⳮ y )T

(1.1)

For instance, a payment of CT ⳱ $100 in 10 years discounted at 6 percent is only worth $55.84. This explains why the market value of zero-coupon bonds decreases with longer maturities. Also, keeping T ﬁxed, the value of the bond decreases as the yield increases. Conversely, we can compute the future value of the bond as FV ⳱ P V ⫻ (1 Ⳮ y )T

(1.2)

For instance, an investment now worth P V ⳱ $100 growing at 6 percent will have a future value of F V ⳱ $179.08 in 10 years. Here, the yield has a useful interpretation, which is that of an internal rate of return on the bond, or annual growth rate. It is easier to deal with rates of returns than with dollar values. Rates of return, when expressed in percentage terms and on an annual basis, are directly comparable across assets. An annualized yield is sometimes deﬁned as the effective annual rate (EAR). It is important to note that the interest rate should be stated along with the method used for compounding. Equation (1.1) uses annual compounding, which is frequently the norm. Other conventions exist, however. For instance, the U.S. Treasury market uses semiannual compounding. If so, the interest rate y S is derived from PV ⳱

CT (1 Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2T

(1.3)

where T is the number of periods, or semesters in this case. Continuous compounding is often used when modeling derivatives. If so, the interest rate y C is derived from P V ⳱ CT ⫻ e ⫺ y

CT

(1.4)

where e(⭈) , sometimes noted as exp(⭈), represents the exponential function. These are merely deﬁnitions and are all consistent with the same initial and ﬁnal values. One has to be careful, however, about using each in the appropriate formula.

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CHAPTER 1.

BOND FUNDAMENTALS

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Example: Using different discounting methods Consider a bond that pays $100 in 10 years and has a present value of $55.8395. This corresponds to an annually compounded rate of 6.00% using P V ⳱ CT 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )10 , or (1 Ⳮ y ) ⳱ CT 冫 P V 1冫 10 . This rate can be easily transformed into a semiannual compounded rate, using (1Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ), or y S ⳱ ((1 Ⳮ 0.06)(1冫 2) ⫺ 1) ⫻ 2 ⳱ 0.0591. It can be also transformed into a continuously compounded rate, using exp(y C ) ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ), or y C ⳱ ln(1 Ⳮ 0.06) ⳱ 0.0583. Note that as we increase the frequency of the compounding, the resulting rate decreases. Intuitively, because our money works harder with more frequent compounding, a lower investment rate will achieve the same payoff.

Key concept: For ﬁxed present and ﬁnal values, increasing the frequency of the compounding will decrease the associated yield.

Example 1-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 17/Quant. Analysis 1-1. Assume a semiannual compounded rate of 8% per annum. What is the equivalent annually compounded rate? a) 9.20% b) 8.16% c) 7.45% d) 8.00%

Example 1-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 28/Quant. Analysis 1-2. Assume a continuously compounded interest rate is 10% per annum. The equivalent semiannual compounded rate is a) 10.25% per annum b) 9.88% per annum c) 9.76% per annum d) 10.52% per annum

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

1.2

Price-Yield Relationship

1.2.1

Valuation

The fundamental discounting relationship from Equation (1.1) can be extended to any bond with a ﬁxed cash-ﬂow pattern. We can write the present value of a bond P as the discounted value of future cash ﬂows: T

P⳱

C

冱 (1 Ⳮty )t

(1.5)

t ⳱1

where: Ct ⳱ the cash ﬂow (coupon or principal) in period t

AM FL Y

t ⳱ the number of periods (e.g. half-years) to each payment T ⳱ the number of periods to ﬁnal maturity y ⳱ the discounting factor

A typical cash-ﬂow pattern consists of a regular coupon payment plus the repayment of the principal, or face value at expiration. Deﬁne c as the coupon rate and

TE

F as the face value. We have Ct ⳱ cF prior to expiration, and at expiration, we have CT ⳱ cF Ⳮ F . The appendix reviews useful formulas that provide closed-form solutions for such bonds.

When the coupon rate c precisely matches the yield y , using the same compounding frequency, the present value of the bond must be equal to the face value. The bond is said to be a par bond. Equation (1.5) describes the relationship between the yield y and the value of the bond P , given its cash-ﬂow characteristics. In other words, the value P can also be written as a nonlinear function of the yield y : P ⳱ f (y )

(1.6)

Conversely, we can deﬁne P as the current market price of the bond, including any accrued interest. From this, we can compute the “implied” yield that will solve Equation (1.6). There is a particularly simple relationship for consols, or perpetual bonds, which are bonds making regular coupon payments but with no redemption date. For a

Team-Fly® Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

CHAPTER 1.

BOND FUNDAMENTALS

7

consol, the maturity is inﬁnite and the cash ﬂows are all equal to a ﬁxed percentage of the face value, Ct ⳱ C ⳱ cF . As a result, the price can be simpliﬁed from Equation (1.5) to P ⳱ cF

冋

册

c 1 1 1 Ⳮ Ⳮ Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ ⳱ F y (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )2 (1 Ⳮ y )3

(1.7)

as shown in the appendix. In this case, the price is simply proportional to the inverse of the yield. Higher yields lead to lower bond prices, and vice versa.

Example: Valuing a bond Consider a bond that pays $100 in 10 years and a 6% annual coupon. Assume that the next coupon payment is in exactly one year. What is the market value if the yield is 6%? If it falls to 5%? The bond cash ﬂows are C1 ⳱ $6, C2 ⳱ $6, . . . , C10 ⳱ $106. Using Equation (1.5) and discounting at 6%, this gives the present value of cash ﬂows of $5.66, $10.68, . . ., $59.19, for a total of $100.00. The bond is selling at par. This is logical because the coupon is equal to the yield, which is also annually compounded. Alternatively, discounting at 5% leads to a price appreciation to $107.72.

Example 1-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 12/Quant. Analysis 1-3. A ﬁxed-rate bond, currently priced at 102.9, has one year remaining to maturity and is paying an 8% coupon. Assuming the coupon is paid semiannually, what is the yield of the bond? a) 8% b) 7% c) 6% d) 5%

1.2.2

Taylor Expansion

Let us say that we want to see what happens to the price if the yield changes from its initial value, called y0 , to a new value, y1 ⳱ y0 Ⳮ ⌬y . Risk management is all about assessing the effect of changes in risk factors such as yields on asset values. Are there shortcuts to help us with this?

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS We could recompute the new value of the bond as P1 ⳱ f (y1 ). If the change is not

too large, however, we can apply a very useful shortcut. The nonlinear relationship can be approximated by a Taylor expansion around its initial value1 1 P1 ⳱ P0 Ⳮ f ⬘(y0 )⌬y Ⳮ f ⬘⬘(y0 )(⌬y )2 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ 2 where f ⬘(⭈) ⳱

dP dy

is the ﬁrst derivative and f ⬘⬘(⭈) ⳱

d2P dy 2

(1.8)

is the second derivative of the

function f (⭈) valued at the starting point.2 This expansion can be generalized to situations where the function depends on two or more variables. Equation (1.8) represents an inﬁnite expansion with increasing powers of ⌬y . Only the ﬁrst two terms (linear and quadratic) are ever used by ﬁnance practitioners. This is because they provide a good approximation to changes in prices relative to other assumptions we have to make about pricing assets. If the increment is very small, even the quadratic term will be negligible. Equation (1.8) is fundamental for risk management. It is used, sometimes in different guises, across a variety of ﬁnancial markets. We will see later that this Taylor expansion is also used to approximate the movement in the value of a derivatives contract, such as an option on a stock. In this case, Equation (1.8) is 1 ⌬P ⳱ f ⬘(S )⌬S Ⳮ f ⬘⬘(S )(⌬S )2 Ⳮ . . . 2

(1.9)

where S is now the price of the underlying asset, such as the stock. Here, the ﬁrst derivative f ⬘(S ) is called delta, and the second f ⬘⬘(S ), gamma. The Taylor expansion allows easy aggregation across ﬁnancial instruments. If we have xi units (numbers) of bond i and a total of N different bonds in the portfolio, the portfolio derivatives are given by f ⬘(y ) ⳱

N

冱 xi fi⬘(y )

(1.10)

i ⳱1

We will illustrate this point later for a 3-bond portfolio. 1

This is named after the English mathematician Brook Taylor (1685–1731), who published this result in 1715. The full recognition of the importance of this result only came in 1755 when Euler applied it to differential calculus. 2 This ﬁrst assumes that the function can be written in polynomial form as P (y Ⳮ ⌬y ) ⳱ a0 Ⳮ a1 ⌬y Ⳮ a2 (⌬y )2 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈, with unknown coefﬁcients a0 , a1 , a2 . To solve for the ﬁrst, we set ⌬y ⳱ 0. This gives a0 ⳱ P0 . Next, we take the derivative of both sides and set ⌬y ⳱ 0. This gives a1 ⳱ f ⬘(y0 ). The next step gives 2a2 ⳱ f ⬘⬘(y0 ). Note that these are the conventional mathematical derivatives and have nothing to do with derivatives products such as options.

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Bond Price Derivatives

For ﬁxed-income instruments, the derivatives are so important that they have been given a special name.3 The negative of the ﬁrst derivative is the dollar duration (DD): f ⬘(y0 ) ⳱

dP ⳱ ⫺D ⴱ ⫻ P0 dy

(1.11)

where D ⴱ is called the modiﬁed duration. Thus, dollar duration is DD ⳱ D ⴱ ⫻ P0

(1.12)

where the price P0 represent the market price, including any accrued interest. Sometimes, risk is measured as the dollar value of a basis point (DVBP), DVBP ⳱ [D ⴱ ⫻ P0 ] ⫻ 0.0001

(1.13)

with 0.0001 representing one hundredth of a percent. The DVBP, sometimes called the DV01, measures can be more easily added up across the portfolio. The second derivative is the dollar convexity (DC): f ⬘⬘(y0 ) ⳱

d2P ⳱ C ⫻ P0 dy 2

(1.14)

where C is called the convexity. For ﬁxed-income instruments with known cash ﬂows, the price-yield function is known, and we can compute analytical ﬁrst and second derivatives. Consider, for example, our simple zero-coupon bond in Equation (1.1) where the only payment is the face value, CT ⳱ F . We take the ﬁrst derivative, which is dP F T P ⳱ (⫺ T ) ⳱⫺ 1 Ⳮ T dy (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )

(1.15)

Comparing with Equation (1.11), we see that the modiﬁed duration must be given by D ⴱ ⳱ T 冫 (1 Ⳮ y ). The conventional measure of duration is D ⳱ T , which does not 3 Note that this chapter does not present duration in the traditional textbook order. In line with the advanced focus on risk management, we ﬁrst analyze the properties of duration as a sensitivity measure. This applies to any type of ﬁxed-income instrument. Later, we will illustrate the usual deﬁnition of duration as a weighted average maturity, which applies for ﬁxed-coupon bonds only.

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include division by (1 Ⳮ y ) in the denominator. This is also called Macaulay duration. Note that duration is expressed in periods, like T . With annual compounding, duration is in years. With semiannual compounding, duration is in semesters and has to be divided by two for conversion to years. Modiﬁed duration is the appropriate measure of interest-rate exposure. The quantity (1 Ⳮ y ) appears in the denominator because we took the derivative of the present value term with discrete compounding. If we use continuous compounding, modiﬁed duration is identical to the conventional duration measure. In practice, the difference between Macaulay and modiﬁed duration is often small. With a 6% yield and semiannual compounding, for instance, the adjustment is only a factor of 3%. Let us now go back to Equation (1.15) and consider the second derivative, which is d2P F (T Ⳮ 1)T ⫻P ⳱ ⫺(T Ⳮ 1)(⫺T ) ⳱ T Ⳮ 2 2 dy (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )2

(1.16)

Comparing with Equation (1.14), we see that the convexity is C ⳱ (T Ⳮ 1)T 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )2 . Note that its dimension is expressed in period squared. With semiannual compounding, convexity is measured in semesters squared and has to be divided by four for conversion to years squared.4 Putting together all these equations, we get the Taylor expansion for the change in the price of a bond, which is 1 ⌬P ⳱ ⫺[D ⴱ ⫻ P ](⌬y ) Ⳮ [C ⫻ P ](⌬y )2 . . . 2

(1.17)

Therefore duration measures the ﬁrst-order (linear) effect of changes in yield and convexity the second-order (quadratic) term.

Example: Computing the price approximation Consider a 10-year zero-coupon bond with a yield of 6 percent and present value of $55.368. This is obtained as P ⳱ 100冫 (1 Ⳮ 6冫 200)20 ⳱ 55.368. As is the practice in the Treasury market, yields are semiannually compounded. Thus all computations should be carried out using semesters, after which ﬁnal results can be converted into annual units. 4

This is because the conversion to annual terms is obtained by multiplying the semiannual yield ⌬y by two. As a result, the duration term must be divided by 2 and the convexity term by 22 , or 4, for conversion to annual units.

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Here, Macaulay duration is exactly 10 years, as D ⳱ T for a zero-coupon bond. Its modiﬁed duration is D ⴱ ⳱ 20冫 (1 Ⳮ 6冫 200) ⳱ 19.42 semesters, which is 9.71 years. Its convexity is C ⳱ 21 ⫻ 20冫 (1 Ⳮ 6冫 200)2 ⳱ 395.89 semesters squared, which is 98.97 in years squared. Dollar duration is DD ⳱ D ⴱ ⫻ P ⳱ 9.71 ⫻ $55.37 ⳱ $537.55. The DVBP is DVBP ⳱ DD ⫻ 0.0001 ⳱ $0.0538. We want to approximate the change in the value of the bond if the yield goes to 7%. Using Equation (1.17), we have ⌬P ⳱ ⫺[9.71⫻$55.37](0.01)Ⳮ0.5[98.97⫻$55.37](0.01)2 ⳱ ⫺$5.375 Ⳮ $0.274 ⳱ ⫺$5.101. Using the ﬁrst term only, the new price is $55.368 ⫺ $5.375 ⳱ $49.992. Using the two terms in the expansion, the predicted price is slightly different, at $55.368 ⫺ $5.101 ⳱ $50.266. These numbers can be compared with the exact value, which is $50.257. Thus the linear approximation has a pricing error of ⫺0.53%, which is not bad given the large change in yield. Adding the second term reduces this to an error of 0.02% only, which is minuscule given typical bid-ask spreads. More generally, Figure 1-1 compares the quality of the Taylor series approximation. We consider a 10-year bond paying a 6 percent coupon semiannually. Initially, the yield is also at 6 percent and, as a result the price of the bond is at par, at $100. The graph compares, for various values of the yield y : 1. The actual, exact price

P ⳱ f (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y )

2. The duration estimate

P ⳱ P0 ⫺ D ⴱ P0 ⌬y

3. The duration and convexity estimate

P ⳱ P0 ⫺ D ⴱ P0 ⌬y Ⳮ (1冫 2)CP0 (⌬y )2

FIGURE 1-1 Price Approximation 150

Bond price

10-year, 6% coupon bond

Actual price

100

50

Duration+ convexity estimate Duration estimate 0

2

4

6

8 Yield

10

12

14

16

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS The actual price curve shows an increase in the bond price if the yield falls and,

conversely, a depreciation if the yield increases. This effect is captured by the tangent to the true price curve, which represents the linear approximation based on duration. For small movements in the yield, this linear approximation provides a reasonable ﬁt to the exact price. Key concept: Dollar duration measures the (negative) slope of the tangent to the price-yield curve at the starting point. For large movements in price, however, the price-yield function becomes more curved and the linear ﬁt deteriorates. Under these conditions, the quadratic approximation is noticeably better. We should also note that the curvature is away from the origin, which explains the term convexity (as opposed to concavity). Figure 1-2 compares curves with different values for convexity. This curvature is beneﬁcial since the second-order effect 0.5[C ⫻ P ](⌬y )2 must be positive when convexity is positive. FIGURE 1-2 Effect of Convexity Bond price

Lower convexity Higher convexity Value increases more than duration model

Value drops less than duration model Yield

As Figure 1-2 shows, when the yield rises, the price drops but less than predicted by the tangent. Conversely, if the yield falls, the price increases faster than the duration model. In other words, the quadratic term is always beneﬁcial.

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Key concept: Convexity is always positive for coupon-paying bonds. Greater convexity is beneﬁcial both for falling and rising yields. The bond’s modiﬁed duration and convexity can also be computed directly from numerical derivatives. Duration and convexity cannot be computed directly for some bonds, such as mortgage-backed securities, because their cash ﬂows are uncertain. Instead, the portfolio manager has access to pricing models that can be used to reprice the securities under various yield environments. We choose a change in the yield, ⌬y , and reprice the bond under an upmove scenario, PⳭ ⳱ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ), and downmove scenario, P⫺ ⳱ P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ). Effective duration is measured by the numerical derivative. Using D ⴱ ⳱ ⫺(1冫 P )dP 冫 dy , it is estimated as DE ⳱

P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ) ⫺ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ) [P⫺ ⫺ PⳭ] ⳱ (2P0 ⌬y ) (2⌬y )P0

Using C ⳱ (1冫 P )d 2 P 冫 dy 2 , effective convexity is estimated as C E ⳱ [D⫺ ⫺ DⳭ]冫 ⌬y ⳱

冋

(1.18)

册

P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ) ⫺ P0 P ⫺ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ) ⫺ 0 冫 ⌬y (P0 ⌬y ) (P0 ⌬y )

(1.19)

These computations are illustrated in Table 1-1 and in Figure 1-3. TABLE 1-1 Effective Duration and Convexity State Initial y0 Up y0 Ⳮ ⌬y Down y0 ⫺ ⌬y Difference in values Difference in yields Effective measure Exact measure

Yield (%) 6.00 7.00 5.00

Bond Value 16.9733 12.6934 22.7284

Duration Computation

Convexity Computation

⫺10.0349 0.02 29.56 29.13

Duration up: 25.22 Duration down: 33.91 8.69 0.01 869.11 862.48

As a benchmark case, consider a 30-year zero-coupon bond with a yield of 6 percent. With semiannual compounding, the initial price is $16.9733. We then revalue the bond at 5 percent and 7 percent. The effective duration in Equation (1.18) uses the two extreme points. The effective convexity in Equation (1.19) uses the difference between the dollar durations for the upmove and downmove. Note that convexity is positive if duration increases as yields fall, or if D⫺ ⬎ DⳭ. The computations are detailed in Table 1-1, where the effective duration is measured at 29.56. This is very close to the true value of 29.13, and would be even closer if the step ⌬y was smaller. Similarly, the effective convexity is 869.11, which is close

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

FIGURE 1-3 Effective Duration and Convexity

30-year, zero-coupon bond

Price

P–

±(D–*P)

P0

±(D+*P)

P+ y0±Dy

y0

y0+Dy

Yield to the true value of 862.48. In general, however, effective duration is a by-product of the pricing model. Inaccuracies in the model will distort the duration estimate. Finally, this numerical approach can be applied to get an estimate of the duration of a bond by considering bonds with the same maturity but different coupons. If interest rates decrease by 100 basis points (bp), the market price of a 6% 30-year bond should go up, close to that of a 7% 30-year bond. Thus we replace a drop in yield of ⌬y by an increase in coupon ⌬c and use the effective duration method to ﬁnd the coupon curve duration D CC ⳱

[PⳭ ⫺ P⫺ ] P (y0 ; c Ⳮ ⌬c ) ⫺ P (y0 ; c ⫺ ⌬c ) ⳱ (2P0 ⌬c ) (2⌬c )P0

(1.20)

This approach is useful for securities that are difﬁcult to price under various yield scenarios. Instead, it only requires the market prices of securities with different coupons.

Example: Computation of coupon curve duration Consider a 10-year bond that pays a 7% coupon semiannually. In a 7% yield environment, the bond is selling at par and has modiﬁed duration of 7.11 years. The prices of 6% and 8% coupon bonds are $92.89 and $107.11, respectively. This gives a coupon curve duration of (107.11 ⫺ 92.89)冫 (0.02 ⫻ 100) ⳱ 7.11, which in this case is the same as modiﬁed duration.

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Example 1-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 9/Quant. Analysis 1-4. A number of terms in ﬁnance are related to the (calculus!) derivative of the price of a security with respect to some other variable. Which pair of terms is deﬁned using second derivatives? a) Modiﬁed duration and volatility b) Vega and delta c) Convexity and gamma d) PV01 and yield to maturity Example 1-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 17/Quant. Analysis 1-5. A bond is trading at a price of 100 with a yield of 8%. If the yield increases by 1 basis point, the price of the bond will decrease to 99.95. If the yield decreases by 1 basis point, the price of the bond will increase to 100.04. What is the modiﬁed duration of the bond? a) 5.0 b) 5.0 c) 4.5 d) ⫺4.5 Example 1-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Quant. Analysis 1-6. What is the price impact of a 10-basis-point increase in yield on a 10-year par bond with a modiﬁed duration of 7 and convexity of 50? a) ⫺0.705 b) ⫺0.700 c) ⫺0.698 d) ⫺0.690 Example 1-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 20/Quant. Analysis 1-7. Coupon curve duration is a useful method to estimate duration from market prices of a mortgage-backed security (MBS). Assume the coupon curve of prices for Ginnie Maes in June 2001 is as follows: 6% at 92, 7% at 94, and 8% at 96.5. What is the estimated duration of the 7s? a) 2.45 b) 2.40 c) 2.33 d) 2.25

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Example 1-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 21/Quant. Analysis 1-8. Coupon curve duration is a useful method to estimate convexity from market prices of an MBS. Assume the coupon curve of prices for Ginnie Maes in June 2001 is as follows: 6% at 92, 7% at 94, and 8% at 96.5. What is the estimated convexity of the 7s? a) 53 b) 26 c) 13 d) ⫺53

1.2.4

Interpreting Duration and Convexity

The preceding section has shown how to compute analytical formulas for duration

AM FL Y

and convexity in the case of a simple zero-coupon bond. We can use the same approach for coupon-paying bonds. Going back to Equation (1.5), we have T T dP tCt D ⫺tCt [ ]冫 P ⫻ P ⳱ ⫺ ⫺ P ⳱ ⳱ t t Ⳮ 1 Ⳮ 1 (1 Ⳮ y ) dy (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) t ⳱1 t ⳱1

冱

冱

TE

which deﬁnes duration as

D⳱

T

tC

冱 (1 Ⳮ ty )t 冫 P

(1.21)

(1.22)

t ⳱1

The economic interpretation of duration is that it represents the average time to wait for each payment, weighted by the present value of the associated cash ﬂow. Indeed, we can write T

D⳱

冱

t ⳱1

t

T Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t ⳱ t ⫻ wt 冱 Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t t ⳱1

冱

(1.23)

where the weights w represent the ratio of the present value of cash ﬂow Ct relative to the total, and sum to unity. This explains why the duration of a zero-coupon bond is equal to the maturity. There is only one cash ﬂow, and its weight is one. Figure 1-4 lays out the present value of the cash ﬂows of a 6% coupon, 10-year bond. Given a duration of 7.80 years, this coupon-paying bond is equivalent to a zerocoupon bond maturing in exactly 7.80 years.

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FIGURE 1-4 Duration as the Maturity of a Zero-Coupon Bond

100

Present value of payments

90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 0

1

2

3 4 5 6 7 8 Time to payment (years)

9

10

For coupon-paying bonds, duration lies between zero and the maturity of the bond. For instance, Figure 1-5 shows how the duration of a 10-year bond varies with its coupon. With a zero coupon, Macaulay duration is equal to maturity. Higher coupons place more weight on prior payments and therefore reduce duration. FIGURE 1-5 Duration and Coupon

10

Duration

9 8

10-year maturity

7 6 5

5-year maturity

4 3 2 1 0 0

2

4

6

8

10 12 Coupon

14

16

18

20

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS Duration can be expressed in a simple form for consols. From Equation (1.7), we

have P ⳱ (c 冫 y )F . Taking the derivative, we ﬁnd dP DC (⫺1) 1 c 1 P ⳱ cF 2 ⳱ (⫺1) [ F ] ⳱ (⫺1) P ⳱ ⫺ dy y y y (1 Ⳮ y ) y

(1.24)

Hence the Macaulay duration for the consol DC is DC ⳱

(1 Ⳮ y ) y

(1.25)

This shows that the duration of a consol is ﬁnite even if its maturity is inﬁnite. Also, it does not depend on the coupon. This formula provides a useful rule of thumb. For a long-term coupon-paying bond, duration must be lower than (1 Ⳮ y )冫 y . For instance, when y ⳱ 6%, the upper limit on duration is DC ⳱ 1.06冫 0.06, or approximately 17.5 years. In this environment, the duration of a par 30-year bond is 14.25, which is indeed lower than 17.5 years. Key concept: The duration of a long-term bond can be approximated by an upper bound, which is that of a consol with the same yield, DC ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y )冫 y. Figure 1-6 describes the relationship between duration, maturity, and coupon for regular bonds in a 6% yield environment. For the zero-coupon bond, D ⳱ T , which is a straight line going through the origin. For the par 6% bond, duration increases monotonically with maturity until it reaches the asymptote of DC . The 8% bond has lower duration than the 6% bond for ﬁxed T . Greater coupons, for a ﬁxed maturity, decrease duration, as more of the payments come early. Finally, the 2% bond displays a pattern intermediate between the zero-coupon and 6% bonds. It initially behaves like the zero, exceeding DC initially then falling back to the asymptote, which is common for all coupon-paying bonds. Taking now the second derivative in Equation (1.5), we have T d2P t (t Ⳮ 1)Ct ⳱ ⳱ 2 dy (1 Ⳮ y )tⳭ2 t ⳱1

冱

T

t (t Ⳮ 1)C

冱 (1 Ⳮ y )tⳭ2t

t ⳱1

冫

P ⫻P

(1.26)

which deﬁnes convexity as T

C⳱

t (t Ⳮ 1)C

冱 (1 Ⳮ y )tⳭ2t

t ⳱1

冫

P

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FIGURE 1-6 Duration and Maturity Duration (years) Zero coupon (1+y) y 20

2% coupon 6%

15

8% coupon 10

5

0 0

20

40 60 Maturity (years)

80

100

Convexity can also be written as T

C⳱

T t (t Ⳮ 1) Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t t (t Ⳮ 1) ⳱ ⫻ ⫻ wt t 2 冱 Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )2 t ⳱1 t ⳱1

冱

冱

(1.28)

which basically involves a weighted average of the square of time. Therefore, convexity is much greater for long-maturity bonds because they have payoffs associated with large values of t . The formula also shows that convexity is always positive for such bonds, implying that the curvature effect is beneﬁcial. As we will see later, convexity can be negative for bonds that have uncertain cash ﬂows, such as mortgage-backed securities (MBSs) or callable bonds. Figure 1-7 displays the behavior of convexity, comparing a zero-coupon bond with a 6 percent coupon bond with identical maturities. The zero-coupon bond always has greater convexity, because there is only one cash ﬂow at maturity. Its convexity is roughly the square of maturity, for example about 900 for the 30-year zero. In contrast, the 30-year coupon bond has a convexity of about 300 only. As an illustration, Table 1-2 details the steps of the computation of duration and convexity for a two-year, 6 percent semiannual coupon-paying bond. We ﬁrst convert

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

FIGURE 1-7 Convexity and Maturity

Convexity (year-squared) 1000 900 800 700 600 500 400

Zero coupon

300 200

6% coupon

100 0 0

5

10

15 20 Maturity (years)

25

30

TABLE 1-2 Computing Duration and Convexity Period (half-year) t 1 2 3 4 Sum: (half-years) (years) Modiﬁed duration Convexity

Payment Ct 3 3 3 103

Yield (%) (6 mo) 3.00 3.00 3.00 3.00

P V of Payment Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t 2.913 2.828 2.745 91.514 100.00

Duration Term tP Vt 2.913 5.656 8.236 366.057 382.861 3.83 1.91 1.86

Convexity Term t (t Ⳮ 1)P Vt 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )2 5.491 15.993 31.054 1725.218 1777.755 17.78

4.44

the annual coupon and yield into semiannual equivalent, $3 and 3 percent each. The P V column then reports the present value of each cash ﬂow. We verify that these add up to $100, since the bond must be selling at par. Next, the duration term column multiplies each P V term by time, or more precisely the number of half years until payment. This adds up to $382.86, which divided

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by the price gives D ⳱ 3.83. This number is measured in half years, and we need to divide by two to convert to years. Macaulay duration is 1.91 years, and modiﬁed duration D ⴱ ⳱ 1.91冫 1.03 ⳱ 1.86 years. Note that, to be consistent, the adjustment in the denominator involves the semiannual yield of 3%. Finally, the right-most column shows how to compute the bond’s convexity. Each term involves P Vt times t (t Ⳮ 1)冫 (1 Ⳮ y )2 . These terms sum to 1,777.755, or divided by the price, 17.78. This number is expressed in units of time squared and must be divided by 4 to be converted in annual terms. We ﬁnd a convexity of C ⳱ 4.44, in year-squared. Example 1-9: FRM Exam 2001----Question 71 1-9. Calculate the modiﬁed duration of a bond with a Macauley duration of 13.083 years. Assume market interest rates are 11.5% and the coupon on the bond is paid semiannually. a) 13.083 b) 12.732 c) 12.459 d) 12.371 Example 1-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 66 1-10. Calculate the duration of a two-year bond paying a annual coupon of 6% with yield to maturity of 8%. Assume par value of the bond to be $1,000. a) 2.00 years b) 1.94 years c) 1.87 years d) 1.76 years Example 1-11: FRM Exam 1998----Question 29/Quant. Analysis 1-11. A and B are two perpetual bonds, that is, their maturities are inﬁnite. A has a coupon of 4% and B has a coupon of 8%. Assuming that both are trading at the same yield, what can be said about the duration of these bonds? a) The duration of A is greater than the duration of B. b) The duration of A is less than the duration of B. c) A and B both have the same duration. d) None of the above.

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Example 1-12: FRM Exam 1997----Question 24/Market Risk 1-12. Which of the following is not a property of bond duration? a) For zero-coupon bonds, Macaulay duration of the bond equals its years to maturity. b) Duration is usually inversely related to the coupon of a bond. c) Duration is usually higher for higher yields to maturity. d) Duration is higher as the number of years to maturity for a bond. selling at par or above increases.

Example 1-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 75/Market Risk 1-13. Suppose that your book has an unusually large short position in two investment grade bonds with similar credit risk. Bond A is priced at par yielding 6.0% with 20 years to maturity. Bond B also matures in 20 years with a coupon of 6.5% and yield of 6%. If risk is deﬁned as a sudden and large drop in interest rate, which bond contributes greater market risk to the portfolio? a) Bond A. b) Bond B. c) Both bond A and bond B will have similar market risk. d) None of the above.

Example 1-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 106/Quant. Analysis 1-14. Consider these ﬁve bonds: Bond Number Maturity (yrs) Coupon Rate Frequency Yield (ABB) 1 10 6% 1 6% 2 10 6% 2 6% 3 10 0% 1 6% 4 10 6% 1 5% 5 9 6% 1 6% How would you rank the bonds from the shortest to longest duration? a) 5-2-1-4-3 b) 1-2-3-4-5 c) 5-4-3-1-2 d) 2-4-5-1-3

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Example 1-15: FRM Exam 2001----Question 104 1-15. When the maturity of a plain coupon bond increases, its duration increases a) Indeﬁnitely and regularly b) Up to a certain level c) Indeﬁnitely and progressively d) In a way dependent on the bond being priced above or below par

1.2.5

Portfolio Duration and Convexity

Fixed-income portfolios often involve very large numbers of securities. It would be impractical to consider the movements of each security individually. Instead, portfolio managers aggregate the duration and convexity across the portfolio. A manager with a view that rates will increase, for instance, should shorten the portfolio duration relative to that of the benchmark. Say for instance that the benchmark has a duration of 5 years. The manager shortens the portfolio duration to 1 year only. If rates increase by 2 percent, the benchmark will lose approximately 5 ⫻ 2% ⳱ 10%. The portfolio, however, will only lose 1 ⫻ 2% ⳱ 2%, hence “beating” the benchmark by 8%. Because the Taylor expansion involves a summation, the portfolio duration is easily obtained from the individual components. Say we have N components indexed by i . Deﬁning Dp and Pp as the portfolio modiﬁed duration and value, the portfolio dollar duration (DD) is Dpⴱ Pp ⳱

N

冱 Diⴱ xi Pi

(1.29)

i ⳱1

where xi is the number of units of bond i in the portfolio. A similar relationship holds for the portfolio dollar convexity (DC). If yields are the same for all components, this equation also holds for the Macaulay duration. Because the portfolio total market value is simply the summation of the component market values,

N

Pp ⳱

冱 xi Pi

(1.30)

i ⳱1

we can deﬁne the portfolio weight wi as wi ⳱ xi Pi 冫 Pp , provided that the portfolio market value is nonzero. We can then write the portfolio duration as a weighted average of individual durations

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Dpⴱ ⳱

N

冱 Diⴱ wi

(1.31)

i ⳱1

Similarly, the portfolio convexity is a weighted average of individual convexity numbers N

Cp ⳱

冱 Ci wi

(1.32)

i ⳱1

As an example, consider a portfolio invested in three bonds, described in Table 1-3. The portfolio is long a 10-year and 1-year bond, and short a 30-year zero-coupon bond. Its market value is $1,301,600. Summing the duration for each component, the portfolio dollar duration is $2,953,800, which translates into 2.27 years. The portfolio convexity is ⫺76,918,323/1,301,600=⫺59.10, which is negative due to the short position in the 30-year zero, which has very high convexity. Alternatively, assume the portfolio manager is given a benchmark that is the ﬁrst bond. He or she wants to invest in bonds 1 and 2, keeping the portfolio duration equal to that of the target, or 7.44 years. To achieve the target value and dollar duration, the manager needs to solve a system of two equations in the amounts x1 and x2 :

Value: $100 ⳱x1 $94.26 Ⳮ

x2 $16.97

Dol. Duration: 7.44 ⫻ $100 ⳱ 0.97 ⫻ x1 $94.26 Ⳮ 29.13 ⫻

x2 $16.97

TABLE 1-3 Portfolio Duration and Convexity Maturity (years) Coupon Yield Price Pi Mod. duration Diⴱ Convexity Ci Number of bonds xi Dollar amounts xi Pi Weight wi Dollar duration Diⴱ Pi Portfolio DD: xi Diⴱ Pi Portfolio DC: xi Ci Pi

Bond 0 10 6% 6% $100.00 7.44 68.78 10,000 $1,000,000 76.83% $744.00 $7,440,000 68,780,000

Bond 1 1 0% 6% $94.26 0.97 1.41 5,000 $471,300 36.21% $91.43 $457,161 664,533

Bond 2 30 0% 6% $16.97 29.13 862.48 ⫺10,000 ⫺$169,700 ⫺13.04% $494.34 ⫺$4,943,361 ⫺146,362,856

Portfolio

$1,301,600 100.00% $2,953,800 ⫺76,918,323

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25

The solution is x1 ⳱ 0.817 and x2 ⳱ 1.354, which gives a portfolio value of $100 and modiﬁed duration of 7.44 years.5 The portfolio convexity is 199.25, higher than the index. Such a portfolio consisting of very short and very long maturities is called a barbell portfolio. In contrast, a portfolio with maturities in the same range is called a bullet portfolio. Note that the barbell portfolio has much greater convexity than the bullet bond because of the payment in 30 years. Such a portfolio would be expected to outperform the bullet portfolio if yields move by a large amount. In sum, duration and convexity are key measures of ﬁxed-income portfolios. They summarize the linear and quadratic exposure to movements in yields. As such, they are routinely used by portfolio managers. Example 1-16: FRM Exam 1998----Question 18/Quant. Analysis 1-16. A portfolio consists of two positions: One position is long $100,000 par value of a two-year bond priced at 101 with a duration of 1.7; the other position is short $50,000 of a ﬁve-year bond priced at 99 with a duration of 4.1. What is the duration of the portfolio? a) 0.68 b) 0.61 c) ⫺0.68 d) ⫺0.61 Example 1-17: FRM Exam 2000----Question 110/Quant. Analysis 1-17. Which of the following statements are true? I. The convexity of a 10-year zero-coupon bond is higher than the convexity of a 10-year, 6% bond. II. The convexity of a 10-year zero-coupon bond is higher than the convexity of a 6% bond with a duration of 10 years. III. Convexity grows proportionately with the maturity of the bond. IV. Convexity is always positive for all types of bonds. V. Convexity is always positive for “straight” bonds. a) I only b) I and II only c) I and V only d) II, III, and V only

5

This can be obtained by ﬁrst expressing x2 in the ﬁrst equation as a function of x1 and then substituting back into the second equation. This gives x2 ⳱ (100 ⫺ 94.26x1 )冫 16.97, and 744 ⳱ 91.43x1Ⳮ494.34x2 ⳱ 91.43x1Ⳮ494.34(100 ⫺ 94.26x1 )冫 16.97 ⳱ 91.43x1Ⳮ2913.00 ⫺ 2745.79x1 . Solving, we ﬁnd x1 ⳱ (⫺2169.00)冫 (⫺2654.36) ⳱ 0.817 and x2 ⳱ (100 ⫺ 94.26 ⫻ 0.817)冫 16.97 ⳱ 1.354.

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1.3

PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 1-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 17/Quant. Analysis b) This is derived from (1 Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ), or (1 Ⳮ 0.08冫 2)2 ⳱ 1.0816, which gives 8.16%. This makes sense because the annual rate must be higher due to the less frequent compounding. Example 1-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 28/Quant. Analysis a) This is derived from (1 Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2 ⳱ exp(y ), or (1 Ⳮ y S 冫 2)2 ⳱ 1.105, which gives 10.25%. This makes sense because the semiannual rate must be higher due to the less frequent compounding. Example 1-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 12/Quant. Analysis

AM FL Y

d) We need to ﬁnd y such that $4冫 (1 Ⳮ y 冫 2) Ⳮ $104冫 (1 Ⳮ y 冫 2)2 ⳱ $102.9. Solving, we ﬁnd y ⳱ 5%. (This can be computed on a HP-12C calculator, for example.) There is another method for ﬁnding y . This bond has a duration of about one year, implying that, approximately, ⌬P ⳱ ⫺1 ⫻ $100 ⫻ ⌬y . If the yield was 8%, the price would be at $100. Instead, the change in price is ⌬P ⳱ $102.9 ⫺ $100 ⳱ $2.9. Solving for ⌬y , the

TE

change in yield must be approximately ⫺3%, leading to 8 ⫺ 3 ⳱ 5%. Example 1-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 9/Quant. Analysis c) First derivatives involve modiﬁed duration and delta. Second derivatives involve convexity (for bonds) and gamma (for options). Example 1-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 17/Quant. Analysis c) This question deals with effective duration, which is obtained from full repricing of the bond with an increase and a decrease in yield. This gives a modiﬁed duration of D ⴱ ⳱ ⫺(⌬P 冫 ⌬y )冫 P ⳱ ⫺((99.95 ⫺ 100.04)冫 0.0002)冫 100 ⳱ 4.5. Example 1-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Quant. Analysis c) Since this is a par bond, the initial price is P ⳱ $100. The price impact is ⌬P ⳱ ⫺D ⴱ P ⌬y Ⳮ(1冫 2)CP (⌬y )2 ⳱ ⫺7$100(0.001)Ⳮ(1冫 2)50$100(0.001)2 ⳱ ⫺0.70Ⳮ0.0025 ⳱ ⫺0.6975. The price falls slightly less than predicted by duration alone. Example 1-7: FRM Exam 1998-Question 20/Quant. Analysis b) The initial price of the 7s is 94. The price of the 6s is 92; this lower coupon is roughly equivalent to an upmove of ⌬y ⳱ 0.01. Similarly, the price of the 8s is 96.5; this higher coupon is roughly equivalent to a downmove of ⌬y ⳱ 0.01. The effective modiﬁed duration is then D E ⳱ (P⫺ ⫺ PⳭ)冫 (2⌬yP0 ) ⳱ (96.5 ⫺ 92)冫 (2 ⫻ 0.01 ⫻ 94) ⳱ 2.394.

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27

Example 1-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 21/Quant. Analysis a) We compute the modiﬁed duration for an equivalent downmove in y as D⫺ ⳱ (P⫺ ⫺ P0 )冫 (⌬yP0 ) ⳱ (96.5 ⫺ 94)冫 (0.01 ⫻ 94) ⳱ 2.6596. Similarly, the modiﬁed duration for an upmove is DⳭ ⳱ (P0 ⫺ PⳭ)冫 (⌬yP0 ) ⳱ (94 ⫺ 92)冫 (0.01 ⫻ 94) ⳱ 2.1277. Convexity is C E ⳱ (D⫺ ⫺ DⳭ)冫 (⌬y ) ⳱ (2.6596 ⫺ 2.1277)冫 0.01 ⳱ 53.19. This is positive because modiﬁed duration is higher for a downmove than for an upmove in yields. Example 1-9: FRM Exam 2001-Question 71 d) Modiﬁed duration is D ⴱ ⳱ D 冫 (1 Ⳮ y 冫 200) when yields are semiannually compounded. This gives D ⴱ ⳱ 13.083冫 (1 Ⳮ 11.5冫 200) ⳱ 12.3716. Example 1-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 66 b) Using an 8% annual discount factor, we compute the present value of cash ﬂows and duration as Year

Ct

PV

t PV

1

60

55.56

55.55

2

1,060

908.78

1,817.56

964.33

1,873.11

Sum

Duration is 1,873.11/964.33 = 1.942 years. Note that the par value is irrelevant for the computation of duration. Example 1-11: FRM Exam 1998----Question 29/Quant. Analysis c) Going back to the duration equation for the consol, Equation (1.25), we see that it does not depend on the coupon but only on the yield. Hence, the durations must be the same. The price of bond A, however, must be half that of bond B. Example 1-12: FRM Exam 1997----Question 24/Market Risk c) Duration usually increases as the time to maturity increases (Figure 1-4), so (d) is correct. Macaulay duration is also equal to maturity for zero-coupon bonds, so (a) is correct. Figure 1-5 shows that duration decreases with the coupon, so (b) is correct. As the yield increases, the weight of the payments further into the future decreases, which decreases (not increases) the duration. So, (c) is false. Example 1-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 75/Market Risk a) Bond B has a higher coupon and hence a slightly lower duration than for bond A. Therefore, it will react less strongly than bond A to a given change in yields.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Example 1-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 106/Quant. Analysis a) The nine-year bond (number 5) has shorter duration because the maturity is shortest, at nine years, among comparable bonds. Next, we have to decide between bonds 1 and 2, which only differ in the payment frequency. The semiannual bond (number 2) has a ﬁrst payment in six months and has shorter duration than the annual bond. Next, we have to decide between bonds 1 and 4, which only differ in the yield. With lower yield, the cash ﬂows further in the future have a higher weight, so that bond 4 has greater duration. Finally, the zero-coupon bond has the longest duration. So, the order is 5-2-1-4-3. Example 1-15: FRM Exam 2001----Question 104 b) With a ﬁxed coupon, the duration goes up to the level of a consol with the same coupon. See Figure 1-6. Example 1-16: FRM Exam 1998----Question 18/Quant. Analysis d) The dollar duration of the portfolio must equal the sum of the dollar durations for the individual positions, as in Equation (1.29). First, we need to compute the market value of the bonds by multiplying the notional by the ratio of the market price to the face value. This gives for the ﬁrst bond $100,000 (101/100) = $101,000 and for the second $50,000 (99/100) = $49,500. The value of the portfolio is P ⳱ $101, 000 ⫺ $49, 500 ⳱ $51, 500. Next, we compute the dollar duration as $101, 000 ⫻ 1.7 ⳱ $171, 700 and ⫺$49, 500 ⫻ 4.1 ⳱ ⫺$202, 950, respectively. The total dollar duration is ⫺$31, 250. Dividing by $51.500, we ﬁnd a duration of DD 冫 P ⳱ ⫺0.61 year. Note that duration is negative due to the short position. We also ignored the denominator (1 Ⳮ y ), which cancels out from the computation anyway if the yield is the same for the two bonds. Example 1-17: FRM Exam 2000----Question 110/Quant. Analysis c) Because convexity is proportional to the square of time to payment, the convexity of a bond will be driven by the cash ﬂows far into the future. Answer I is correct because the 10-year zero has only one cash ﬂow, whereas the coupon bond has several others that reduce convexity. Answer II is false because the 6% bond with 10-year duration must have cash ﬂows much further into the future, say in 30 years, which will create greater convexity. Answer III is false because convexity grows with the square of time. Answer IV is false because some bonds, for example MBSs or callable bonds, can have negative convexity. Answer V is correct because convexity must be positive for coupon-paying bonds.

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Appendix: Applications of Inﬁnite Series When bonds have ﬁxed coupons, the bond valuation problem often can be interpreted in terms of combinations of inﬁnite series. The most important inﬁnite series result is for a sum of terms that increase at a geometric rate: 1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ ⳱

1 1⫺a

(1.33)

This can be proved, for instance, by multiplying both sides by (1 ⫺ a) and canceling out terms. Equally important, consider a geometric series with a ﬁnite number of terms, say N . We can write this as the difference between two inﬁnite series: 1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ aN ⫺1 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈) ⫺ aN (1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈) (1.34) such that all terms with order N or higher will cancel each other. We can then write 1 Ⳮ a Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ aN ⫺1 ⳱

1 1 ⫺ aN 1⫺a 1⫺a

(1.35)

These formulas are essential to value bonds. Consider ﬁrst a consol with an inﬁnite number of coupon payments with a ﬁxed coupon rate c . If the yield is y and the face value F , the value of the bond is P ⳱ cF

冋

1 1 1 Ⳮ Ⳮ Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ 2 (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )3

⳱ cF

1 [1 Ⳮ a2 Ⳮ a3 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈] (1 Ⳮ y )

⳱ cF

1 1 (1 Ⳮ y ) 1 ⫺ a

⳱ cF

1 1 (1 Ⳮ y ) 1 ⫺ (1冫 (1 Ⳮ y ))

⳱ cF

1 (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) y

⳱

冋 冋 冋

册

册

册

册

c F y

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

30

PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS Similarly, we can value a bond with a ﬁnite number of coupons over T periods at

which time the principal is repaid. This is really a portfolio with three parts: (1) A long position in a consol with coupon rate c (2) A short position in a consol with coupon rate c that starts in T periods (3) A long position in a zero-coupon bond that pays F in T periods Note that the combination of (1) and (2) ensures that we have a ﬁnite number of coupons. Hence, the bond price should be P⳱

冋

册

1 1 1 1 c c c F⫺ FⳭ F ⳱ F 1⫺ F Ⳮ y y (1 Ⳮ y )T y (1 Ⳮ y )T (1 Ⳮ y )T (1 Ⳮ y )T

(1.36)

where again the formula can be adjusted for different compounding methods. This is useful for a number of purposes. For instance, when c ⳱ y , it is immediately obvious that the price must be at par, P ⳱ F . This formula also can be used to ﬁnd closed-form solutions for duration and convexity.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 2 Fundamentals of Probability The preceding chapter has laid out the foundations for understanding how bond prices move in relation to yields. Next, we have to characterize movements in bond yields or, more generally, any relevant risk factor in ﬁnancial markets. This is done with the tools of probability, a mathematical abstraction that describes the distribution of risk factors. Each risk factor is viewed as a random variable whose properties are described by a probability distribution function. These distributions can be processed with the price-yield relationship to create a distribution of the proﬁt and loss proﬁle for the trading portfolio. This chapter reviews the fundamental tools of probability theory for risk managers. Section 2.1 lays out the foundations, characterizing random variables by their probability density and distribution functions. These functions can be described by their principal moments, mean, variance, skewness, and kurtosis. Distributions with multiple variables are described in Section 2.2. Section 2.3 then turns to functions of random variables. Finally, Section 2.4 presents some examples of important distribution functions for risk management, including the uniform, normal, lognormal, Student’s, and binomial.

2.1

Characterizing Random Variables

The classical approach to probability is based on the concept of the random variable. This can be viewed as the outcome from throwing a die, for example. Each realization is generated from a ﬁxed process. If the die is perfectly symmetric, we could say that the probability of observing a face with a six in one throw is p ⳱ 1冫 6. Although the event itself is random, we can still make a number of useful statements from a ﬁxed data-generating process. The same approach can be taken to ﬁnancial markets, where stock prices, exchange rates, yields, and commodity prices can be viewed as random variables. The

31

32

PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

assumption of a ﬁxed data-generating process for these variables, however, is more tenuous than for the preceding experiment.

2.1.1

Univariate Distribution Functions

A random variable X is characterized by a distribution function, F (x) ⳱ P (X ⱕ x)

(2.1)

which is the probability that the realization of the random variable X ends up less than or equal to the given number x. This is also called a cumulative distribution function. When the variable X takes discrete values, this distribution is obtained by summing the step values less than or equal to x. That is, F (x) ⳱

冱 f (xj )

(2.2)

xj ⱕ x

where the function f (x) is called the frequency function or the probability density function (p.d.f.). This is the probability of observing x. When the variable is continuous, the distribution is given by F (x) ⳱

冮

x

⫺⬁

f (u)du

(2.3)

The density can be obtained from the distribution using f (x) ⳱

dF (x) dx

(2.4)

Often, the random variable will be described interchangeably by its distribution or its density. These functions have notable properties. The density f (u) must be positive for all u. As x tends to inﬁnity, the distribution tends to unity as it represents the total probability of any draw for x:

冮

⬁

⫺⬁

f (u)du ⳱ 1

(2.5)

Figure 2-1 gives an example of a density function f (x), on the top panel, and of a cumulative distribution function F (x) on the bottom panel. F (x) measures the area under the f (x) curve to the left of x, which is represented by the shaded area. Here, this area is 0.24. For small values of x, F (x) is close to zero. Conversely, for large values of x, F (x) is close to unity.

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33

FIGURE 2-1 Density and Distribution Functions

Probability density function

f(x)

Cumulative distribution function 1

F(x) 0

x

Example: Density functions A gambler wants to characterize the probability density function of the outcomes from a pair of dice. Out of 36 possible throws, we can have one occurrence of an outcome of two (each die showing one). We can have two occurrences of a three (a one and a two and vice versa), and so on. The gambler builds the frequency table for each value, from 2 to 12. From this, he or she can compute the probability of each outcome. For instance, the probability of observing three is equal to 2, the frequency n(x), divided by the total number of outcomes, of 36, which gives 0.0556. We can verify that all the probabilities indeed add up to one, since all occurrences must be accounted for. From the table, we see that the probability of an outcome of 3 or less is 8.33%.

2.1.2

Moments

A random variable is characterized by its distribution function. Instead of having to report the whole function, it is convenient to focus on a few parameters of interest.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

34

PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS TABLE 2-1 Probability Density Function Outcome xi 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Sum

Frequency n(x) 1 2 3 4 5 6 5 4 3 2 1 36

Probability f (x) 0.0278 0.0556 0.0833 0.1111 0.1389 0.1667 0.1389 0.1111 0.0833 0.0556 0.0278 1.0000

Cumulative Probability F (x) 0.0278 0.0833 0.1667 0.2778 0.4167 0.5833 0.7222 0.8333 0.9167 0.9722 1.0000

It is useful to describe the distribution by its moments. For instance, the expected value for x, or mean, is given by the integral µ ⳱ E (X ) ⳱

冮

Ⳮ⬁

⫺⬁

xf (x)dx

(2.6)

which measures the central tendency, or center of gravity of the population. The distribution can also be described by its quantile, which is the cutoff point x with an associated probability c : F (x) ⳱

冮

x

⫺⬁

f (u)du ⳱ c

(2.7)

So, there is a probability of c that the random variable will fall below x. Because the total probability adds up to one, there is a probability of p ⳱ 1 ⫺ c that the random variable will fall above x. Deﬁne this quantile as Q(X, c ). The 50% quantile is known as the median. In fact, value at risk (VAR) can be interpreted as the cutoff point such that a loss will not happen with probability greater than p ⳱ 95% percent, say. If f (u) is the distribution of proﬁt and losses on the portfolio, VAR is deﬁned from F (x) ⳱

冮

x

⫺⬁

f (u)du ⳱ (1 ⫺ p)

(2.8)

where p is the right-tail probability, and c the usual left-tail probability. VAR can then be deﬁned as the deviation between the expected value and the quantile, VAR(c ) ⳱ E (X ) ⫺ Q(X, c )

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

(2.9)

CHAPTER 2.

FUNDAMENTALS OF PROBABILITY

35

Figure 2-2 shows an example with c ⳱ 5%. FIGURE 2-2 VAR as a Quantile

Probability density function f(x)

VAR 5% Cumulative distribution function F(x)

5% Another useful moment is the squared dispersion around the mean, or variance, which is σ 2 ⳱ V (X ) ⳱

冮

Ⳮ⬁

⫺⬁

[x ⫺ E (X )]2 f (x)dx

(2.10)

The standard deviation is more convenient to use as it has the same units as the original variable X SD(X ) ⳱ σ ⳱ 冪V (X )

(2.11)

Next, the scaled third moment is the skewness, which describes departures from symmetry. It is deﬁned as γ⳱

冢冮

Ⳮ⬁

⫺⬁

冣冫

[x ⫺ E (X )]3 f (x)dx

σ3

(2.12)

Negative skewness indicates that the distribution has a long left tail, which indicates a high probability of observing large negative values. If this represents the distribution of proﬁts and losses for a portfolio, this is a dangerous situation. Figure 2-3 displays distributions with various signs for the skewness.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

FIGURE 2-3 Effect of Skewness

Probability density function Zero skewness

Positive skewness

AM FL Y

Negative skewness

The scaled fourth moment is the kurtosis, which describes the degree of “ﬂatness” of a distribution, or width of its tails. It is deﬁned as

冢冮

Ⳮ⬁

TE δ⳱

⫺⬁

冣冫

[x ⫺ E (X )]4 f (x)dx

σ4

(2.13)

Because of the fourth power, large observations in the tail will have a large weight and hence create large kurtosis. Such a distribution is called leptokurtic, or fat-tailed. This parameter is very important for risk measurement. A kurtosis of 3 is considered average. High kurtosis indicates a higher probability of extreme movements. Figure 2-4 displays distributions with various values for the kurtosis.

Example: Computing moments Our gambler wants to know the expected value of the outcome of throwing two dice. He or she computes the product of the probability and outcome. For instance, the ﬁrst entry is xf (x) ⳱ 2 ⫻ 0.0278 ⳱ 0.0556, and so on. Summing across all events, this gives the mean as µ ⳱ 7.000. This is also the median, since the distribution is perfectly symmetric. Next, the variance terms sum to 5.8333, for a standard deviation of σ ⳱ 2.4152. The skewness terms sum to zero, because for each entry with a positive deviation (x ⫺ µ )3 , there is an identical one with a negative sign and with the same probability.

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37

FIGURE 2-4 Effect of Kurtosis

Probability density function

Thin tails (kurtosis3)

Finally, the kurtosis terms (x ⫺ µ )4 f (x) sum to 80.5. Dividing by σ 4 , this gives a kurtosis of δ ⳱ 2.3657.

2.2

Multivariate Distribution Functions

In practice, portfolio payoffs depend on numerous random variables. To simplify, start with two random variables. This could represent two currencies, or two interest rate factors, or default and credit exposure, to give just a few examples. We can extend Equation (2.1) to F12 (x1 , x2 ) ⳱ P (X1 ⱕ x1 , X2 ⱕ x2 )

(2.14)

which deﬁnes a joint bivariate distribution function. In the continuous case, this is also

F12 (x1 , x2 ) ⳱

x1

冮 冮

x2

⫺⬁ ⫺⬁

f12 (u1 , u2 )du1 du2

(2.15)

where f (u1 , u2 ) is now the joint density. In general, adding random variables considerably complicates the characterization of the density or distribution functions. The analysis simpliﬁes considerably if the variables are independent. In this case, the joint density separates out into the product of the densities: f12 (u1 u2 ) ⳱ f1 (u1 ) ⫻ f2 (u2 )

(2.16)

F12 (x1 , x2 ) ⳱ F1 (x1 ) ⫻ F2 (x2 )

(2.17)

and the integral reduces to

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS TABLE 2-2 Computing Moments of a Distribution Outcome xi 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Sum Denominator

Prob. f (x) 0.0278 0.0556 0.0833 0.1111 0.1389 0.1667 0.1389 0.1111 0.0833 0.0556 0.0278 1.0000

Mean xf (x) 0.0556 0.1667 0.3333 0.5556 0.8333 1.1667 1.1111 1.0000 0.8333 0.6111 0.3333 7.0000

Variance (x ⫺ µ )2 f (x) 0.6944 0.8889 0.7500 0.4444 0.1389 0.0000 0.1389 0.4444 0.7500 0.8889 0.6944 5.8333

Mean 7.0000

StdDev 2.4152

Skewness (x ⫺ µ )3 f (x) -3.4722 -3.5556 -2.2500 -0.8889 -0.1389 0.0000 0.1389 0.8889 2.2500 3.5556 3.4722 0.0000 14.0888 Skewness 0.0000

Kurtosis (x ⫺ µ )4 f (x) 17.3611 14.2222 6.7500 1.7778 0.1389 0.0000 0.1389 1.7778 6.7500 14.2222 17.3611 80.5000 34.0278 Kurtosis 2.3657

In other words, the joint probability reduces to the product of the probabilities. This is very convenient because we only need to know the individual densities to reconstruct the joint density. For example, a credit loss can be viewed as a combination of (1) default, which is a random variable with a value of one for default and zero otherwise, and (2) the exposure, which is a random variable representing the amount at risk, for instance the positive market value of a swap. If the two variables are independent, we can construct the distribution of the credit loss easily. In the case of the two dice, the probability of a joint event is simply the product of probabilities. For instance, the probability of throwing two ones is equal to 1冫 6 ⫻ 1冫 6 ⳱ 1冫 36. It is also useful to characterize the distribution of x1 abstracting from x2 . By integrating over all values of x2 , we obtain the marginal density f1 (x1 ) ⳱

冮

⬁

⫺⬁

f12 (x1 , u2 )du2

and similarly for x2 . We can then deﬁne the conditional density as f (x , x ) f1⭈2 (x1 兩 x2 ) ⳱ 12 1 2 f2 (x2 )

(2.18)

(2.19)

Here, we keep x2 ﬁxed and divide the joint density by the marginal probability of observing x2 . This normalization is necessary to ensure that the conditional density is a proper density function that integrates to one. This relationship is also known as Bayes’ rule.

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When dealing with two random variables, the comovement can be described by the covariance Cov(X1 , X2 ) ⳱ σ12 ⳱

冮 冮 [x 1 2

1

⫺ E (X1 )][x2 ⫺ E (X2 )]f12 (x1 , x2 )dx1 dx2

(2.20)

It is often useful to scale the covariance into a unitless number, called the correlation coefﬁcient, obtained as ρ (X1 , X2 ) ⳱

Cov(X1 , X2 ) σ1 σ2

(2.21)

The correlation coefﬁcient is a measure of linear dependence. One can show that the correlation coefﬁcient always lies in the [⫺1, Ⳮ1] interval. A correlation of one means that the two variables always move in the same direction. A correlation of minus one means that the two variables always move in opposite direction. If the variables are independent, the joint density separates out and this becomes Cov(X1 , X2 ) ⳱

冦 冮 [x 1

1

⫺ E (X1 )]f1 (x1 )dx1

冧 冦 冮 [x 2

2

冧

⫺ E (X2 )]f2 (x2 )dx2 ⳱ 0,

by Equation (2.6), since the average deviation from the mean is zero. In this case, the two variables are said to be uncorrelated. Hence independence implies zero correlation (the reverse is not true, however).

Example: Multivariate functions Consider two variables, such as the Canadian dollar and the euro. Table 2-3a describes the joint density function f12 (x1 , x2 ), assuming two payoffs only for each variable. TABLE 2-3a Joint Density Function x1 x2 –10 +10

–5

+5

0.30 0.20

0.15 0.35

From this, we can compute the marginal densities, the mean and standard deviation of each variable. For instance, the marginal probability of x1 ⳱ ⫺5 is given by f1 (x1 ) ⳱ f12 (x1 , x2 ⳱ ⫺10) Ⳮ f12 (x1 , x2 ⳱ Ⳮ10) ⳱ 0.30 Ⳮ 0.20 ⳱ 0.50. Table 2-3b shows that the mean and standard deviations are x1 ⳱ 0.0, σ1 ⳱ 5.0, x1 ⳱ 1.0, σ2 ⳱ 9.95. Finally, Table 2-3c details the computation of the covariance, which gives Cov ⳱ 15.00. Dividing by the product of the standard deviations, we get ρ ⳱ Cov冫 (σ1 σ2 ) ⳱ 15.00冫 (5.00 ⫻ 9.95) ⳱ 0.30. The positive correlation indicates that when one variable goes up, the other is more likely to go up than down.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS TABLE 2-3b Marginal Density Functions

Prob. x1 f1 (x1 ) 0.50 ⫺5 0.50 Ⳮ5 Sum 1.00

Variable 1 Mean Variance x1 f1 (x1 ) (x1 ⫺ x1 )2 f1 (x1 ) 12.5 ⫺2.5 12.5 Ⳮ2.5 0.0 25.0 x1 ⳱ 0.0 σ1 ⳱ 5.0

Prob. x2 f2 (x2 ) 0.45 ⫺10 0.55 Ⳮ10 1.00

Variable 2 Mean Variance x2 f2 (x2 ) (x2 ⫺ x2 )2 f2 (x2 ) 54.45 ⫺4.5 44.55 Ⳮ5.5 1.0 99.0 x2 ⳱ 1.0 σ2 ⳱ 9.95

TABLE 2-3c Covariance and Correlation

x2 ⳱–10 x2 ⳱+10 Sum

(x1 ⫺ x1 )(x2 ⫺ x2 )f12 (x1 , x2 ) x1 ⳱–5 x1 ⳱+5 (-5-0)(-10-1)0.30=16.50 (+5-0)(-10-1)0.15=-8.25 (-5-0)(+10-1)0.20=-9.00 (+5-0)(+10-1)0.35=15.75 Cov=15.00

Example 2-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 21/Quant. Analysis 2-1. The covariance between variable A and variable B is 5. The correlation between A and B is 0.5. If the variance of A is 12, what is the variance of B? a) 10.00 b) 2.89 c) 8.33 d) 14.40 Example 2-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 81/Market Risk 2-2. Which one of the following statements about the correlation coefﬁcient is false? a) It always ranges from ⫺1 to Ⳮ1. b) A correlation coefﬁcient of zero means that two random variables are independent. c) It is a measure of linear relationship between two random variables. d) It can be calculated by scaling the covariance between two random variables.

2.3

Functions of Random Variables

Risk management is about uncovering the distribution of portfolio values. Consider a security that depends on a unique source of risk, such as a bond. The risk manager could model the change in the bond price as a random variable directly. The problem with this choice is that the distribution of the bond price is not stationary, because

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the price converges to the face value at expiration. Instead, the practice is to model changes in yields as random variables because their distribution is better behaved. The next step is to characterize the distribution of the bond price, which is a nonlinear function of the yield. A similar issue occurs for an option-trading desk, which contains many different positions all dependent on the value of the underlying asset, in a highly nonlinear fashion. More generally, the portfolio contains assets that depend on many sources of risk. The risk manager would like to describe the distribution of portfolio values from information about the instruments and the joint density of all the random variables. Generally, the approach consists of integrating the joint density function over the appropriate space. This is no easy matter, unfortunately. We ﬁrst focus on simple transformations, for which we provide expressions for the mean and variance.

2.3.1

Linear Transformation of Random Variables

Consider a transformation that multiplies the original random variable by a constant and add a ﬁxed amount, Y ⳱ a Ⳮ bX . The expectation of Y is E (a Ⳮ bX ) ⳱ a Ⳮ bE (X )

(2.22)

V (a Ⳮ bX ) ⳱ b2 V (X )

(2.23)

and its variance is

Note that adding a constant never affects the variance since the computation involves the difference between the variable and its mean. The standard deviation is SD(a Ⳮ bX ) ⳱ bSD(X )

(2.24)

Example: Currency position plus cash Consider the distribution of the dollar/yen exchange rate X , which is the price of one Japanese yen. We wish to ﬁnd the distribution of a portfolio with $1 million in cash plus 1,000 million worth of Japanese yen. The portfolio value can be written as Y ⳱ a Ⳮ bX , with ﬁxed parameters (in millions) a ⳱ $1 and b ⳱ Y 1, 000. Therefore, if the expectation of the exchange rate is E (X ) ⳱ 1冫 100, with a standard deviation of SD(X ) ⳱ 0.10冫 100 ⳱ 0.001, the portfolio expected value is E (Y ) ⳱ $1 Ⳮ Y 1, 000 ⫻ 1冫 100 ⳱ $11 million, and the standard deviation is SD(Y ) ⳱ Y 1, 000 ⫻ 0.001 ⳱ $1 million.

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2.3.2

Sum of Random Variables

Another useful transformation is the summation of two random variables. A portfolio, for instance, could contain one share of Intel plus one share of Microsoft. Each stock price behaves as a random variable. The expectation of the sum Y ⳱ X1 Ⳮ X2 can be written as E (X1 Ⳮ X2 ) ⳱ E (X1 ) Ⳮ E (X2 )

(2.25)

V (X1 Ⳮ X2 ) ⳱ V (X1 ) Ⳮ V (X2 ) Ⳮ 2Cov(X1 , X2 )

(2.26)

and its variance is When the variables are uncorrelated, the variance of the sum reduces to the sum of variances. Otherwise, we have to account for the cross-product term. Key concept: The expectation of a sum is the sum of expectations. The variance of a sum, however, is only the sum of variances if the variables are uncorrelated.

2.3.3

Portfolios of Random Variables

More generally, consider a linear combination of a number of random variables. This could be a portfolio with ﬁxed weights, for which the rate of return is N

Y ⳱

冱 wi Xi

(2.27)

i ⳱1

where N is the number of assets, Xi is the rate of return on asset i , and wi its weight. To shorten notation, this can be written in matrix notation, replacing a string of numbers by a single vector: Y ⳱ w1 X1 Ⳮ w2 X2 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ wN XN

X1 X2 ⳱ [w1 w2 . . . wN ] . ⳱ w ⬘X ..

(2.28)

XN where w ⬘ represents the transposed vector (i.e., horizontal) of weights and X is the vertical vector containing individual asset returns. The appendix for this chapter provides a brief review of matrix multiplication. The portfolio expected return is now N

E(Y ) ⳱ µp ⳱

冱 wi µi i ⳱1

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which is a weighted average of the expected returns µi ⳱ E (Xi ). The variance is V (Y ) ⳱ σp2 ⳱

N

N

N

冱 wi2σi2 Ⳮ 冱 冱 i ⳱1

N

wi wj σij ⳱

i ⳱1 j ⳱1,j 苷i

N

N

冱 wi2σi2 Ⳮ 2 冱冱 wi wj σij

(2.30)

i ⳱1 j ⬍i

i ⳱1

Using matrix notation, the variance can be written as σp2 ⳱ [w1 . . . wN ]

σ11 .. .

σ12

σ13

...

σ1N

w1 .. .

σN 1

σN 2

σN 3

...

σN

wN

Deﬁning ⌺ as the covariance matrix, the variance of the portfolio rate of return can be written more compactly as σp2 ⳱ w ⬘⌺w

(2.31)

This is a useful expression to describe the risk of the total portfolio.

Example: Computing the risk of a portfolio Consider a portfolio invested in Canadian dollars and euros. The joint density function is given by Table 2-3a. Here, x1 describes the payoff on the Canadian dollar, with µ1 ⳱ 0.00 and σ1 ⳱ 5.00. For the euro, µ2 ⳱ 1.00 and σ1 ⳱ 9.95. The covariance was computed as σ12 ⳱ 15.00, with the correlation ρ ⳱ 0.30. If we have 60% invested in Canadian dollar and 40% in euros, what is the portfolio volatility? Following Equation (2.31), we write σp2 ⳱ [0.60 0.40]

冋

25.00 15.00

册冋 册

冋

册

15.00 0.60 21.00 ⳱ [0.60 0.40] ⳱ 32.04 99.00 0.40 48.60

Therefore, the portfolio volatility is σp ⳱ 5.66. Note that this is hardly higher than the volatility of the Canadian dollar alone, even though the risk of the euro is much higher. The portfolio risk has been kept low due to diversiﬁcation effects. Keeping the same data but reducing ρ to ⫺0.5 reduces the portfolio volatility even further, to σp ⳱ 3.59.

2.3.4

Product of Random Variables

Some risks result from the product of two random variables. A credit loss, for instance, arises from the product of the occurrence of default and the loss given default. Using Equation (2.20), the expectation of the product Y ⳱ X1 X2 can be written as E (X1 X2 ) ⳱ E (X1 )E (X2 ) Ⳮ Cov(X1 , X2 )

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

When the variables are independent, this reduces to the product of the means. The variance is more complex to evaluate. With independence, it reduces to V (X1 X2 ) ⳱ E (X1 )2 V (X2 ) Ⳮ V (X1 )E (X2 )2 Ⳮ V (X1 )V (X2 )

2.3.5

(2.33)

Distributions of Transformations

of Random Variables The preceding results focus on the mean and variance of simple transformations only. They say nothing about the distribution of the transformed variable Y ⳱ g (X ) itself. The derivation of the density function of Y , unfortunately, is usually complicated for all but the simplest transformations g (⭈) and densities f (X ). Even if there is no closed-form solution for the density, we can describe the cumulative distribution function of Y when g (X ) is a one-to-one transformation from X into Y , that is can be inverted. We can then write P [Y ⱕ y ] ⳱ P [g (X ) ⱕ y ] ⳱ P [X ⱕ g ⫺1 (y )] ⳱ FX (g ⫺1 (y ))

(2.34)

where F (⭈) is the cumulative distribution function of X . Here, we assumed the relationship is positive. Otherwise, the right-hand term is changed to 1 ⫺ FX (g ⫺1 (y )). This allows us to derive the quantile of, say, the bond price from information about the distribution of the yield. Suppose we consider a zero-coupon bond, for which the market value V is V ⳱

100 (1 Ⳮ r )T

(2.35)

where r is the yield. This equation describes V as a function of r , or Y ⳱ g (X ). Using r ⳱ 6% and T ⳱ 30 years, this gives the current price V ⳱ $17.41. The inverse function X ⳱ g ⫺1 (Y ) is r ⳱ (100冫 V )1冫 T ⫺ 1

(2.36)

We wish to estimate the probability that the bond price could fall below $15. Using Equation (2.34), we ﬁrst invert the transformation and compute the associated yield level, g ⫺1 (y ) ⳱ (100冫 $15)1冫 T ⫺ 1 ⳱ 6.528%. The probability is given by P [Y ⱕ $15] ⳱ FX [r ⱖ 6.528%]

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FIGURE 2-5 Density Function for the Bond Price

Probability density function

$5

$10

$15 $20 Bond price

$25

$30

$35

Assuming the yield change is normal with volatility 0.8%, this gives a probability of 25.5 percent.1 Even though we do not know the density of the bond price, this method allows us to trace out its cumulative distribution by changing the cutoff price of $15. Taking the derivative, we can recover the density function of the bond price. Figure 2-3 shows that this p.d.f. is skewed to the right. Indeed the bond price can take large values if the yield falls to small values, yet cannot turn negative. On the extreme right, if the yield falls to zero, the bond price will go to $100. On the extreme left, if the yield goes to inﬁnity, the bond price will fall to, but not go below, zero. Relative to the initial value of $15, there is a greater likelihood of large movements up than down. This method, unfortunately, cannot be easily extended. For general densities, transformations, and numbers of random variables, risk managers need to turn to numerical methods. This is why credit risk models, for instance, all describe the distribution of credit losses through simulations.

We shall see later that this is obtained from the standard normal variable z ⳱ (6.528 ⫺ 6.000)冫 0.80 ⳱ 0.660. Using standard normal tables, or the “=NORMSDIST(⫺0.660)” Excel function, this gives 25.5%. 1

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2.4 2.4.1

Important Distribution Functions Uniform Distribution

The simplest continuous distribution function is the uniform distribution. This is deﬁned over a range of values for x, a ⱕ x ⱕ b. The density function is 1 f (x) ⳱ , a ⱕx ⱕb (b ⫺ a )

(2.38)

which is constant and indeed integrates to unity. This distribution puts the same weight on each observation within the allowable range, as shown in Figure 2-6. We denote this distribution as U (a, b). Its mean and variance are given by aⳭb 2

(2.39)

(b ⫺ a )2 12

(2.40)

AM FL Y

E (X ) ⳱ V (X ) ⳱

FIGURE 2-6 Uniform Density Function

TE

Frequency

a b Realization of the uniform random variable The uniform distribution U (0, 1) is useful as a starting point for generating random numbers in simulations. We assume that the p.d.f. f (Y ) and cumulative distribution F (Y ) are known. As any cumulative distribution function ranges from zero to unity, we can draw X from U (0, 1) and then compute y ⳱ F ⫺1 (x). As we have done in the previous section, the random variable Y will then have the desired distribution f (Y ).

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Normal Distribution

Perhaps the most important continuous distribution is the normal distribution, which represents adequately many random processes. This has a bell-like shape with more weight in the center and tails tapering off to zero. The daily rate of return in a stock price, for instance, has a distribution similar to the normal p.d.f. The normal distribution can be characterized by its ﬁrst two moments only, the mean µ and variance σ 2 . The ﬁrst parameter represents the location; the second, the dispersion. The normal density function has the following expression f (x) ⳱

1 冪2π σ 2

exp[⫺

1 (x ⫺ µ )2 ] 2σ 2

(2.41)

Its mean is E [X ] ⳱ µ and variance V [X ] ⳱ σ 2 . We denote this distribution as N (µ, σ 2 ). Instead of having to deal with different parameters, it is often more convenient to use a standard normal variable as , which has been standardized, or normalized, so that E () ⳱ 0, V () ⳱ σ () ⳱ 1. Deﬁne this as f () ⳱ ⌽(x). Figure 2-7 plots the standard normal distribution. FIGURE 2-7 Normal Density Function

Frequency 0.4

0.3 68% of the distribution is between ±1 and +1

0.2

0.1

95% is between ±2 and +2

0 –4

–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 Realization of the standard normal random variable

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS First, note that the function is symmetrical around the mean. Its mean of zero

is the same as its mode (most likely, or highest, point) and median (which has a 50 percent probability of occurrence). The skewness of a normal distribution is 0, which indicates that it is symmetric around the mean. The kurtosis of a normal distribution is 3. Distributions with fatter tails have a greater kurtosis coefﬁcient. About 95 percent of the distribution is contained between values of 1 ⳱ ⫺2 and 2 ⳱ Ⳮ2, and 68 percent of the distribution falls between values of 1 ⳱ ⫺1 and 2 ⳱ Ⳮ1. Table 2-4 gives the values that correspond to right-tail probabilities, such that

冮

⬁

⫺α

f ()d ⳱ c

(2.42)

For instance, the value of ⫺1.645 is the quantile that corresponds to a 95% probability.2 TABLE 2-4 Lower Quantiles of the Standardized Normal Distribution c Quantile (⫺α)

99.99

99.9

Conﬁdence Level (percent) 99 97.72 97.5 95

90

84.13

50

⫺3.715 ⫺3.090 ⫺2.326 ⫺2.000 ⫺1.960 ⫺1.645 ⫺1.282 ⫺1.000 ⫺0.000

The distribution of any normal variable can then be recovered from that of the standard normal, by deﬁning X ⳱ µ Ⳮ σ

(2.43)

Using Equations (2.22) and (2.23), we can show that X has indeed the desired moments, as E (X ) ⳱ µ Ⳮ E ()σ ⳱ µ and V (X ) ⳱ V ()σ 2 ⳱ σ 2 . Deﬁne, for instance, the random variable as the change in the dollar value of a portfolio. The expected value is E (X ) ⳱ µ . To ﬁnd the quantile of X at the speciﬁed conﬁdence level c , we replace by ⫺α in Equation (2.43). This gives Q(X, c ) ⳱ µ ⫺ ασ . Using Equation (2.9), we can compute VAR as VAR ⳱ E (X ) ⫺ Q(X, c ) ⳱ µ ⫺ (µ ⫺ ασ ) ⳱ ασ

(2.44)

For example, a portfolio with a standard deviation of $10 million would have a VAR, or potential downside loss, of $16.45 million at the 95% conﬁdence level. 2

More generally, the cumulative distribution can be found from the Excel function “=NORMDIST”. For example, we can verify that “=NORMSDIST(⫺1.645)” yields 0.04999, or a 5% left-tail probability.

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Key concept: With normal distributions, the VAR of a portfolio is obtained from the product of the portfolio standard deviation and a standard normal deviate factor that reﬂects the conﬁdence level, for instance 1.645 at the 95% level.

The normal distribution is extremely important because of the central limit theorem (CLT), which states that the mean of n independent and identically distributed variables converges to a normal distribution as the number of observations n increases. This very powerful result, valid for any distribution, relies heavily on the assumption of independence, however. ¯ as the mean Deﬁning X

1 n

冱 ni ⳱1 Xi , where each variable has mean µ and standard

deviation σ , we have

冢 冣 2

¯ y N µ, σ X n

(2.45)

It explains, for instance, how to diversify the credit risk of a portfolio exposed to many independent sources of risk. Thus, the normal distribution is the limiting distribution of the average, which explain why it has such a prominent place in statistics.3 Another important property of the normal distribution is that it is one of the few distributions that is stable under addition. In other words, a linear combination of jointly normally distributed random variables has a normal distribution.4 This is extremely useful because we only need to know the mean and variance of the portfolio to reconstruct its whole distribution.

Key concept: A linear combination of jointly normal variables has a normal distribution.

3

Note that the CLT deals with the mean, or center of the distribution. For risk management purposes, it is also useful to examine the tails beyond VAR. A theorem from the extreme value theory (EVT) derives the generalized Pareto as a limit distribution for the tails. 4 Strictly speaking, this is only true under either of the following conditions: (1) the univariate variables are independently distributed, or (2) the variables are multivariate normally distributed (this invariance property also holds for jointly elliptically distributed variables).

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Example 2-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 12/Quant. Analysis 2-3. For a standard normal distribution, what is the approximate area under the cumulative distribution function between the values ⫺1 and 1? a) 50% b) 68% c) 75% d) 95%

Example 2-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 11/Quant. Analysis 2-4. You are given that X and Y are random variables each of which follows a standard normal distribution with Cov(X, Y ) ⳱ 0.4. What is the variance of (5X Ⳮ 2Y )? a) 11.0 b) 29.0 c) 29.4 d) 37.0

Example 2-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 13/Quant. Analysis 2-5. What is the kurtosis of a normal distribution? a) Zero b) Cannot be determined, because it depends on the variance of the particular normal distribution considered c) Two d) Three

Example 2-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 108/Quant. Analysis 2-6. The distribution of one-year returns for a portfolio of securities is normally distributed with an expected value of ⳱ C45 million, and a standard deviation of C16 million. What is the probability that the value of the portfolio, one year ⳱ hence, will be between ⳱ C39 million and ⳱ C43 million? a) 8.6% b) 9.6% c) 10.6% d) 11.6%

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Example 2-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 16/Quant. Analysis 2-7. If a distribution with the same variance as a normal distribution has kurtosis greater than 3, which of the following is true? a) It has fatter tails than normal distribution. b) It has thinner tails than normal distribution. c) It has the same tail fatness as the normal distribution since variances are the same. d) Cannot be determined from the information provided.

2.4.3

Lognormal Distribution

The normal distribution is a good approximation for many ﬁnancial variables, such as the rate of return on a stock, r ⳱ (P1 ⫺ P0 )冫 P0 , where P0 and P1 are the stock prices at time 0 and 1. Strictly speaking, this is inconsistent with reality since a normal variable has inﬁnite tails on both sides. Due to the limited liability of corporations, stock prices cannot turn negative. This rules out returns lower than minus unity and distributions with inﬁnite left tails, such as the normal distribution. In many situations, however, this is an excellent approximation. For instance, with short horizons or small price moves, the probability of having a negative price is so small as to be negligible. If this is not the case, we need to resort to other distributions that prevent prices from going negative. One such distribution is the lognormal. A random variable X is said to have a lognormal distribution if its logarithm Y ⳱ ln(X ) is normally distributed. This is often used for continuously compounded returns, deﬁning Y ⳱ ln(P1 冫 P0 ). Because the argument X in the logarithm function must be positive, the price P1 can never go below zero. Large and negative large values of Y correspond to P1 converging to, but staying above, zero. The lognormal density function has the following expression f (x) ⳱

1 x 冪2π σ 2

冋

exp ⫺

册

1 (ln(x) ⫺ µ )2 , 2σ 2

x⬎0

(2.46)

Note that this is more complex than simply plugging ln(x) in Equation (2.41), because x also appears in the denominator. Its mean is

冋

1 E [X ] ⳱ exp µ Ⳮ σ 2 2

册

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

and variance V [X ] ⳱ exp[2µⳭ2σ 2 ]⫺exp[2µⳭσ 2 ]. The parameters were chosen to correspond to those of the normal variable, E [Y ] ⳱ E [ln(X )] ⳱ µ and V [Y ] ⳱ V [ln(X )] ⳱ σ 2 . Conversely, if we set E [X ] ⳱ exp[r ], the mean of the associated normal variable is E [Y ] ⳱ E [ln(X )] ⳱ (r ⫺ σ 2 冫 2). This adjustment is also used in the Black-Scholes option valuation model, where the formula involves a trend in (r ⫺ σ 2 冫 2) for the log-price ratio. Figure 2-8 depicts the lognormal density function with µ ⳱ 0, and various values σ ⳱ 1.0, 1.2, 0.6. Note that the distribution is skewed to the right. The tail increases for greater values of σ . This explains why as the variance increases, the mean is pulled up in Equation (2.47). We also note that the distribution of the bond price in our previous example, Equation (2.35), resembles a lognormal distribution. Using continuous compounding instead of annual compounding, the price function is V ⳱ 100 exp(⫺r T )

(2.48)

which implies ln(V 冫 100) ⳱ ⫺r T . Thus if r is normally distributed, V has a lognormal distribution.

FIGURE 2-8 Lognormal Density Function

Frequency 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5

Sigma = 1 Sigma = 1.2 Sigma = 0.6

0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 0.0

0

1

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Realization of the lognormal random variable

10

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Example 2-8: FRM Exam 2001----Question 72 2-8. The lognormal distribution is a) Positively skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Not skewed, that is, its skew equals 2 d) Not skewed, that is, its skew equals 0

Example 2-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 5/Quant. Analysis 2-9. Which of the following statements best characterizes the relationship between the normal and lognormal distributions? a) The lognormal distribution is the logarithm of the normal distribution. b) If the natural log of the random variable X is lognormally distributed, then X is normally distributed. c) If X is lognormally distributed, then the natural log of X is normally distributed. d) The two distributions have nothing to do with one another.

Example 2-10: FRM Exam 1998----Question 10/Quant. Analysis 2-10. For a lognormal variable X , we know that ln(X ) has a normal distribution with a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 0.2. What is the expected value of X ? a) 0.98 b) 1.00 c) 1.02 d) 1.20

Example 2-11: FRM Exam 1998----Question 16/Quant. Analysis 2-11. Which of the following statements are true? I. The sum of two random normal variables is also a random normal variable. II. The product of two random normal variables is also a random normal variable. III. The sum of two random lognormal variables is also a random lognormal variable. IV. The product of two random lognormal variables is also a random lognormal variable. a) I and II only b) II and III only c) III and IV only d) I and IV only

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Example 2-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 128/Quant. Analysis 2-12. For a lognormal variable X , we know that ln(X ) has a normal distribution with a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 0.5. What are the expected value and the variance of X ? a) 1.025 and 0.187 b) 1.126 and 0.217 c) 1.133 and 0.365 d) 1.203 and 0.399

2.4.4

Student’s t Distribution

Another important distribution is the Student’s t distribution. This arises in hypothesis testing, because it describes the distribution of the ratio of the estimated coefﬁcient to its standard error. This distribution is characterized by a parameter k known as the degrees of freedom. Its density is f (x) ⳱

⌫[(k Ⳮ 1)冫 2] 1 1 2 ⌫(k冫 2) 冪kπ (1 Ⳮ x 冫 k)(kⳭ1)冫 2

(2.49)

where ⌫ is the gamma function.5 As k increases, this function converges to the normal p.d.f. The distribution is symmetrical with mean zero and variance V [X ] ⳱

k k⫺2

(2.50)

δ ⳱ 3Ⳮ

6 k⫺4

(2.51)

provided k ⬎ 2. Its kurtosis is

provided k ⬎ 4. Its has fatter tails than the normal which often provides a better representation of typical ﬁnancial variables. Typical estimated values of k are around four to six. Figure 2-9 displays the density for k ⳱ 4 and k ⳱ 50. The latter is close to the normal. With k ⳱ 4, however, the p.d.f. has noticeably fatter tails. Another distribution derived from the normal is the chi-square distribution, which can be viewed as the sum of independent squared standard normal variables k

x⳱

冱 zj2

j ⳱1 5

⬁

The gamma function is deﬁned as ⌫(k) ⳱ 冮0 xk⫺1 e⫺x dx.

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FIGURE 2-9 Student’s t Density Function

Frequency

k=4 K = 50 –4

–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 Realization of the Student’s t random variable

4

where k is also called the degrees of freedom. Its mean is E [X ] ⳱ k and variance V [X ] ⳱ 2k. For k sufﬁciently large, χ 2 (k) converges to a normal distribution N (k, 2k). This distribution describes the sample variance. Finally, another associated distribution is the F distribution, which can be viewed as the ratio of independent chi-square variables divided by their degrees of freedom F (a, b) ⳱

χ 2 (a)冫 a χ 2 (b)冫 b

(2.53)

This distribution appears in joint tests of regression coefﬁcients.

Example 2-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 3/Quant. Analysis 2-13. It is often said that distributions of returns from ﬁnancial instruments are leptokurtotic. For such distributions, which of the following comparisons with a normal distribution of the same mean and variance must hold? a) The skew of the leptokurtotic distribution is greater. b) The kurtosis of the leptokurtotic distribution is greater. c) The skew of the leptokurtotic distribution is smaller. d) The kurtosis of the leptokurtotic distribution is smaller.

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2.4.5

Binomial Distribution

Consider now a random variable that can take discrete values between zero and n. This could be, for instance, the number of times VAR is exceeded over the last year, also called the number of exceptions. Thus, the binomial distribution plays an important role for the backtesting of VAR models. A binomial variable can be viewed as the result of n independent Bernoulli trials, where each trial results in an outcome of y ⳱ 0 or y ⳱ 1. This applies, for example, to credit risk. In case of default, we have y ⳱ 1, otherwise y ⳱ 0. Each Bernoulli variable has expected value of E [Y ] ⳱ p and variance V [Y ] ⳱ p(1 ⫺ p). A random variable is deﬁned to have a binomial distribution if the discrete density f (x) ⳱

冢x冣p (1 ⫺ p) n

x

n ⫺x

,

x ⳱ 0, 1, . . . , n

(2.54)

AM FL Y

function is given by

where 冸nx冹 is the number of combinations of n things taken x at a time, or

冢x冣 ⳱ x!(n ⫺ x)! n

n!

(2.55)

and the parameter p is between zero and one. This distribution also represents the

TE

total number of successes in n repeated experiments where each success has a probability of p.

The binomial variable has expected value of E [X ] ⳱ pn and variance V [X ] ⳱ p(1 ⫺ p)n. It is described in Figure 2-10 in the case where p ⳱ 0.25 and n ⳱ 10. The probability of observing X ⳱ 0, 1, 2 . . . is 5.6%, 18.8%, 28.1% and so on. FIGURE 2-10 Binomial Density Function with p ⳱ 0.25, n ⳱ 10 0.3

Frequency

0.2

0.1

0

0

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Realization of the binomial random variable

10

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For instance, we want to know what is the probability of observing x ⳱ 0 exceptions out of a sample of n ⳱ 250 observations when the true probability is 1%. We should expect to observe about 2.5 exceptions in such a sample. We have f (X ⳱ 0) ⳱

250! n! 0.010 0.99250 ⳱ 0.081 px (1 ⫺ p)n⫺x ⳱ 1 ⫻ 250! x!(n ⫺ x)!

So, we would expect to observe 8.1% of samples with zero exceptions, under the null hypothesis. Alternatively, the probability of observing 10 exception is f (X ⳱ 8) ⳱ 0.02% only. Because this probability is so low, observing 8 exceptions would make us question whether the true probability is 1%. When n is large, we can use the CLT and approximate the binomial distribution by the normal distribution z⳱

x ⫺ pn 冪p(1 ⫺ p)n

⬃ N (0, 1)

(2.56)

which provides a convenient shortcut. For our example, E [X ] ⳱ 0.01 ⫻ 250 ⳱ 2.5 and V [X ] ⳱ 0.01(1 ⫺ 0.01) ⫻ 250 ⳱ 2.475. The value of the normal variable is z ⳱ (8 ⫺ 2.5)冫 冪2.475 ⳱ 3.50, which is very high, leading us to reject the hypothesis that the true probability of observing an exception is 1% only. Example 2-14: FRM Exam 2001----Question 68 2-14. EVT, Extreme Value Theory, helps quantify two key measures of risk: a) The magnitude of an X year return in the loss in excess of VAR b) The magnitude of VAR and the level of risk obtained from scenario analysis c) The magnitude of market risk and the magnitude of operational risk d) The magnitude of market risk and the magnitude of credit risk

2.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 2-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 21/Quant. Analysis c) From Equation (2.21), we have σB ⳱ Cov(A, B )冫 (ρσA ) ⳱ 5冫 (0.5 冪12) ⳱ 2.89, for a variance of σB2 ⳱ 8.33. Example 2-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 81/Market Risk b) Correlation is a measure of linear association. Independence implies zero correlation, but the reverse is not always true.

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Example 2-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 12/Quant. Analysis b) See Figure 2-7. Example 2-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 11/Quant. Analysis d) Each variable is standardized, so that its variance is unity. Using Equation (2.26), we have V (5X Ⳮ 2Y ) ⳱ 25V (X ) Ⳮ 4V (Y ) Ⳮ 2 ⴱ 5 ⴱ 2 ⴱ Cov(X, Y ) ⳱ 25 Ⳮ 4 Ⳮ 8 ⳱ 37. Example 2-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 13/Quant. Analysis d) Note that (b) is not correct because the kurtosis involves σ 4 in the denominator and is hence scale-free. Example 2-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 108/Quant. Analysis b) First, we compute the standard variate for each cutoff point 1 ⳱ (43 ⫺ 45)冫 16 ⳱ ⫺0.125 and 2 ⳱ (39 ⫺ 45)冫 16 ⳱ ⫺0.375. Next, we compute the cumulative distribution function for each F (1 ) ⳱ 0.450 and F (2 ) ⳱ 0.354. Hence, the difference is a probability of 0.450 ⫺ 0.354 ⳱ 0.096. Example 2-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 16/Quant. Analysis a) As in Equation (2.13), the kurtosis adjusts for σ . Greater kurtosis than for the normal implies fatter tails. Example 2-8: FRM Exam 2001----Question 72 a) The lognormal distribution has a long left tail, as in Figure 2-6. So, it is positively skewed. Example 2-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 5/Quant. Analysis c) X is said to be lognormally distributed if its logarithm Y ⳱ ln(X ) is normally distributed. Example 2-10: FRM Exam 1998----Question 10/Quant. Analysis c) Using Equation (2.47), E [X ] ⳱ exp[µ Ⳮ 12 σ 2 ] ⳱ exp[0 Ⳮ 0.5 ⴱ 0.22 ] ⳱ 1.02. Example 2-11: FRM Exam 1998----Question 16/Quant. Analysis d) Normal variables are stable under addition, so that (I) is true. For lognormal variables X1 and X2 , we know that their logs, Y1 ⳱ ln(X1 ) and Y2 ⳱ ln(X2 ) are normally distributed. Hence, the sum of their logs, or ln(X1 ) Ⳮ ln(X2 ) ⳱ ln(X1 X2 ) must also be normally distributed. The product is itself lognormal, so that (IV) is true.

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Example 2-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 128/Quant. Analysis c) Using Equation (2.47), we have E [X ] ⳱ exp[µ Ⳮ 0.5σ 2 ] ⳱ exp[0 Ⳮ 0.5 ⴱ 0.52 ] ⳱ 1.1331. Assuming there is no error in the answers listed for the variance, it is sufﬁcient to ﬁnd the correct answer for the expected value. Example 2-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 3/Quant. Analysis b) Leptokurtic refers to a distribution with fatter tails than the normal, which implies greater kurtosis. Example 2-14: FRM Exam 2001----Question 68 a) EVT allows risk managers to approximate distributions in the tails beyond the usual VAR conﬁdence levels. Answers (c ) and (d) are too general. Answer (b) is also incorrect as EVT is based on historical data instead of scenario analyses.

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Appendix: Review of Matrix Multiplication This appendix brieﬂy reviews the mathematics of matrix multiplication. Say that we have two matrices, A and B that we wish to multiply to obtain the new matrix C ⳱ AB . The respective dimensions are (n ⫻ m) for A, that is, n rows and m columns, and (m ⫻ p) for B . The number of columns for A must exactly match (or conform) to the number of rows for B . If so, this will result in a matrix C of dimensions (n ⫻ p). We can write the matrix A in terms of its individual components aij , where i denotes the row and j denotes the column:

A⳱

a11 .. .

a12 .. .

an1

an2

a1m .. .

... .. . ...

anm

As an illustration, take a simple example where the matrices are of dimension (2 ⫻ 3) and (3 ⫻ 2). A⳱

冋

a11 a21

a12 a22

b11 B ⳱ b21 b31 C ⳱ AB ⳱

a13 a23

册

b12 b22 b32

冋

c11 c21

c12 c22

册

To multiply the matrices, each row of A is multiplied element-by-element by each column of B . For instance, c12 is obtained by taking c12 ⳱ [a11

a12

b12 a13 ] b22 ⳱ a11 b12 Ⳮ a12 b22 Ⳮ a13 b32 . b32

The matrix C is then C⳱

冋

a11 b11 Ⳮ a12 b21 Ⳮ a13 b31 a21 b11 Ⳮ a22 b21 Ⳮ a23 b31

a11 b12 Ⳮ a12 b22 Ⳮ a13 b32 a21 b12 Ⳮ a22 b22 Ⳮ a23 b32

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Matrix multiplication can be easily implemented in Excel using the function “=MMULT”. First, we highlight the cells representing the output matrix C, say f1:g2. Then we enter the function, for instance “=MMULT(a1:c2; d1:e3)”, where the ﬁrst range represents the ﬁrst matrix A, here 2 by 3, and the second range represents the matrix B, here 3 by 2. The ﬁnal step is to hit the three keys Control-Shift-Return simultaneously.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 3 Fundamentals of Statistics The preceding chapter was mainly concerned with the theory of probability, including distribution theory. In practice, researchers have to ﬁnd methods to choose among distributions and to estimate distribution parameters from real data. The subject of sampling brings us now to the theory of statistics. Whereas probability assumes the distributions are known, statistics attempts to make inferences from actual data. Here, we sample from a distribution of a population, say the change in the exchange rate, to make inferences about the population. A fundamental goal for risk management is to estimate the variability of future movements in exchange rates. Additionally, we want to establish whether there is some relationship between the risk factors, for instance, whether movements in the yen/dollar rate are correlated with the dollar/euro rate. Or, we may want to develop decision rules to check whether value-at-risk estimates are in line with subsequent proﬁts and losses. These examples illustrate two important problems in statistical inference, estimation and tests of hypotheses. With estimation, we wish to estimate the value of an unknown parameter from sample data. With tests of hypotheses, we wish to verify a conjecture about the data. This chapter reviews the fundamental tools of statistics theory for risk managers. Section 3.1 discusses the sampling of real data and the construction of returns. The problem of parameter estimation is presented in Section 3.2. Section 3.3 then turns to regression analysis, summarizing important results as well as common pitfalls in their interpretation.

3.1

Real Data

To start with an example, let us say that we observe movements in the daily yen/dollar exchange rate and wish to characterize the distribution of tomorrow’s exchange rate. The risk manager’s job is to assess the range of potential gains and losses on a trader’s position. He or she observes a sequence of past spot rates S0 , S1 , . . . , St , including the latest rate, from which we have to infer the distribution of tomorrow’s rate, StⳭ1 .

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

3.1.1

Measuring Returns

The truly random component in tomorrow’s price is not its level, but rather its change relative to today’s price. We measure rates of change in the spot price: rt ⳱ (St ⫺ St ⫺1 )冫 St ⫺1

(3.1)

Alternatively, we could construct the logarithm of the price ratio: Rt ⳱ ln[St 冫 St ⫺1 ]

(3.2)

which is equivalent to using continuous instead of discrete compounding. This is also Rt ⳱ ln[1 Ⳮ (St ⫺ St ⫺1 )冫 St ⫺1 ] ⳱ ln[1 Ⳮ rt ] Because ln(1 Ⳮ x) is close to x if x is small, Rt should be close to rt provided the return is small. For daily data, there is typically little difference between Rt and rt . The return deﬁned so far is the capital appreciation return, which ignores the income payment on the asset. Deﬁne the dividend or coupon as Dt . In the case of an exchange rate position, this is the interest payment in the foreign currency over the holding period. The total return on the asset is rtTOT ⳱ (St Ⳮ Dt ⫺ St ⫺1 )冫 St ⫺1

(3.3)

When the horizon is very short, the income return is typically very small compared to the capital appreciation return. The next question is whether the sequence of variables rt can be viewed as independent observations. If so, one could hypothesize, for instance, that the random variables are drawn from a normal distribution N (µ, σ 2 ). We could then proceed to estimate µ and σ 2 from the data and use this information to create a distribution for tomorrow’s spot price change. Independent observations have the very nice property that their joint distribution is the product of their marginal distribution, which considerably simpliﬁes the analysis. The obvious question is whether this assumption is a workable approximation. In fact, there are good economic reasons to believe that rates of change on ﬁnancial prices are close to independent. The hypothesis of efﬁcient markets postulates that current prices convey all relevant information about the asset. If so, any change in the asset price must be due to news events, which are by deﬁnition impossible to forecast (otherwise, it would not

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be news). This implies that changes in prices are unpredictable and hence satisfy our deﬁnition of truly random variables. Although this deﬁnition may not be strictly true, it usually provides a sufﬁcient approximation to the behavior of ﬁnancial prices. This hypothesis, also known as the random walk theory, implies that the conditional distribution of returns depends only on current prices, and not on the previous history of prices. If so, technical analysis must be a fruitless exercise, because previous patterns in prices cannot help in forecasting price movements. If in addition the distribution of returns is constant over time, the variables are said to be independently and identically distributed (i.i.d.). This explains why we could consider that the observations rt are independent draws from the same distribution N (µ, σ 2 ). Later, we will consider deviations from this basic model. Distributions of ﬁnancial returns typically display fat tails. Also, variances are not constant and display some persistence; expected returns can also slightly vary over time.

3.1.2

Time Aggregation

It is often necessary to translate parameters over a given horizon to another horizon. For example, we may have raw data for daily returns, from which we compute a daily volatility that we want to extend to a monthly volatility. Returns can be easily related across time when we use the log of the price ratio, because the log of a product is the sum of the logs. The two-day return, for example, can be decomposed as R02 ⳱ ln[S2 冫 S0 ] ⳱ ln[(S2 冫 S1 )(S1 冫 S0 )] ⳱ ln[S1 冫 S0 ] Ⳮ ln[S2 冫 S1 ] ⳱ R01 Ⳮ R12

(3.4)

This decomposition is only approximate if we use discrete returns, however. The expected return and variance are then E(R02 ) ⳱ E(R01 ) Ⳮ E(R12 ) and V (R02 ) ⳱ V (R01 )ⳭV (R12 )Ⳮ2Cov(R01 , R12 ). Assuming returns are uncorrelated and have identical distributions across days, we have E(R02 ) ⳱ 2E(R01 ) and V (R02 ) ⳱ 2V (R01 ). Generalizing over T days, we can relate the moments of the T -day returns RT to those of the 1-day returns R1 : E(RT ) ⳱ E(R1 )T

(3.5)

V (RT ) ⳱ V (R1 )T

(3.6)

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Expressed in terms of volatility, this yields the square root of time rule: SD(RT ) ⳱ SD(R1 ) 冪T

(3.7)

It should be emphasized that this holds only if returns have the same parameters across time and are uncorrelated. With correlation across days, the 2-day variance is V (R2 ) ⳱ V (R1 ) Ⳮ V (R1 ) Ⳮ 2ρV (R1 ) ⳱ 2V (R1 )(1 Ⳮ ρ )

(3.8)

With trends, or positive autocorrelation, the 2-day variance is greater than the one obtained by the square root of time rule. With mean reversion, or negative autocorrule.

AM FL Y

relation, the 2-day variance is less than the one obtained by the square root of time

3.1.3

TE

Key concept: When successive returns are uncorrelated, the volatility increases as the horizon extends following the square root of time.

Portfolio Aggregation

Let us now turn to aggregation of returns across assets. Consider, for example, an equity portfolio consisting of investments in N shares. Deﬁne the number of each share held as qi with unit price Si . The portfolio value at time t is then N

Wt ⳱

冱 qi Si,t

(3.9)

i ⳱1

We can write the weight assigned to asset i as wi,t ⳱

qi Si,t Wt

(3.10)

which by construction sum to unity. Using weights, however, rules out situations with zero net investment, Wt ⳱ 0, such as some derivatives positions. But we could have positive and negative weights if short selling is allowed, or weights greater than one if the portfolio can be leveraged.

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The next period, the portfolio value is N

WtⳭ1 ⳱

冱 qi Si,tⳭ1

(3.11)

i ⳱1

assuming that the unit price incorporates any income payment. The gross, or dollar, return is then N

WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ⳱

冱 qi (Si,tⳭ1 ⫺ Si,t )

(3.12)

i ⳱1

and the rate of return is N N (Si,tⳭ1 ⫺ Si,t ) qi Si,t (Si,tⳭ1 ⫺ Si,t ) WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ⳱ ⳱ wi,t Wt Wt Si,t Si,t i ⳱1 i ⳱1

冱

冱

(3.13)

The portfolio discrete rate of return is a linear combination of the asset returns, N

rp,tⳭ1 ⳱

冱 wi,t ri,tⳭ1

(3.14)

i ⳱1

The dollar return is then N

WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ⳱

冱 wi,t ri,tⳭ1

Wt

(3.15)

i ⳱1

and has a normal distribution if the individual returns are also normally distributed. Alternatively, we could express the individual positions in dollar terms, xi,t ⳱ wi,t Wt ⳱ qi Si,t

(3.16)

The dollar return is also, using dollar amounts, N

WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ⳱

冱 xi,t ri,tⳭ1

(3.17)

i ⳱1

As we have seen in the previous chapter, the variance of the portfolio dollar return is V [WtⳭ1 ⫺ Wt ] ⳱ x⬘⌺x

(3.18)

which, along with the expected return, fully characterizes its distribution. The portfolio VAR is then VAR ⳱ α 冪x⬘⌺x

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Example 3-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 4/Quant. Analysis 3-1. A fundamental assumption of the random walk hypothesis of market returns is that returns from one time period to the next are statistically independent. This assumption implies a) Returns from one time period to the next can never be equal. b) Returns from one time period to the next are uncorrelated. c) Knowledge of the returns from one time period does not help in predicting returns from the next time period. d) Both (b) and (c) are true.

Example 3-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 14/Quant. Analysis 3-2. Suppose returns are uncorrelated over time. You are given that the volatility over two days is 1.20%. What is the volatility over 20 days? a) 0.38% b) 1.20% c) 3.79% d) 12.0%

Example 3-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Quant. Analysis 3-3. Assume an asset price variance increases linearly with time. Suppose the expected asset price volatility for the next two months is 15% (annualized), and for the one month that follows, the expected volatility is 35% (annualized). What is the average expected volatility over the next three months? a) 22% b) 24% c) 25% d) 35%

Example 3-4: FRM Exam 1997----Question 15/Risk Measurement 3-4. The standard VAR calculation for extension to multiple periods assumes that returns are serially uncorrelated. If prices display trends, the true VAR will be a) The same as the standard VAR b) Greater than standard VAR c) Less than standard VAR d) Unable to be determined

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Parameter Estimation

Armed with our i.i.d. sample of T observations, we can start estimating the parameters of interest, the sample mean, variance, and other moments. As in the previous chapter, deﬁne xi as the realization of a random sample. The expected return, or mean, µ ⳱ E (X ) can be estimated by the sample mean, ˆ⳱ m⳱µ

1 T x T i ⳱1 i

冱

(3.20)

Intuitively, we assign the same weight of 1冫 T to all observations because they all have the same probability. The variance, σ 2 ⳱ E [(X ⫺ µ )2 ], can be estimated by the sample variance, ˆ2 ⳱ s2 ⳱ σ

T 1 ˆ)2 (x ⫺ µ (T ⫺ 1) i ⳱1 i

冱

(3.21)

Note that we divide by T ⫺ 1 instead of T . This is because we estimate the variance around an unknown parameter, the mean. So, we have fewer degrees of freedom than otherwise. As a result, we need to adjust s 2 to ensure that its expectation equals the true value. In most situations, however, T is large so that this adjustment is minor. It is essential to note that these estimated values depend on the particular sample and, hence, have some inherent variability. The sample mean itself is distributed as ˆ ⬃ N (µ, σ 2 冫 T ) m⳱µ

(3.22)

If the population distribution is normal, this exactly describes the distribution of the sample mean. Otherwise, the central limit theorem states that this distribution is only valid asymptotically, i.e. for large samples. ˆ 2 , one can show that, when X is norFor the distribution of the sample variance σ mal, the following ratio is distributed as a chi-square with (T ⫺ 1) degrees of freedom ˆ2 (T ⫺ 1)σ ⬃ χ 2 (T ⫺ 1) σ2

(3.23)

If the sample size T is large enough, the chi-square distribution converges to a normal distribution:

冢

ˆ 2 ⬃ N σ 2, σ 4 σ

2 (T ⫺ 1)

冣

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Using the same approximation, the sample standard deviation has a normal distribution with a standard error of ˆ) ⳱ σ se(σ

冪 21T

(3.25)

We can use this information for hypothesis testing. For instance, we would like to detect a constant trend in X . Here, the null hypothesis is that µ ⳱ 0. To answer the question, we use the distributional assumption in Equation (3.22) and compute a standard normal variable as the ratio of the estimated mean to its standard error, or z⳱

(m ⫺ 0) σ 冫 冪T

(3.26)

Because this is now a standard normal variable, we would not expect to observe values far away from zero. Typically, we would set the conﬁdence level at 95 percent, which translates into a two-tailed interval for z of [⫺1.96, Ⳮ1.96]. Roughly, this means that, if the absolute value of z is greater than two, we would reject the hypothesis that m came from a distribution with a mean of zero. We can have some conﬁdence that the true µ is indeed different from zero. In fact, we do not know the true σ and use the estimated s instead. The distribution is a Student’s t with T degrees of freedom: t⳱

(m ⫺ 0) s 冫 冪T

(3.27)

for which the cutoff values can be found from tables, or a spreadsheet. As T increases, however, the distribution tends to the normal. At this point, we need to make an important observation. Equation (3.22) shows ˆ shrinks at a rate prothat, when the sample size increases, the standard error of µ portional to 1冫 冪T . The precision of the estimate increases with a greater number of observations. This result is quite useful to assess the precision of estimates generated from numerical simulations, which are widely used in risk management. Key concept: With independent draws, the standard deviation of most statistics is inversely related to the square root of number of observations T . Thus, more observations make for more precise estimates.

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Our ability to reject a hypothesis will also improve with T . Note that hypothesis tests are only meaningful when they lead to a rejection. Nonrejection is not informative. It does not mean that we have any evidence in support of the null hypothesis or that we “accept” the null hypothesis. For instance, the test could be badly designed, or not have enough observations. So, we cannot make a statement that we accept a null hypothesis, but instead only say that we reject it.

Example: The yen/dollar rate We want to characterize movements in the monthly yen/dollar exchange rate from historical data, taken over 1990 to 1999. Returns are deﬁned in terms of continuously compounded changes, as in Equation (3.2). We have T ⳱ 120, m ⳱ ⫺0.28%, and s ⳱ 3.55% (per month). Using Equation (3.22), we ﬁnd that the standard error of the mean is approximately se(m) ⳱ s 冫 冪T ⳱ 0.32%. For the null of µ ⳱ 0, this gives a t -ratio of t ⳱ m冫 se(m) ⳱ ⫺0.28%冫 0.32% ⳱ ⫺0.87. Because this number is less than 2 in absolute value, we cannot reject at the 95 percent conﬁdence level the hypothesis that the mean is zero. This is a typical result for ﬁnancial series. The mean is not sufﬁciently precisely estimated. Next, we turn to the precision in the sample standard deviation. By Equation (3.25), its standard error is se(s ) ⳱ σ 冪 (21T ) ⳱ 0.229%. For the null of σ ⳱ 0, this gives a

z -ratio of z ⳱ s 冫 se(s ) ⳱ 3.55%冫 0.229% ⳱ 15.5, which is very high. Therefore, there is much more precision in the measurement of s than in that of m. We can construct, for instance, 95 percent conﬁdence intervals around the estimated values. These are: [m ⫺ 1.96 ⫻ se(m), m Ⳮ 1.96 ⫻ se(m)] ⳱ [⫺0.92%, Ⳮ0.35%] [s ⫺ 1.96 ⫻ se(s ), s Ⳮ 1.96 ⫻ se(s )] ⳱ [3.10%, 4.00%] So, we could be reasonably conﬁdent that the volatility is between 3% and 4%, but we cannot even be sure that the mean is different from zero.

3.3

Regression Analysis

Regression analysis has particular importance for ﬁnance professionals, because it can be used to explain and forecast variables of interest.

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3.3.1

Bivariate Regression

In a linear regression, the dependent variable y is projected on a set of N predetermined independent variables, x. In the simplest bivariate case we write yt ⳱ α Ⳮ βxt Ⳮ t ,

t ⳱ 1, . . . , T

(3.28)

where α is called the intercept, or constant, β is called the slope, and is called the residual, or error term. This could represent a time-series or a cross section. The ordinary least squares (OLS) assumptions are 1. The errors are independent of x. 2. The errors have a normal distribution with zero mean and constant variance, conditional on x. 3. The errors are independent across observations. Based on these assumptions, the usual methodology is to estimate the coefﬁcients by minimizing the sum of squared errors. Beta is estimated by ¯)(yt ⫺ y ¯) ˆ ⳱ 1冫 (T ⫺ 1) 冱 t (xt ⫺ x β ¯)2 1冫 (T ⫺ 1) 冱 t (xt ⫺ x

(3.29)

¯ and y ¯ correspond to the means of xt and yt . Alpha is estimated by where x ˆ¯ ˆ⳱y ¯ ⫺ βx α

(3.30)

Note that the numerator in Equation (3.29) is also the sample covariance between two series xi and xj , which can be written as ˆij ⳱ σ

T 1 ˆi )(xt,j ⫺ µ ˆj ) (x ⫺ µ (T ⫺ 1) t ⳱1 t,i

冱

(3.31)

To interpret β, we can take the covariance between y and x, which is Cov(y, x) ⳱ Cov(α Ⳮ βx Ⳮ , x) ⳱ βCov(x, x) ⳱ βV (x) because is conditionally independent of x. This shows that the population β is also β(y, x) ⳱

ρ (y, x)σ (y )σ (x) σ (y ) Cov(y, x) ⳱ ⳱ ρ (y, x) V (x) σ (x) σ 2 (x)

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The regression ﬁt can be assessed by examining the size of the residuals, obtained ˆt from yt , by subtracting the ﬁtted values y ˆ t ˆt ⳱ yt ⫺ α ˆ ⫺ βx ˆt ⳱ yt ⫺ y

(3.33)

and taking the estimated variance as V (ˆ) ⳱

T 1 ˆ2 (T ⫺ 2) t ⳱1 t

冱

(3.34)

ˆ. Also ˆ and β We divide by T ⫺ 2 because the estimator uses two unknown quantities, α note that, since the regression includes an intercept, the average value of ˆ has to be exactly zero. The quality of the ﬁt can be assessed using a unitless measure called the regression R -square. This is deﬁned as R2 ⳱ 1 ⫺

SSE 冱 t ˆt2 ⳱1⫺ SSY 冱 t (yt ⫺ y¯)2

(3.35)

where SSE is the sum of squared errors, and SSY is the sum of squared deviations of y around its mean. If the regression includes a constant, we always have 0 ⱕ R 2 ⱕ 1. In this case, R -square is also the square of the usual correlation coefﬁcient, R 2 ⳱ ρ (y, x)2

(3.36)

The R 2 measures the degree to which the size of the errors is smaller than that of the original dependent variables y . To interpret R 2 , consider two extreme cases. If the ﬁt is excellent, the errors will all be zero, and the numerator in Equation (3.35) will be zero, which gives R 2 ⳱ 1. However, if the ﬁt is poor, SSE will be as large as SSY and the ratio will be one, giving R 2 ⳱ 0. Alternatively, we can interpret the R -square by decomposing the variance of yt ⳱ α Ⳮ βxt Ⳮ t . This gives V (y ) ⳱ β2 V (x) Ⳮ V () 1⳱

β2 V (x) V (y )

Ⳮ

V ( ) V (y )

(3.37) (3.38)

Since the R -square is also R 2 ⳱ 1 ⫺ V ()冫 V (y ), it is equal to ⳱ β2 V (x)冫 V (y ), which is the contribution in the variation of y due to β and x. Finally, we can derive the distribution of the estimated coefﬁcients, which is norˆ ⬃ N (β, V (β ˆ)), mal and centered around the true values. For the slope coefﬁcient, β with variance given by ˆ) ⳱ V (ˆ) V (β

1 ¯)2 冱 t (xt ⫺ x

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This can be used to test whether the slope coefﬁcient is signiﬁcantly different from zero. The associated test statistic ˆ冫 σ (β ˆ) t⳱β

(3.40)

has a Student’s t distribution. Typically, if the absolute value of the statistic is above 2, we would reject the hypothesis that there is no relationship between y and x.

3.3.2

Autoregression

A particularly useful application is a regression of a variable on a lagged value of itself, called autoregression yt ⳱ α Ⳮ βk yt ⫺k Ⳮ t ,

t ⳱ 1, . . . , T

(3.41)

If the coefﬁcient is signiﬁcant, previous movements in the variable can be used to predict future movements. Here, the coefﬁcient βk is known as the kth-order autocorrelation coefﬁcient. Consider for instance a ﬁrst-order autoregression, where the daily change in the ˆ1 indiyen/dollar rate is regressed on the previous day’s value. A positive coefﬁcient β cates that a movement up in one day is likely to be followed by another movement up the next day. This would indicate a trend in the exchange rate. Conversely, a negative coefﬁcient indicates that movements in the exchange rate are likely to be reversed from one day to the next. Technical analysts work very hard at identifying such patterns. ˆ1 ⳱ 0.10, with zero intercept. One day, As an example, assume that we ﬁnd that β the yen goes up by 2%. Our best forecast for the next day is then another upmove of E [yt ] ⳱ β1 yt ⫺1 ⳱ 0.1 ⫻ 2% ⳱ 0.2% Autocorrelation changes normal patterns in risk across horizons. When there is no autocorrelation, we know that risk increases with the square root of time. With positive autocorrelation, shocks have a longer-lasting effect and risk increases faster than the square root of time.

3.3.3

Multivariate Regression

More generally, the regression in Equation (3.28) can be written, with N independent variables (perhaps including a constant): x11 y1 .. ⳱ .. . . yT xT 1

x12 xT 2

x13 xT 3

... ...

x1N xT N

β1 1 .. Ⳮ .. . . βN T

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or in matrix notation, y ⳱ Xβ Ⳮ

(3.43)

The estimated coefﬁcients can be written in matrix notation as ˆ ⳱ (X ⬘X )⫺1 X ⬘y β

(3.44)

ˆ) ⳱ σ 2 ()(X ⬘X )⫺1 V (β

(3.45)

and their covariance matrix as

We can extend the t -statistic to a multivariate environment. Say we want to test ˆm as these grouped coefﬁcients whether the last m coefﬁcients are jointly zero. Deﬁne β ˆ) as their covariance matrix. We set up a statistic and Vm (β F⳱

ˆ⬘ Vm (β ˆ)⫺1 β ˆm 冫 m β m SSE冫 (T ⫺ N )

(3.46)

which has a so-called F -distribution with m and T ⫺ N degrees of freedom. As before, we would reject the hypothesis if the value of F is too large compared to critical values from tables. This setup takes into account the joint nature of the estimated ˆ. coefﬁcients β

3.3.4

Example

This section gives the example of a regression of a stock return on the market. This is useful to assess whether movements in the stock can be hedged using stock-market index futures, for instance. We consider ten years of data for Intel and the S&P 500, using total rates of return over a month. Figure 3-1 plots the 120 combination of returns, or (yt , xt ). Apparently, there is a positive relationship between the two variables, as shown by the straight ˆt , xt ). line that represents the regression ﬁt (y Table 3-1 displays the regression results. The regression shows a positive relaˆ ⳱ 1.35. This is signiﬁcantly positive, with tionship between the two variables, with β a standard error of 0.229 and t -statistic of 5.90. The t -statistic is very high, with an associated probability value (p-value) close to zero. Thus we can be fairly conﬁdent of a positive association between the two variables. This beta coefﬁcient is also called systematic risk, or exposure to general market movements. Technology stocks are said to have greater systematic risk than the

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FIGURE 3-1 Intel Return vs. S&P Return

Return on Intel 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% –10%

–30% –20%

AM FL Y

–20%

–15%

–10%

–5% 0% 5% Return on S&P

10%

15%

TABLE 3-1 Regression Results y ⳱ α Ⳮ βx, y ⳱ Intel return, x ⳱ S&P return

TE

R -square Standard error of y Standard error of ˆ

Coefﬁcient ˆ Intercept α ˆ Intercept β

Estimate 0.0168 1.349

0.228 10.94% 9.62%

Standard Error 0.0094 0.229

T -statistic 1.78 5.90

P -value 0.77 0.00

average. Indeed, the slope in Intel’s regression is greater than unity. To test whether β is signiﬁcantly different from one, we can compute a z -score as z⳱

ˆ ⫺ 1) (β (1.349 ⫺ 1) ⳱ ⳱ 1.53 ˆ) 0.229 s (β

This is less than the usual cutoff value of 2, so we cannot say for certain that Intel’s systematic risk is greater than one. The R -square of 22.8% can be also interpreted by examining the reduction in dispersion from y to ˆ, which is from 10.94% to 9.62%. The R -square can be written as R2 ⳱ 1 ⫺

9.62%2 ⳱ 22.8% 10.94%2

Thus about 23% of the variance of Intel’s returns can be attributed to the market.

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77

Pitfalls with Regressions

As with any quantitative method, the power of regression analysis depends on the underlying assumptions being fulﬁlled for the particular application. Potential problems of interpretation are now brieﬂy mentioned. The original OLS setup assumes that the X variables are predetermined (i.e., exogenous or ﬁxed), as in a controlled experiment. In practice, regressions are performed on actual, existing data that do not satisfy these strict conditions. In the previous regression, returns on the S&P are certainly not predetermined. If the X variables are stochastic, however, most of the OLS results are still valid as long as the X variables are distributed independently of the errors and their distribution does not involve β and σ 2 . Violations of this assumption are serious because they create biases in the slope coefﬁcients. Biases could lead the researcher to come to the wrong conclusion. For instance, we could have measurement error in the X variables, which causes the measured X to be correlated with . This so-called errors in the variables problem causes a downward bias, or reduces the estimated slope coefﬁcients from their true values.1 Another problem is that of speciﬁcation error. Suppose the true model has N variables but we only use a subset N1 . If the omitted variables are correlated with the included variables, the estimated coefﬁcients will be biased. This is a most serious problem because it is difﬁcult to identify, other than trying other variables in the regression. Another class of problem is multicollinearity. This arises when the X variables are highly correlated. Some of the variables may be superﬂuous, for example using two currencies that are ﬁxed to each other. As a result, the matrix in Equation (3.44) will be unstable, and the estimated β unreliable. This problem will show up in large standard errors, however. It can be ﬁxed by discarding some of the variables that are highly correlated with others. The third type of problem has to do with potential biases in the standard errors of the coefﬁcients. These errors are especially serious if standard errors are underestimated, creating a sense of false precision in the regression results and perhaps 1

Errors in the y variables are not an issue, because they are captured by the error component .

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leading to the wrong conclusions. The OLS approach assumes that the errors are independent across observations. This is generally the case for ﬁnancial time series, but often not in cross-sectional setups. For instance, consider a cross section of mutual fund returns on some attribute. Mutual fund families often have identical funds, except for the fee structure (e.g., called A for a front load, B for a deferred load). These funds, however, are invested in the same securities and have the same manager. Thus, their returns are certainly not independent. If we run a standard OLS regression with all funds, the standard errors will be too small. More generally, one has to check that there is no systematic correlation pattern in the residuals. Even with time series, problems can arise with autocorrelation in the errors. In addition, the residuals can have different variances across observations, in which case we have heteroskedasticity.2 These problems can be identiﬁed by diagnostic checks on the residuals. For instance, the variance of residuals should not be related to other variables in the regression. If some relationship is found, then the model must be improved until the residuals are found to be independent. Last, even if all the OLS conditions are satisﬁed, one has to be extremely careful about using a regression for forecasting. Unlike physical systems, which are inherently stable, ﬁnancial markets are dynamic and relationships can change quickly. Indeed, ﬁnancial anomalies, which show up as strongly signiﬁcant coefﬁcients in historical regressions, have an uncanny ability to disappear as soon as one tries to exploit them.

Example 3-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 2/Quant. Analysis 3-5. Under what circumstances could the explanatory power of regression analysis be overstated? a) The explanatory variables are not correlated with one another. b) The variance of the error term decreases as the value of the dependent variable increases. c) The error term is normally distributed. d) An important explanatory variable is omitted that inﬂuences the explanatory variables included, and the dependent variable.

2

This is the opposite of the constant variance case, or homoskedasticity.

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Example 3-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 20/Quant. Analysis 3-6. What is the covariance between populations A and B ? A B 17 22 14 26 12 31 13 29 a) ⫺6.25 b) 6.50 c) ⫺3.61 d) 3.61 Example 3-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 6/Quant. Analysis 3-7. It has been observed that daily returns on spot positions of the euro against the U.S. dollar are highly correlated with returns on spot holdings of the Japanese yen against the dollar. This implies that a) When the euro strengthens against the dollar, the yen also tends to strengthen against the dollar. The two sets of returns are not necessarily equal. b) The two sets of returns tend to be almost equal. c) The two sets of returns tend to be almost equal in magnitude but opposite in sign. d) None of the above are true. Example 3-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 10/Quant. Analysis 3-8. An analyst wants to estimate the correlation between stocks on the Frankfurt and Tokyo exchanges. He collects closing prices for select securities on each exchange but notes that Frankfurt closes after Tokyo. How will this time discrepancy bias the computed volatilities for individual stocks and correlations between any pair of stocks, one from each market? There will be a) Increased volatility with correlation unchanged b) Lower volatility with lower correlation c) Volatility unchanged with lower correlation d) Volatility unchanged with correlation unchanged Example 3-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 125/Quant. Analysis 3-9. If the F -test shows that the set of X variables explain a signiﬁcant amount of variation in the Y variable, then a) Another linear regression model should be tried. b) A t -test should be used to test which of the individual X variables, if any, should be discarded. c) A transformation of the Y variable should be made. d) Another test could be done using an indicator variable to test the signiﬁcance level of the model.

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Example 3-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 112/Quant. Analysis 3-10. Positive autocorrelation in prices can be deﬁned as a) An upward movement in price is more than likely to be followed by another upward movement in price. b) A downward movement in price is more than likely to be followed by another downward movement in price. c) Both (a) and (b) are correct. d) Historic prices have no correlation with futures prices.

3.4

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 3-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 4/Quant. Analysis d) Efﬁcient markets implies that the distribution of future returns does not depend on past returns. Hence, returns cannot be correlated. It could happen, however, that return distributions are independent, but that, just by chance, two successive returns are equal. Example 3-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 14/Quant. Analysis c) This is given by SD(R2 ) ⫻ 冪20冫 2 ⳱ 3.79%. Example 3-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Quant. Analysis b) The methodology is the same as for the time aggregation, except that the variance may not be constant over time. The total (annualized) variance is 0.152 ⫻ 2 Ⳮ 0.352 ⫻ 1 ⳱ 0.1675 for 3 months, or 0.0558 on average. Taking the square root, we get 0.236, or 24%. Example 3-4: FRM Exam 1997----Question 15/Risk Measurement b) This question assumes that VAR is obtained from the volatility using a normal distribution. With trends, or positive correlation between subsequent returns, the 2-day variance is greater than the one obtained from the square root of time rule. See Equation (3.7). Example 3-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 2/Quant. Analysis d) If the true regression includes a third variable z that inﬂuences both y and x, the error term will not be conditionally independent of x, which violates one of the

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assumptions of the OLS model. This will artiﬁcially increase the explanatory power of the regression. Intuitively, the variable x will appear to explain more of the variation in y simply because it is correlated with z . Example 3-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 20/Quant. Analysis a) First, compute the average of A and B , which is 14 and 27. Then construct a table as follows.

Sum

A 17 14 12 13 56

B 22 26 31 29 108

(A ⫺ 14) 3 0 ⫺2 ⫺1

(B ⫺ 27) ⫺5 ⫺1 4 2

(A ⫺ 14)(B ⫺ 27) ⫺15 0 ⫺8 ⫺2 ⫺25

Summing the last column gives ⫺25, or an average of ⫺6.25. Example 3-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 6/Quant. Analysis a) Positive correlation means that, on average, a positive movement in one variable is associated with a positive movement in the other variable. Because correlation is scale-free, this has no implication for the actual size of movements. Example 3-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 10/Quant. Analysis c) The nonsynchronicity of prices does not alter the volatility, but will induce some error in the correlation coefﬁcient across series. This is similar to the effect of errors in the variables, which biases downward the slope coefﬁcient and the correlation. Example 3-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 125/Quant. Analysis b) The F -test applies to the group of variables but does not say which one is most signiﬁcant. To identify which particular variable is signiﬁcant, we use a t -test and discard the variables that do not appear signiﬁcant. Example 3-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 112/Quant. Analysis c) Positive autocorrelation means that price movements in one direction are more likely to be followed by price movements in the same direction.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 4 Monte Carlo Methods

The two preceding chapters have dealt with probability and statistics. The former deals with the generation of random variables from known distributions. The second deals with estimation of distribution parameters from actual data. With estimated distributions in hand, we can proceed to the next step, which is the simulation of random variables for the purpose of risk management. Such simulations, called Monte Carlo simulations, are a staple of ﬁnancial economics. They allow risk managers to build the distribution of portfolios that are far too complex to model analytically. Simulation methods are quite ﬂexible and are becoming easier to implement with technological advances in computing. Their drawbacks should not be underestimated, however. For all their elegance, simulation results depend heavily on the model’s assumptions: the shape of the distribution, the parameters, and the pricing functions. Risk managers need to be keenly aware of the effect that errors in these assumptions can have on the results. This chapter shows how Monte Carlo methods can be used for risk management. Section 4.1 introduces a simple case with just one source of risk. Section 4.2 shows how to apply these methods to construct value at risk (VAR) measures, as well as to price derivatives. Multiple sources of risk are then considered in Section 4.3.

4.1

Simulations with One Random Variable

Simulations involve creating artiﬁcial random variables with properties similar to those of the observed risk factors. These may be stock prices, exchange rates, bond yields or prices, and commodity prices.

83

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4.1.1

Simulating Markov Processes

In efﬁcient markets, ﬁnancial prices should display a random walk pattern. More precisely, prices are assumed to follow a Markov process, which is a particular stochastic process where the whole distribution relies on the current price only. The past history is irrelevant. These processes are built from the following components, described in order of increasing complexity. The Wiener process. This describes a variable ⌬z , whose change is measured over the interval ⌬t such that its mean change is zero and variance proportional to ⌬t ⌬z ⬃ N (0, ⌬t )

(4.1)

If is a standard normal variable N (0, 1), this can be written as ⌬z ⳱ 冪⌬t . In addition, the increments ⌬z are independent across time. The Generalized Wiener process. This describes a variable ⌬x built up from a Wiener process, with in addition a constant trend a per unit time and volatility b ⌬x ⳱ a⌬t Ⳮ b⌬z

(4.2)

A particular case is the martingale, which is a zero drift stochastic process, a ⳱ 0. This has the convenient property that the expectation of a future value is the current value E ( xT ) ⳱ x0

(4.3)

The Ito process. This describes a generalized Wiener process, whose trend and volatility depend on the current value of the underlying variable and time ⌬x ⳱ a(x, t )⌬t Ⳮ b(x, t )⌬z

4.1.2

(4.4)

The Geometric Brownian Motion

A particular example of Ito process is the geometric Brownian motion (GBM), which is described for the variable S as ⌬S ⳱ µS ⌬t Ⳮ σ S ⌬z

(4.5)

The process is geometric because the trend and volatility terms are proportional to the current value of S . This is typically the case for stock prices, for which rates of returns appear to be more stationary than raw dollar returns, ⌬S . It is also used for

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currencies. Because ⌬S 冫 S represents the capital appreciation only, abstracting from dividend payments, µ represents the expected total rate of return on the asset minus the dividend yield, µ ⳱ µT OT AL ⫺ q .

Example: A stock price process Consider a stock that pays no dividends, has an expected return of 10% per annum, and volatility of 20% per annum. If the current price is $100, what is the process for the change in the stock price over the next week? What if the current price is $10? The process for the stock price is ⌬S ⳱ S (µ ⌬t Ⳮ σ 冪⌬t ⫻ ) where is a random draw from a standard normal distribution. If the interval is one week, or ⌬t ⳱ 1冫 52 ⳱ 0.01923, the process is ⌬S ⳱ 100(0.001923 Ⳮ 0.027735 ⫻ ). With an initial stock price at $100, this gives ⌬S ⳱ 0.1923 Ⳮ 2.7735. With an initial stock price at $10, this gives ⌬S ⳱ 0.01923 Ⳮ 0.27735. The trend and volatility are scaled down by a factor of ten. This model is particularly important because it is the underlying process for the Black-Scholes formula. The key feature of this distribution is the fact that the volatility is proportional to S . This ensures that the stock price will stay positive. Indeed, as the stock price falls, its variance decreases, which makes it unlikely to experience a large downmove that would push the price into negative values. As the limit of this model is a normal distribution for dS 冫 S ⳱ d ln(S ), S follows a lognormal distribution. This process implies that, over an interval T ⫺ t ⳱ τ , the logarithm of the ending price is distributed as ln(ST ) ⳱ ln(St ) Ⳮ (µ ⫺ σ 2 冫 2)τ Ⳮ σ 冪τ

(4.6)

where is a standardized normal, N (0, 1) random variable.

Example: A stock price process (continued) Assume the price in one week is given by S ⳱ $100exp(R ), where R has annual expected value of 10% and volatility of 20%. Construct a 95% conﬁdence interval for S . The standard normal deviates that corresponds to a 95% conﬁdence interval are αMIN ⳱ ⫺1.96 and αMAX ⳱ 1.96. In other words, we have 2.5% in each tail.

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The 95% conﬁdence band for R is then RMIN ⳱ µ ⌬t ⫺ 1.96σ 冪⌬t ⳱ 0.001923 ⫺ 1.96 ⫻ 0.027735 ⳱ ⫺0.0524 RMAX ⳱ µ ⌬t Ⳮ 1.96σ 冪⌬t ⳱ 0.001923 Ⳮ 1.96 ⫻ 0.027735 ⳱ 0.0563 This gives SMIN ⳱ $100exp(⫺0.0524) ⳱ $94.89, and SMAX ⳱ $100exp(0.0563) ⳱ $105.79. The importance of the lognormal assumption depends on the horizon considered. If the horizon is one day only, the choice of the lognormal versus normal assumption does not really matter. It is highly unlikely that the stock price would drop below zero in one day, given typical volatilities. On the other hand, if the horizon is measured in years, the two assumptions do lead to different results. The lognormal distribution is more realistic as it prevents prices form turning negative. In simulations, this process is approximated by small steps with a normal distri-

AM FL Y

bution with mean and variance given by

⌬S ⬃ N (µ ⌬t, σ 2 ⌬t ) S

(4.7)

To simulate the future price path for S , we start from the current price St and generate a sequence of independent standard normal variables , for i ⳱ 1, 2, . . . , n.

TE

This can be done easily in an Excel spreadsheet, for instance. The next price StⳭ1 is built as StⳭ1 ⳱ St Ⳮ St (µ ⌬t Ⳮ σ 1 冪⌬t ). The following price StⳭ2 is taken as StⳭ1 Ⳮ StⳭ1 (µ ⌬t Ⳮ σ 2 冪⌬t ), and so on until we reach the target horizon, at which point the price StⳭn ⳱ ST should have a distribution close to the lognormal. Table 4-1 illustrates a simulation of a process with a drift (µ ) of 0 percent and volatility (σ ) of 20 percent over the total interval, which is divided into 100 steps. TABLE 4-1 Simulating a Price Path Step i 0 1 2 3 4 ... 99 100

Random Variable Uniform Normal ui µ ⌬t Ⳮ σ ⌬z =RAND() =NORMINV(ui ,0.0,0.02)

Price Increment ⌬Si

Price StⳭi

0.0430 0.8338 0.6522 0.9219

⫺0.0343 0.0194 0.0078 0.0284

⫺3.433 1.872 0.771 2.813

100.00 96.57 98.44 99.21 102.02

0.5563

0.0028

0.354

124.95 125.31

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The initial price is $100. The local expected return is µ ⌬t ⳱ 0.0冫 100 ⳱ 0.0 and the volatility is 0.20 ⫻ 冪1冫 100 ⳱ 0.02. The second column shows the realization of a uniform U (0, 1) variable, with the corresponding Excel function. The value for the ﬁrst step is u1 ⳱ 0.0430. The next column transforms this variable into a normal variable with mean 0.0 and volatility of 0.02, which gives ⫺0.0343, showing the Excel function. The price increment is then obtained by multiplying the random variable by the previous price, which gives ⫺$3.433. This generates a new value of S1 ⳱ $96.57. The process is repeated until the ﬁnal price of $125.31 is reached at the 100th step. This experiment can be repeated as often as needed. Deﬁne K as the number of replications, or random trials. Figure 4-1 displays the ﬁrst three trials. Each leads to a simulated ﬁnal value STk . This generates a distribution of simulated prices ST . With just one step n ⳱ 1, the distribution must be normal. As the number of steps n grows large, the distribution tends to a lognormal distribution. FIGURE 4-1 Simulating Price Paths

Price 160 140

Path #1

120 Path #3 100 80 Path #2 60 40 20 0 0

20 40 60 Steps into the future

80

100

While very useful to model stock prices, this model has shortcomings. Price increments are assumed to have a normal distribution. In practice, we observe that price changes have fatter tails than the normal distribution and may also experience changing variance.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS In addition, as the time interval ⌬t shrinks, the volatility shrinks as well. In other

words, large discontinuities cannot occur over short intervals. In reality, some assets, such as commodities, experience discrete jumps. This approach, however, is sufﬁciently ﬂexible to accommodate other distributions.

4.1.3

Simulating Yields

The GBM process is widely used for stock prices and currencies. Fixed-income products are another matter. Bond prices display long-term reversion to the face value (unless there is default). Such process is inconsistent with the GBM process, which displays no such mean reversion. The volatility of bond prices also changes in a predictable fashion, as duration shrinks to zero. Similarly, commodities often display mean reversion. These features can be taken into account by modelling bond yields directly in a ﬁrst step. In the next step, bond prices are constructed from the value of yields and a pricing function. The dynamics of interest rates rt can be modeled by ⌬r t ⳱ κ (θ ⫺ rt )⌬t Ⳮ σ rt γ ⌬z t

(4.8)

where ⌬z t is the usual Wiener process. Here, we assume that 0 ⱕ κ ⬍ 1, θ ⱖ 0, σ ⱖ 0. If there is only one stochastic variable in the ﬁxed income market ⌬z , the model is called a one-factor model. This Markov process has a number of interesting features. First, it displays mean reversion to a long-run value of θ . The parameter κ governs the speed of mean reversion. When the current interest rate is high, i.e. rt ⬎ θ , the model creates a negative drift κ (θ ⫺ rt ) toward θ . Conversely, low current rates create with a positive drift. The second feature is the volatility process. This class of model includes the Vasicek model when γ ⳱ 0. Changes in yields are normally distributed because δr is a linear function of ⌬z . This model is particularly convenient because it leads to closedform solutions for many ﬁxed-income products. The problem, however, is that it could allow negative interest rates because the volatility of the change in rates does not depend on the level. Equation (4.8) is more general because it includes a power of the yield in the variance function. With γ ⳱ 1, the model is the lognormal model.1 This implies that the 1

This model is used by RiskMetrics for interest rates.

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rate of change in the yield has a ﬁxed variance. Thus, as with the GBM model, smaller yields lead to smaller movements, which makes it unlikely the yield will drop below zero. With γ ⳱ 0.5, this is the Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (CIR) model. Ultimately, the choice of the exponent γ is an empirical issue. Recent research has shown that γ ⳱ 0.5 provides a good ﬁt to the data. This class of models is known as equilibrium models. They start with some assumptions about economic variables and imply a process for the short-term interest rate r . These models generate a predicted term structure, whose shape depends on the model parameters and the initial short rate. The problem with these models is that they are not ﬂexible enough to provide a good ﬁt to today’s term structure. This can be viewed as unsatisfactory, especially by most practitioners who argue that they cannot rely on a model that cannot even be trusted to price today’s bonds. In contrast, no-arbitrage models are designed to be consistent with today’s term structure. In this class of models, the term structure is an input into the parameter estimation. The earliest model of this type was the Ho and Lee model ⌬r t ⳱ θ (t )⌬t Ⳮ σ ⌬z t

(4.9)

where θ (t ) is a function of time chosen so that the model ﬁts the initial term structure. This was extended to incorporate mean reversion in the Hull and White model ⌬r t ⳱ [θ (t ) ⫺ art ]⌬t Ⳮ σ ⌬z t

(4.10)

Finally, the Heath, Jarrow, and Morton model goes one step further and allows the volatility to be a function of time. The downside of these no-arbitrage models, however, is that they impose no consistency between parameters estimated over different dates. They are also more sensitive to outliers, or data errors in bond prices used to ﬁt the term structure.

4.1.4

Binomial Trees

Simulations are very useful to mimic the uncertainty in risk factors, especially with numerous risk factors. In some situations, however, it is also useful to describe the uncertainty in prices with discrete trees. When the price can take one of two steps, the tree is said to be binomial.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS The binomial model can be viewed as a discrete equivalent to the geometric Brow-

nian motion. As before, we subdivide the horizon T into n intervals ⌬t ⳱ T 冫 n. At each “node,” the price is assumed to go either up with probability p, or down with probability 1 ⫺ p. The parameters u, d, p are chosen so that, for a small time interval, the expected return and variance equal those of the continuous process. One could choose u ⳱ eσ 冪⌬t ,

d ⳱ (1冫 u),

p⳱

eµ ⌬t ⫺ d u⫺d

(4.11)

This matches the mean E [S1 冫 S0 ] ⳱ pu Ⳮ (1 ⫺ p)d ⳱

eµ ⌬t ⫺ d u ⫺ eµ ⌬t eµ ⌬t (u ⫺ d ) ⫺ du Ⳮ ud uⳭ d⳱ ⳱ eµ ⌬t u⫺d u⫺d u⫺d

Table 4-2 shows how a binomial tree is constructed. TABLE 4-2 Binomial Tree 0

1

2

3 u3 S w

u2 S w

E u2 dS

uS w

E

w udS

S E

w

E d 2 uS

dS E

w d2S E d3S

As the number of steps increases, Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein (1979) have shown that the discrete distribution of ST converges to the lognormal distribution.2 This model will be used in a later chapter to price options.

2

Cox, J., Ross S., and Rubinstein M. (1979), Option Pricing: A Simpliﬁed Approach, Journal of Financial Economics 7, 229–263.

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Example 4-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 18/Quant. Analysis 4-1. If S1 follows a geometric Brownian motion and S2 follows a geometric Brownian motion, which of the following is true? a) Ln(S1 Ⳮ S2) is normally distributed. b) S1 ⫻ S2 is lognormally distributed. c) S1 ⫻ S2 is normally distributed. d) S1 Ⳮ S2 is normally distributed.

Example 4-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 19/Quant. Analysis 4-2. Considering the one-factor Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross term-structure model and the Vasicek model: I) Drift coefﬁcients are different. II) Both include mean reversion. III) Coefﬁcients of the stochastic term, dz , are different. IV) CIR is a jump-diffusion model. a) All of the above are true. b) I and III are true. c) II, III, and IV are true. d) II and III are true.

Example 4-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 25/Quant. Analysis 4-3. The Vasicek model deﬁnes a risk-neutral process for r which is dr ⳱ a(b ⫺ r )dt Ⳮ σ dz , where a, b, and σ are constant, and r represents the rate of interest. From this equation we can conclude that the model is a a) Monte Carlo-type model b) Single factor term-structure model c) Two-factor term-structure model d) Decision tree model

Example 4-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 26/Quant. Analysis 4-4. The term a(b ⫺ r ) in the equation in Question 25 represents which term? a) Gamma b) Stochastic c) Reversion d) Vega

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Example 4-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 30/Quant. Analysis 4-5. For which of the following currencies would it be most appropriate to choose a lognormal interest rate model over a normal model? a) USD b) JPY c) EUR d) GBP Example 4-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 23/Quant. Analysis 4-6. Which of the following interest rate term-structure models tends to capture the mean reversion of interest rates? a) dr ⳱ a ⫻ (b ⫺ r )dt Ⳮ σ ⫻ dz b) dr ⳱ a ⫻ dt Ⳮ σ ⫻ dz c) dr ⳱ a ⫻ r ⫻ dt Ⳮ σ ⫻ r ⫻ dz d) dr ⳱ a ⫻ (r ⫺ b) ⫻ dt Ⳮ σ ⫻ dz Example 4-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 24/Quant. Analysis 4-7. Which of the following is a shortcoming of modeling a bond option by applying Black-Scholes formula to bond prices? a) It fails to capture convexity in a bond. b) It fails to capture the pull-to-par phenomenon. c) It fails to maintain put-call parity. d) It works for zero-coupon bond options only. Example 4-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 118/Quant. Analysis 4-8. Which group of term-structure models do the Ho-Lee, Hull-White and Heath, Jarrow, and Morton models belong to? a) No-arbitrage models b) Two-factor models c) Lognormal models d) Deterministic models Example 4-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 119/Quant. Analysis 4-9. A plausible stochastic process for the short-term rate is often considered to be one where the rate is pulled back to some long-run average level. Which one of the following term-structure models does not include this characteristic? a) The Vasicek model b) The Ho-Lee model c) The Hull-White model d) The Cox-Ingersoll-Ross model

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Example 4-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 76 4-10. A martingale is a a) Zero-drift stochastic process b) Chaos-theory-related process c) Type of time series d) Mean-reverting stochastic process

4.2 4.2.1

Implementing Simulations Simulation for VAR

To summarize, the sequence of steps of Monte Carlo methods in risk management follows these steps: 1. Choose a stochastic process (including the distribution and its parameters). 2. Generate a pseudo-sequence of variables 1 , 2 , . . . n , from which we compute prices as StⳭ1 , StⳭ2 , . . . , StⳭn ⳱ ST . 3. Calculate the value of the portfolio FT (ST ) under this particular sequence of prices at the target horizon. 4. Repeat steps 2 and 3 as many times as necessary. Call K the number of replications. These steps create a distribution of values, FT1 , . . . , FTK , which can be sorted to derive the VAR. We measure the c th quantile Q(FT , c ) and the average value Ave(FT ). If VAR is deﬁned as the deviation from the expected value on the target date, we have VAR(c ) ⳱ Ave(FT ) ⫺ Q(FT , c )

4.2.2

(4.12)

Simulation for Derivatives

Readers familiar with derivatives pricing will have recognized that this method is similar to the Monte Carlo method for valuing derivatives. In that case, we simply focus on the expected value on the target date discounted into the present: Ft ⳱ e⫺r (T ⫺t ) Ave(FT )

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

Thus derivatives valuation focuses on the discounted center of the distribution, while VAR focuses on the quantile on the target date. Monte Carlo simulations have been long used to price derivatives. As will be seen in a later chapter, pricing derivatives can be done by assuming that the underlying asset grows at the risk-free rate r (assuming no income payment). For instance, pricing an option on a stock with expected return of 20% is done assuming that (1) the stock grows at the risk-free rate of 10% and (2) we discount at the same risk-free rate. This is called the risk-neutral approach. In contrast, risk measurement deals with actual distributions, sometimes called physical distributions. For measuring VAR, the risk manager must simulate asset growth using the actual expected return µ of 20%. Therefore, risk management uses physical distributions, whereas pricing methods use risk-neutral distributions. This can create difﬁculties, as risk-neutral probabilities can be inferred from observed asset prices, unlike not physical probabilities. It should be noted that simulation methods are not applicable to all types of options. These methods assume that the derivative at expiration can be priced solely as a function of the end-of-period price ST , and perhaps of its sample path. This is the case, for instance, with an Asian option, where the payoff is a function of the price averaged over the sample path. Such an option is said to be path-dependent. Simulation methods, however, cannot be used to price American options, which can be exercised early. The exercise decision should take into account future values of the option. Valuing American options requires modelling such decision process, which cannot be done in a regular simulation approach. Instead, this requires a backward recursion. This method examines whether the option should be exercised starting from the end and working backward in time until the starting time. This can be done using binomial trees.

4.2.3

Accuracy

Finally, we should mention the effect of sampling variability. Unless K is extremely large, the empirical distribution of ST will only be an approximation of the true distribution. There will be some natural variation in statistics measured from Monte Carlo simulations. Since Monte Carlo simulations involve independent draws, one can show that the standard error of statistics is inversely related to the square root of K . Thus

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more simulations will increase precision, but at a slow rate. Accuracy is increased by a factor of ten going from K ⳱ 10 to K ⳱ 1,000, but then requires going from K ⳱ 1,000 to K ⳱ 100,000 for the same factor of ten. For VAR measures, the precision is also a function of the selected conﬁdence level. Higher conﬁdence levels generate fewer observations in the left tail and hence less precise VAR measures. A 99% VAR using 1,000 replications should be expected to have only 10 observations in the left tail, which is not a large number. The VAR estimate is derived from the 10th and 11th sorted number. In contrast, a 95% VAR is measured from the 50th and 51th sorted number, which will be more precise. Various methods are available to speed up convergence. Antithetic Variable Technique This technique uses twice the same sequence of random draws i . It takes the original sequence and changes the sign of all their values. This creates twice the number of points in the ﬁnal distribution of FT . Control Variate Technique This technique is used with trees when a similar option has an analytical solution. Say that fE is a European option with an analytical solution. Going through the tree yields the values of an American and European option, FA and FE . We then assume that the error in FA is the same as that in FE , which is known. The adjusted value is FA ⫺ (FE ⫺ fE ). Quasi-Random Sequences These techniques, also called Quasi Monte Carlo (QMC), create draws that are not independent but instead are designed to ﬁll the sample space more uniformly. Simulations have shown that QMC methods converge faster than Monte Carlo. In other words, for a ﬁxed number of replications K , QMC values will be on average closer to the true value. The advantage of traditional MC, however, is that the MC method also provides a standard error, or a measure of precision of the estimate, which is on the order of 1冫 冪K , because draws are independent. So, we have an idea of how far the estimate might be from the true value, which is useful to decide on the number of replications. In contrast, QMC methods give no measure of precision.

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Example 4-11: FRM Exam 1999----Question 8/Quant. Analysis 4-11. Several different estimates of the VAR of an options portfolio were computed using 1,000 independent, lognormally distributed samples of the underlyings. Because each estimate was made using a different set of random numbers, there was some variability in the answers; in fact, the standard deviation of the distribution of answers was about $100,000. It was then decided to re-run the VAR calculation using 10,000 independent samples per run. The standard deviation of the reruns is most likely to be a) About $10,000 b) About $30,000 c) About $100,000 (i.e., no change from the previous set of runs) d) Cannot be determined from the information provided

TE

AM FL Y

Example 4-12: FRM Exam 1998----Question 34/Quant. Analysis 4-12. You have been asked to ﬁnd the value of an Asian option on the short rate. The Asian option gives the holder an amount equal to the average value of the short rate over the period to expiration less the strike rate. To value this option with a one-factor binomial model of interest rates, what method would you recommend using? a) The backward induction method, since it is the fastest b) The simulation method, using path averages since the option is path-dependent c) The simulation method, using path averages since the option is path-independent d) Either the backward induction method or the simulation method, since both methods return the same value Example 4-13: FRM Exam 1997----Question 17/Quant. Analysis 4-13. The measurement error in VAR, due to sampling variation, should be greater with a) More observations and a high conﬁdence level (e.g. 99%) b) Fewer observations and a high conﬁdence level c) More observations and a low conﬁdence level (e.g. 95%) d) Fewer observations and a low conﬁdence level

4.3

Multiple Sources of Risk

We now turn to the more general case of simulations with many sources of ﬁnancial risk. Deﬁne N as the number of risk factors. In what follows, we use matrix manipulations to summarize the method.

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If the factors Sj are independent, the randomization can be performed independently for each variable. For the GBM model, ⌬Sj,t ⳱ Sj,t ⫺1 µj ⌬t Ⳮ Sj,t ⫺1 σj j,t 冪⌬t

(4.14)

where the standard normal variables are independent across time and factor j ⳱ 1, . . . , N . In general, however, risk factors are correlated. The simulation can be adapted by, ﬁrst, drawing a set of independent variables

, and, second, transforming them into

correlated variables . As an example, with two factors only, we write 1 ⳱ 1 2 ⳱ ρ 1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2 2

(4.15)

Here, ρ is the correlation coefﬁcient between the variables . Because the s have unit variance and are uncorrelated, we verify that the variance of 2 is one, as required V(2 ) ⳱ ρ 2 V( 1 ) Ⳮ [(1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2 ]2 V( 2 ) ⳱ ρ 2 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ ρ 2 ) ⳱ 1, Furthermore, the correlation between 1 and 2 is given by Cov(1 , 2 ) ⳱ Cov( 1 , ρ 1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2 2 ) ⳱ ρ Cov( 1 , 1 ) ⳱ ρ Deﬁning as the vector of values, we veriﬁed that the covariance matrix of is V () ⳱

冋

册 冋 册

σ 2 (1 ) Cov(1 , 2 ) 1 ⳱ ρ σ 2 (2 ) Cov(1 , 2 )

ρ ⳱R 1

Note that this covariance matrix, which is the expectation of squared deviations from the mean, can also be written as V () ⳱ E [( ⫺ E ()) ⫻ ( ⫺ E ())⬘] ⳱ E ( ⫻ ⬘) because the expectation of is zero. More generally, we need a systematic method to derive the transformation in Equation (4.15) for many risk factors.

4.3.1

The Cholesky Factorization

We would like to generate N joint values of that display the correlation structure V () ⳱ E (⬘) ⳱ R . Because the matrix R is a symmetric real matrix, it can be decomposed into its so-called Cholesky factors R ⳱ TT⬘

(4.16)

where T is a lower triangular matrix with zeros on the upper right corners (above the diagonal). This is known as the Cholesky factorization.

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PART I: QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS As in the previous section, we ﬁrst generate a vector of independent , which are

standard normal variables. Thus, the covariance matrix is V( ) ⳱ I , where I is the identity matrix with zeros everywhere except on the diagonal. We then construct the transformed variable ⳱ T . The covariance matrix is now V() ⳱ E (⬘) ⳱ E ((T )(T )⬘) ⳱ E (T ⬘T ⬘) ⳱ T E ( ⬘)T ⬘ ⳱ T V ( )T ⬘ ⳱ T IT ⬘ ⳱ T T ⬘ ⳱ R . This transformation therefore generates variables with the desired correlations. To illustrate, let us go back to our 2-variable case. The correlation matrix can be decomposed into its Cholesky factors as

冋 册 冋 1 ρ

ρ a ⳱ 11 a21 1

册冋

0 a11 a22 0

册 冋

2

a11 a21 ⳱ a22 a21 a11

a11 a21 2 Ⳮ a2 a21 22

册

To ﬁnd the entries a11 , a21 , a22 , we solve and substitute as follows 2 a11 ⳱1

a11 a21 ⳱ ρ 2 2 a21 Ⳮ a22 ⳱1

The Cholesky factorization is then

冋 册 冋 1 ρ

1 ρ ⳱ 1 ρ

册冋

0 1 ρ (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2 0 (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2

册

Note that this conforms precisely to Equation (4.15):

冋册 冋

1 1 ⳱ 2 ρ

0 (1 ⫺ ρ 2 )1冫 2

册冋 册 1

2

In practice, this decomposition yields a number of useful insights. The decomposition will fail if the number of independent factors implied in the correlation matrix is less than N . For instance, if ρ ⳱ 1, meaning that we have twice the same factor, perhaps two currencies ﬁxed to each other, we have: a11 ⳱ 1, a21 ⳱ 1, a22 ⳱ 0. The new variables are then 1 ⳱ 1 and 2 ⳱ 1 . The second variable 2 is totally superﬂuous. This type of information can be used to reduce the dimension of the covariance matrix of risk factors. RiskMetrics, for instance, currently has about 400 variables. This translates into a correlation matrix with about 80,000 elements, which is huge. Simulations based on the full set of variables would be inordinately time-consuming. The art of simulation is to design parsimonious experiments that represent the breadth of movements in risk factors.

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Example 4-14: FRM Exam 1999----Question 29/Quant. Analysis 4-14. Given the covariance matrix, 0.09% 0.06% 0.03% ⌺ ⳱ 0.06% 0.05% 0.04% 0.03% 0.04% 0.06% let ⌺ ⳱ XX ⬘, where X is lower triangular, be a Cholesky decomposition. Then the four elements in the upper left-hand corner of X, x11 , x12 , x21 , x22 , are, respectively, a) 3.0%, 0.0%, 4.0%, 2.0% b) 3.0%, 4.0%, 0.0%, 2.0% c) 3.0%, 0.0%, 2.0%, 1.0% d) 2.0%, 0.0%, 3.0%, 1.0%

4.4

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 4-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 18/Quant. Analysis b) Both S1 and S2 are lognormally distributed since d ln(S 1) and d ln(S 2) are normally distributed. Since the logarithm of (S1*S2) is also its sum, it is also normally distributed and the variable S1*S2 is lognormally distributed. Example 4-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 19/Quant. Analysis d) Answers II and III are correct. Both models include mean reversion but have different variance coefﬁcients. None includes jumps. Example 4-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 25/Quant. Analysis b) This model postulates only one source of risk in the ﬁxed-income market. This is a single-factor term-structure model. Example 4-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 26/Quant. Analysis c) This represents the expected return with mean reversion. Example 4-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 30/Quant. Analysis b) (This requires some knowledge of markets) Currently, yen interest rates are very low, the lowest of the group. This makes it important to choose a model that, starting from current rates, does not allow negative interest rates, such as the lognormal model.

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Example 4-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 23/Quant. Analysis a) This is also Equation (4.8), assuming all parameters are positive. Example 4-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 24/Quant. Analysis b) The model assumes that prices follow a random walk with a constant trend, which is not consistent with the fact that the price of a bond will tend to par. Example 4-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 118/Quant. Analysis a) These are no-arbitrage models of the term structure, implemented as either onefactor or two-factor models. Example 4-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 119/Quant. Analysis b) Both the Vasicek and CIR models are one-factor equilibrium models with mean reversion. The Hull-White model is a no-arbitrage model with mean reversion. The Ho and Lee model is an early no-arbitrage model without mean-reversion. Example 4-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 76 a) A martingale is a stochastic process with zero drift dx ⳱ σ dz , where dz is a Wiener process, i.e. such that dz ⬃ N (0, dt ). The expectation of future value is the current value: E [xT ] ⳱ x0 , so it cannot be mean-reverting. Example 4-11: FRM Exam 1999----Question 8/Quant. Analysis b) Accuracy with independent draws increases with the square root of K . Thus multiplying the number of replications by a factor of 10 will shrink the standard errors from 100,000 to 100,000冫 冪10, or to approximately 30,000. Example 4-12: FRM Exam 1998----Question 34/Quant. Analysis b) (Requires knowledge of derivative products) Asian options create a payoff that depends on the average value of S during the life of the options. Hence, they are “pathdependent” and do not involve early exercise. Such options must be evaluated using simulation methods. Example 4-13: FRM Exam 1997----Question 17/Quant. Analysis b) Sampling variability (or imprecision) increases with (i) fewer observations and (ii) greater conﬁdence levels. To show (i), we can refer to the formula for the precision of the sample mean, which varies inversely with the square root of the number of data points. A similar reasoning applies to (ii). A greater conﬁdence level involves fewer observations in the left tails, from which VAR is computed.

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Example 4-14: FRM Exam 1999----Question 29/Quant. Analysis c) (Data-intensive) This involves a Cholesky decomposition. We have XX ⬘ ⳱ x11 x21 x31

0 x22 x32

0 0 x33

x11 0 0

x21 x22 0

x211 x31 x32 ⳱ x21 x11 x33 x31 x11

0.09% ⌺ ⳱ 0.06% 0.03%

x11 x21 2 2 x21 Ⳮ x22

x31 x21 Ⳮ x32 x22

0.06% 0.05% 0.04%

x11 x33 x21 x31 Ⳮ x22 x32 2 Ⳮ x2 x231 Ⳮ x32 33

0.03% 0.04% 0.06%

We then laboriously match each term, x211 ⳱ 0.0009, or x11 ⳱ 0.03. Next, x12 ⳱ 0 since this is in the upper right corner, above the diagonal. Next, x11 x21 ⳱ 0.0006, or x21 ⳱ 0.02. Next, x221 Ⳮ x222 ⳱ 0.0005, or x22 ⳱ 0.01.

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PART

two

Capital Markets

Chapter 5 Introduction to Derivatives This chapter provides an overview of derivative instruments. Derivatives are contracts traded in private over-the-counter (OTC) markets, or on organized exchanges. These instruments are fundamental building blocks of capital markets and can be broadly classiﬁed into two categories: linear and nonlinear instruments. To the ﬁrst category belong forward contracts, futures, and swaps. These are obligations to exchange payments according to a speciﬁed schedule. Forward contracts are relatively simple to evaluate and price. So are futures, which are traded on exchanges. Swaps are more complex but generally can be reduced to portfolios of forward contracts. To the second category belong options, which are traded both OTC and on exchanges. These will be covered in the next chapter. This chapter describes the general characteristics as well as the pricing of linear derivatives. Pricing is the ﬁrst step toward risk measurement. The second step consists of combining the valuation formula with the distribution of underlying risk factors to derive the distribution of contract values. This will be done later, in the market risk section. Section 5.1 provides an overview of the size of the derivatives markets. Section 5.2 then presents the valuation and pricing of forwards. Sections 5.3 and 5.4 introduce futures and swap contracts, respectively.

5.1

Overview of Derivatives Markets

A derivative instrument can be generally deﬁned as a private contract whose value derives from some underlying asset price, reference rate or index—such as a stock, bond, currency, or a commodity. In addition, the contract must also specify a principal, or notional amount, which is deﬁned in terms of currency, shares, bushels, or some other unit. Movements in the value of the derivative are obtained as a function of the notional and the underlying price or index.

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In contrast with securities, such as stocks and bonds, which are issued to raise capital, derivatives are contracts, or private agreements between two parties. Thus the sum of gains and losses on derivatives contracts must be zero; for any gain made by one party, the other party must have suffered a loss of equal magnitude. At the broadest level, derivatives markets can be classiﬁed by the underlying instrument, as well as by type of trading. Table 5-1 describes the size and growth of the TABLE 5-1 Global Derivatives Markets - 1995-2001 (Billions of U.S. Dollars) Notional Amounts March 1995 47,530

AM FL Y

OTC Instruments

Dec. 2001 111,115

26,645 4,597 18,283 3,548 13,095 8,699 1,957 2,379 579 52 527 318 6,893 8,838

77,513 7,737 58,897 10,879 16,748 10,336 3,942 2,470 1,881 320 1,561 598 14,375 23,799

Interest rate contracts Futures Options Foreign exchange contracts Futures Options Stock-index contracts Futures Options Total

8,380 5,757 2,623 88 33 55 370 128 242 55,910

21,758 9,265 12,493 93 66 27 1,947 342 1,605 134,914

TE

Interest rate contracts Forwards (FRAs) Swaps Options Foreign exchange contracts Forwards and forex swaps Swaps Options Equity-linked contracts Forwards and swaps Options Commodity contracts Others Exchange-Traded Instruments

Source: Bank for International Settlements

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global derivatives markets. As of December 2001, the total notional amounts add up to $135 trillion, of which $111 trillion is on OTC markets and $24 trillion on organized exchanges. The table shows that interest rate contracts are the most widespread type of derivatives, especially swaps. On the OTC market, currency contracts are also widely used, especially outright forwards and forex swaps, which are a combination of spot and short-term forward transactions. Among exchange-traded instruments, interest rate futures and options are the most common. The magnitude of the notional amount of $135 trillion is difﬁcult to grasp. This number is several times the world gross domestic product (GDP), which amounts to approximately $30 trillion. It is also greater than the total outstanding value of stocks and bonds, which is around $70 trillion. Notional amounts give an indication of equivalent positions in cash markets. For example, a long futures contract on a stock index with a notional of $1 million is equivalent to a cash position in the stock market of the same magnitude. Notional amounts, however, do not give much information about the risks of the positions. The liquidation value of OTC derivatives contracts, for instance, is estimated at $3.8 trillion, which is only 3 percent of the notional. For futures contracts, which are marked-to-market daily, market values are close to zero. The risk of these derivatives is best measured by the potential change in mark-to-market values over the horizon, or their value at risk (VAR).

5.2 5.2.1

Forward Contracts Deﬁnition

The most common transactions in ﬁnancial instruments are spot transactions, that is, for physical delivery as soon as practical (perhaps in 2 business days or in a week). Historically, grain farmers went to a centralized location to meet buyers for their product. As markets developed, the farmers realized that it would be beneﬁcial to trade for delivery at some future date. This allowed them to hedge out price ﬂuctuations for the sale of their anticipated production.

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This gave rise to forward contracts, which are private agreements to exchange a given asset against cash at a ﬁxed point in the future.1 The terms of the contract are the quantity (number of units or shares), date, and price at which the exchange will be done. A position which implies buying the asset is said to be long. A position to sell is said to be short. Note that, since this instrument is a private contract, any gain to one party must be a loss to the other. These instruments represent contractual obligations, as the exchange must occur whatever happens to the intervening price, unless default occurs. Unlike an option contract, there is no choice in taking delivery or not. To avoid the possibility of losses, the farmer could enter a forward sale of grain for dollars. By so doing, he locks up a price now for delivery in the future. We then say that the farmer is hedged against movements in the price. We use the notations, t ⳱current time T ⳱time of delivery τ ⳱ T ⫺ t ⳱time to maturity St ⳱current spot price of the asset in dollars Ft (T ) ⳱current forward price of the asset for delivery at T (also written as Ft or F to avoid clutter) Vt ⳱current value of contract r ⳱current domestic risk-free rate for delivery at T n ⳱quantity, or number of units in contract The face amount, or principal value of the contract is deﬁned as the amount nF to pay at maturity, like a bond. This is also called the notional amount. We will assume that interest rates are continuously compounded so that the present value of a dollar paid at expiration is PV($1) ⳱ e⫺r τ . Say that the initial forward price is Ft ⳱ $100. A speculator agrees to buy n ⳱ 500 units for Ft at T . At expiration, the payoff on the forward contract is determined as follows: 1

More generally, any agreement to exchange an asset for another and not only against cash.

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(1) The speculator pays nF ⳱ $50, 000 in cash and receives 500 units of the underlying. (2) The speculator could then sell the underlying at the prevailing spot price ST , for a proﬁt of n(ST ⫺ F ). For example, if the spot price is at ST ⳱ $120, the proﬁt is 500 ⫻ ($120 ⫺ $100) ⳱ $10, 000. This is also the mark-to-market value of the contract at expiration. In summary, the value of the forward contract at expiration, for one unit of the underlying asset is VT ⳱ ST ⫺ F

(5.1)

Here, the value of the contract at expiration is derived from the purchase and physical delivery of the underlying asset. There is a payment of cash in exchange for the actual asset. Another mode of settlement is cash settlement. This involves simply measuring the market value of the asset upon maturity, ST , and agreeing for the “long” to receive nVT ⳱ n(ST ⫺ F ). This amount can be positive or negative, involving a proﬁt or loss. Figures 5-1 and 5-2 present the payoff patterns on long and short positions in a forward contract, respectively. It is important to note that the payoffs are linear in the underlying spot price. Also, the positions are symmetrical around the horizontal FIGURE 5-1 Payoff of Proﬁts on Long Forward Contract Payoff 50 40 30 20 10 0 -10 -20 -30 -40 -50 50

60

70 80 90 100 110 120 Spot price of underlying at expiration

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FIGURE 5-2 Payoff of Proﬁts on Short Forward Contract Payoff 50 40 30 20 10 0 -10 -20 -30 -40 -50 50

60

70 80 90 100 110 120 Spot price of underlying at expiration

130

140

150

axis. For a given spot price, the sum of the proﬁt or loss for the long and the short is zero. This reﬂects the fact that forwards are private contracts between two parties.

5.2.2

Valuing Forward Contracts

When evaluating forward contracts, two important questions arise. First, how is the current forward price Ft determined? Second, what is the current value Vt of an outstanding forward contract? Initially, we assume that the underlying asset pays no income. This will be generalized in the next section. We also assume no transaction costs, that is, zero bid-ask spread on spot and forward quotations as well as the ability to lend and borrow at the same risk-free rate. Generally, forward contracts are established so that their initial value is zero. This is achieved by setting the forward price Ft appropriately by a no-arbitrage relationship between the cash and forward markets. No-arbitrage is a situation where positions with the same payoffs have the same price. This rules out situations where arbitrage proﬁts can exist. Arbitrage is a zero-risk, zero-net investment strategy that still generates proﬁts.

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Consider these strategies: (1) Buy one share/unit of the underlying asset at the spot price St and hold until time T . (2) Enter a forward contract to buy one share/unit of same underlying asset at the forward price Ft ; in order to have sufﬁcient funds at maturity to pay Ft , we invest the present value of Ft in an interest-bearing account. This is the present value Ft e⫺r τ . The forward price Ft is set so that the initial cost of the forward contract, Vt , is zero. The two portfolios are economically equivalent because they will be identical at maturity. Each will contain one share of the asset. Hence their up-front cost must be the same: St ⳱ Ft e⫺r τ

(5.2)

This equation deﬁnes the fair forward price Ft such that the initial value of the contract is zero. For instance, assuming St ⳱ $100, r ⳱ 5%, τ ⳱ 1, we have Ft ⳱ St er τ ⳱ $100 ⫻ exp(0.05 ⫻ 1) ⳱ $105.13. We see that the forward rate is higher than the spot rate. This reﬂects the fact that there is no down payment to enter the forward contract, unlike for the cash position. As a result, the forward price must be higher than the spot price to reﬂect the time value of money. In practice, this relationship must be tempered by transaction costs. Abstracting from these costs, any deviation creates an arbitrage opportunity. This can be taken advantage of by buying the cheap asset and selling the expensive one. Assume for instance that F ⳱ $110. The fair value is St er τ ⳱ $105.13. We apply the principle of buying low at $105.13 and selling high at $110. We can lock in a sure proﬁt by: (1) Buying the asset spot at $100 (2) Selling the asset forward at $110 Because we know we will receive $110 in one year, we could borrow against this, which brings in $110 ⫻ PV($1), or $104.64. Thus we are paying $100 and receiving $104.64 now, for a proﬁt of $4.64. This would be a blatant arbitrage opportunity, or “money machine.” Now consider a mispricing where F ⳱ $102. We apply the principle of buying low at $102 and selling high at $105.13. We can lock in a sure proﬁt by: (1) Short-selling the asset spot at $100 (2) Buying the asset forward at $102

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Because we know we will have to pay $102 in one year, this is worth $102 ⫻ PV($1), or $97.03, which we need to invest up front. Thus we are paying $97.03 and receiving $100, for a proﬁt of $2.97. This transaction involves the short-sale of the asset, which is more involved than an outright purchase. When purchasing, we pay $100 and receive one share of the asset. When short-selling, we borrow one share of the asset and promise to give it back at a future date; in the meantime, we sell it at $100.2 When time comes to deliver the asset, we have to buy it on the open market and then deliver it to the counterparty.

5.2.3

Valuing an Off-Market Forward Contract

We can use the same reasoning to evaluate an outstanding forward contract, with a locked-in delivery price of K . In general, such a contract will have non zero value because K differs from the prevailing forward rate. Such a contract is said to be offmarket. Consider these strategies: (1) Buy one share/unit of the underlying asset at the spot price St and hold until time T . (2) Enter a forward contract to buy one share/unit of same underlying asset at the price K ; in order to have sufﬁcient funds at maturity to pay K , we invest the present value of K in an interest-bearing account. This present value is also Ke⫺r τ . In addition, we have to pay the market value of the forward contract, or Vt . The up-front cost of the two portfolios must be identical. Hence, we must have Vt Ⳮ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ St , or Vt ⳱ St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ

(5.3)

which deﬁnes the market value of an outstanding long position.3 This gains value when the underlying increases in value. A short position would have the reverse sign. Later, we will extend this relationship to the measurement of risk by considering the distribution of the underlying risk factors, St and r .

2

In practice, we may not get full access to the proceeds of the sale when it involves individual stocks. The broker will typically only allow us to withdraw 50% of the cash. The rest is kept as a performance bond should the transaction lose money. 3 Note that Vt is not the same as the forward price Ft . The former is the value of the contract; the latter refers to a speciﬁcation of the contract.

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For instance, assume we still hold the previous forward contract with Ft ⳱ $105.13 and after one month the spot price moves to St ⳱ $110. The interest has not changed at r ⳱ 5%, but the maturity is now shorter by one month, τ ⳱ 11冫 12. The value of the contract is now Vt ⳱ St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ $110 ⫺ $105.13exp(⫺0.05 ⫻ 11冫 12) ⳱ $110 ⫺ $100.42 ⳱ $9.58. The contract is now more valuable than before since the spot price has moved up.

5.2.4

Valuing Forward Contracts With Income Payments

We previously considered a situation where the asset produces no income payment. In practice, the asset may be ● A stock that pays a regular dividend ● A bond that pays a regular coupon ● A stock index that pays a dividend stream that can be approximated by a continuous yield ● A foreign currency that pays a foreign-currency denominated interest rate Whichever income is paid on the asset, we can usefully classify the payment into discrete, that is, ﬁxed dollar amounts at regular points in time, or on a continuous basis, that is, accrued in proportion to the time the asset is held. We must assume that the income payment is ﬁxed or is certain. More generally, a storage cost is equivalent to a negative dividend. We use these deﬁnitions: D ⳱ discrete (dollar) dividend or coupon payment rtⴱ (T ) ⳱ foreign risk-free rate for delivery at T qtⴱ (T ) ⳱ dividend yield The adjustment is the same for all these payments. We can afford to invest less in the asset up front to get one unit at expiration. This is because the income payment can be reinvested into the asset. Alternatively, we can borrow against the value of the income payment to increase our holding of the asset. Continuing our example, consider a stock priced at $100 that pays a dividend of D ⳱ $1 in three months. The present value of this payment discounted over three months is De⫺r τ ⳱ $1 exp(⫺0.05 ⫻ 3冫 12) ⳱ $0.99. We only need to put up

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St ⫺ PV(D ) ⳱ $100.00 ⫺ 0.99 ⳱ $99.01 to get one share in one year. Put differently, we buy 0.9901 fractional shares now and borrow against the (sure) dividend payment of $1 to buy an additional 0.0099 fractional share, for a total of 1 share. The pricing formula in Equation (5.2) is extended to Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St ⫺ PV(D )

(5.4)

where PV(D) is the present value of the dividend/coupon payments. If there is more than one payment, PV(D) represents the sum of the present values of each individual payment, discounted at the appropriate risk-free rate. With storage costs, we need to add the present value of storage costs PV(C ) to the right side of Equation (5.4). The approach is similar for an asset that pays a continuous income, deﬁned per unit time instead of discrete amounts. Holding a foreign currency, for instance, should be done through an interest-bearing account paying interest that accrues with time. Over the horizon τ , we can afford to invest less up front, St e⫺r

ⴱτ

in order to receive

one unit at maturity. Hence the forward price should be such that Ft ⳱ St e⫺r

ⴱτ

冫 e ⫺r τ

(5.5)

If instead interest rates are annually compounded, this gives Ft ⳱ St (1 Ⳮ r )τ 冫 (1 Ⳮ r ⴱ )τ

(5.6)

If r ⴱ ⬍ r , we have Ft ⬎ St and the asset trades at a forward premium. Conversely, if r ⴱ ⬎ r , Ft ⬍ St and the asset trades at a forward discount. Thus the forward price is higher or lower than the spot price, depending on whether the yield on the asset is lower than or higher than the domestic risk-free interest rate. Note also that, for this equation to be valid, both the spot and forward prices have to be expressed in dollars, or domestic currency units that correspond to the rate r . Equation (5.5) is also known as interest rate parity when dealing with currencies. Key concept: The forward rate differs from the spot rate to reﬂect the time value of money and the income yield on the underlying asset. It is higher than the spot rate if the yield on the asset is lower than the risk-free interest rate, and vice versa. The value of an outstanding forward contract is V t ⳱ St e ⫺ r

ⴱτ

⫺ Ke⫺r τ

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If Ft is the new, current forward price, we can also write Vt ⳱ Ft e⫺r τ ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ (F ⫺ K )e⫺r τ

(5.8)

This provides a useful alternative formula for the valuation of a forward contract. The intuition here is that we could liquidate the outstanding forward contract by entering a reverse position at the current forward rate. The payoff at expiration is (F ⫺ K ), which, discounted back to the present, gives Equation (5.8).

Key concept: The current value of an outstanding forward contract can be found by entering an offsetting forward position and discounting the net cash ﬂow at expiration.

Example 5-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 49/Capital Markets 5-1. Assume the spot rate for euro against U.S. dollar is 1.05 (i.e. 1 euro buys 1.05 dollars). A U.S. bank pays 5.5% compounded annually for one year for a dollar deposit and a German bank pays 2.5% compounded annually for one year for a euro deposit. What is the forward exchange rate one year from now? a) 1.0815 b) 1.0201 c) 1.0807 d) 1.0500

Example 5-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 31/Capital Markets 5-2. Consider an eight-month forward contract on a stock with a price of $98/share. The delivery date is eight months hence. The ﬁrm is expected to pay a $1.80/share dividend in four months time. Riskless zero-coupon interest rates (continuously compounded) for different maturities are for less than/equal to 6 months, 4%; for 8 months, 4.5%. The theoretical forward price (to the nearest cent) is a) 99.15 b) 99.18 c) 100.98 d) 96.20

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Example 5-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 93 5-3. Calculate the price of a 1-year forward contract on gold. Assume the storage cost for gold is $5.00 per ounce with payment made at the end of the year. Spot gold is $290 per ounce and the risk free rate is 5%. a) $304.86 b) $309.87 c) $310.12 d) $313.17

TE

AM FL Y

Example 5-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 4/Capital Markets 5-4. On Friday, October 4, the spot price of gold was $378.85 per troy ounce. The price of an April gold futures contract was $387.20 per troy ounce. (Note: Each gold futures contract is for 100 troy ounces.) Assume that a Treasury bill maturing in April with an “ask yield” of 5.28 percent provides the relevant ﬁnancing (borrowing or lending rate). Use 180 days as the term to maturity (with continuous compounding and a 365-day year). Also assume that warehousing and delivery costs are negligible and ignore convenience yields. What is the theoretically correct price for the April futures contract and what is the potential arbitrage proﬁt per contract? a) $379.85 and $156.59 b) $318.05 and $615.00 c) $387.84 and $163.25 d) $388.84 and $164.00

Example 5-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 41/Capital Markets 5-5. Assume a dollar asset provides no income for the holder and an investor can borrow money at risk-free interest rate r , then the forward price F for time T and spot price S at time t of the asset are related. If the investor observes that F ⬎ S exp[r (T ⫺ t )], then the investor can take a proﬁt by a) Borrowing S dollars for a period of (T ⫺ t ) at the rate of r , buy the asset, and short the forward contract. b) Borrowing S dollars for a period of (T ⫺ t ) at the rate of r , buy the asset, and long the forward contract. c) Selling short the asset and invest the proceeds of S dollars for a period of (T ⫺ t ) at the rate of r , and short the forward contract. d) Selling short the asset and invest the proceeds of S dollars for a period of (T ⫺ t ) at the rate of r , and long the forward contract.

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Futures Contracts

5.3.1

Deﬁnitions of Futures

Forward contracts allow users to take positions that are economically equivalent to those in the underlying cash markets. Unlike cash markets, however, they do not involve substantial up-front payments. Thus, forward contracts can be interpreted as having leverage. Leverage is that it creates credit risk for the counterparty. When a speculator buys a stock at the price of $100, the counterparty receives the cash and has no credit risk. Instead, when a speculator enters a forward contract to buy an asset at the price of $105, there is very little up-front payment. In effect the speculator borrows from the counterparty to invest in the asset. There is a risk that if the price of the asset and hence the value of the contract falls sufﬁciently, the speculator could default. In response, futures contracts have been structured so as to minimize credit risk for all counterparties. From a market risk standpoint, futures contracts are identical to forward contracts. The pricing relationships are generally similar. Some of the features of futures contracts are now ﬁnding their way into OTC forward and swap markets. Futures contracts are standardized, negotiable, and exchange-traded contracts to buy or sell an underlying asset. They differ from forward contracts as follows. Trading on organized exchanges In contrast to forwards, which are OTC contracts tailored to customers’ needs, futures are traded on organized exchanges (either with a physical location or electronic). Standardization Futures contracts are offered with a limited choice of expiration dates. They trade in ﬁxed contract sizes. This standardization ensures an active secondary market for many futures contracts, which can be easily traded, purchased or resold. In other words, most futures contracts have good liquidity. The trade-off is that futures are less precisely suited to the need of some hedgers, which creates basis risk (to be deﬁned later).

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Clearinghouse Futures contracts are also standardized in terms of the counterparty. After each transaction is conﬁrmed, the clearinghouse basically interposes itself between the buyer and the seller, ensuring the performance of the contract (for a fee). Thus, unlike forward contracts, counterparties do not have to worry about the credit risk of the other side of the trade. Instead, the credit risk is that of the clearinghouse (or the broker), which is generally excellent. Marking-to-market As the clearinghouse now has to deal with the credit risk of the two original counterparties, it has to develop mechanisms to monitor credit risk. This is achieved by daily marking-to-market, which involves settlement of the gains and losses on the contract every day. The goal is to avoid a situation where a speculator loses a large amount of money on a trade and defaults, passing on some of the losses to the clearinghouse. Margins Although daily settlement accounts for past losses, it does not provide a buffer against future losses. This is the goal of margins, which represent up-front posting of collateral that provides some guarantee of performance.

Example: Margins for a futures contract Consider a futures contract on 1000 units of an asset worth $100. A long futures position is economically equivalent to holding $100,000 worth of the asset directly. To enter the futures position, a speculator has to post only $5,000 in margin, for example. This represents the initial value of the equity account. The next day, the proﬁt or loss is added to the equity account. If the futures price moves down by $3, the loss is $3,000, bringing the equity account down to $5,000⫺$3,000 ⳱ $2,000. The speculator is then required to post an additional $3,000 of capital. In case he or she fails to meet the margin call, the broker has the right to liquidate the position. Since futures trading is centralized on an exchange, it is easy to collect and report aggregate trading data. Volume is the number of contracts traded during the day, which is a ﬂow item. Open interest represents the outstanding number of contracts at the close of the day, which is a stock item.

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Valuing Futures Contracts

Valuation principles for futures contracts are very similar to those for forward contracts. The main difference between the two types of contracts is that any proﬁt or loss accrues during the life of the futures contract instead of all at once, at expiration. When interest rates are assumed constant or deterministic, forward and futures prices must be equal. With stochastic interest rates, the difference is small, unless the value of the asset is highly correlated with the interest rate. If the correlation is zero, then it makes no difference whether payments are received earlier or later. The futures price must be the same as the forward price. In contrast, consider a contract whose price is positively correlated with the interest rate. If the value of the contract goes up, it is more likely that interest rates will go up as well. This implies that proﬁts can be withdrawn and reinvested at a higher rate. Relative to forward contracts, this marking-to-market feature is beneﬁcial to long futures position. Because both parties recognize this feature, the futures price must be higher in equilibrium. In practice, this effect is only observable for interest-rate futures contracts, whose value is negatively correlated with interest rates. For these contracts, the futures price must be lower than the forward price. Chapter 8 will explain how to compute the adjustment, called the convexity effect. Example 5-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 7/Capital Markets 5-6. For assets that are strongly positively correlated with interest rates, which one of the following is true? a) Long-dated forward contracts will have higher prices than long-dated futures contracts. b) Long-dated futures contracts will have higher prices than long-dated forward contracts. c) Long-dated forward and long-dated futures prices are always the same. d) The “convexity effect” can be ignored for long-dated futures contracts on that asset.

5.4

Swap Contracts

Swap contracts are OTC agreements to exchange a series of cash ﬂows according to prespeciﬁed terms. The underlying asset can be an interest rate, an exchange rate, an

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equity, a commodity price, or any other index. Typically, swaps are established for longer periods than forwards and futures. For example, a 10-year currency swap could involve an agreement to exchange every year 5 million dollars against 3 million pounds over the next ten years, in addition to a principal amount of 100 million dollars against 50 million pounds at expiration. The principal is also called notional principal. Another example is that of a 5-year interest rate swap in which one party pays 8% of the principal amount of 100 million dollars in exchange for receiving an interest payment indexed to a ﬂoating interest rate. In this case, since both payments are tied to the same principal amount, there is no exchange of principal at maturity. Swaps can be viewed as a portfolio of forward contracts. They can be priced using valuation formulas for forwards. Our currency swap, for instance, can be viewed as a combination of ten forward contracts with various face values, maturity dates, and rates of exchange. We will give detailed examples in later chapters.

5.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 5-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 49/Capital Markets a) Using annual compounding, (1 Ⳮ r )1 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ 0.055) ⳱ 1.055 and (1 Ⳮ r ⴱ )1 ⳱ 1.025. The spot rate of 1.05 is expressed in dollars per euro, S ($冫 EUR ). From Equation (5.6), we have F ⳱ S ($冫 EUR ) ⫻ (1 Ⳮ r )τ 冫 (1 Ⳮ r ⴱ )τ ⳱ $1.05 ⫻ 1.055冫 1.025 ⳱ $1.08073. Intuitively, since the euro interest rate is lower than the dollar interest rate, the euro must be selling at a higher price in the forward than in the spot market. Example 5-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 31/Capital Markets a) We need ﬁrst to compute the PV of the dividend payment, which is PV(D ) ⳱ $1.8exp(⫺0.04 ⫻ 4冫 12) ⳱ $1.776. By Equation (5.4), we have F ⳱ [S ⫺ PV(D )]exp(r τ ). Hence, F ⳱ ($98 ⫺ $1.776)exp(0.045 ⫻ 8冫 12) ⳱ $99.15. Example 5-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 93 b) Assuming continuous compounding, the present value factor is PV ⳱ exp(⫺0.05) ⳱ 0.951. Here, the storage cost C is equivalent to a negative dividend and must be evaluated as of now. This gives PV(C ) ⳱ $5 ⫻ 0.951 ⳱ $4.756. Generalizing Equation (5.4), we have F ⳱ (S Ⳮ PV(C ))冫 PV($1) ⳱ ($290 Ⳮ $4.756)冫 0.951 ⳱ $309.87. Assuming discrete compounding gives $309.5, which is close.

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Example 5-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 4/Capital Markets d) The theoretical forward/futures rate is given by F ⳱ Ser τ ⳱ 378.85 ⫻ exp(0.0528 ⫻ 180冫 365) ⳱ $388.844 with continuous compounding. Discrete compounding gives a close answer, $388.71. This is consistent with the observation that futures rates must be greater than spot rates when there is no income on the underlying asset. The proﬁt is then 100 ⫻ (388.84 ⫺ 387.20) ⳱ 164.4. Example 5-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 41/Capital Markets a) The forward price is too high relative to the fair rate, so we need to sell the forward contract. In exchange, we need to buy the asset. To ensure a zero initial cash ﬂow, we need to borrow the present value of the asset. Example 5-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 7/Capital Markets b) The convexity effect is important for long-dated contracts, so (d) is wrong. This positive correlation makes it more beneﬁcial to have a long futures position since proﬁts can be reinvested at higher rates. Hence the futures price must be higher than the forward price. Note that the relationship assumed here is the opposite to that of Eurodollar futures contracts, where the value of the asset is negatively correlated with interest rates.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 6 Options This chapter now turns to nonlinear derivatives, or options. As described in Table 5-1, options account for a large part of the derivatives markets. On organized exchanges, options represent $14 trillion out of a total of $24 trillion in derivatives outstanding. Over-the-counter (OTC) options add up to more than $15 trillion. Although the concept behind these instruments are not new, options have blossomed since the early 1970s, because of a break-through in pricing options, the BlackScholes formula, and to advances in computing power. We start with plain, vanilla options, calls and puts. These are the basic building blocks of many ﬁnancial instruments. They are also more common than complicated, exotic options. This chapter describes the general characteristics as well as the pricing of these derivatives. Section 6.1 presents the payoff functions on basic options and combinations thereof. We then discuss option premiums and the Black-Scholes pricing approach in Section 6.2. Next, Section 6.3 brieﬂy summarizes more complex options. Finally, Section 6.4 shows how to value options using a numerical, binomial tree model. We will cover option sensitivities (the “Greeks”) in Chapter 15.

6.1 6.1.1

Option Payoffs Basic Options

Options are instruments that give their holder the right to buy or sell an asset at a speciﬁed price until a speciﬁed expiration date. The speciﬁed delivery price is known as the delivery price, exercise price, or strike price, and is denoted by K . Options to buy are call options; options to sell are put options. As options confer a right to the purchaser of the option, but not an obligation, they will be exercised only if they generate proﬁts. In contrast, forwards involve an obligation to either buy or sell and can generate proﬁts or losses. Like forward contracts, options can be either purchased or sold. In the latter case, the seller is said to write the option.

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Depending on the timing of exercise, options can be classiﬁed into European or American options. European options can be exercised at maturity only. American options can be exercised at any time, before or at maturity. Because American options include the right to exercise at maturity, they must be at least as valuable as European options. In practice, however, the value of this early exercise feature is small, as an investor can generally receive better value by reselling the option on the open market instead of exercising it. We use these notations, in addition to those in the previous chapter: K ⳱exercise price c ⳱value of European call option C ⳱value of American call option p ⳱value of European put option P ⳱value of American put option To illustrate, take an option on an asset that currently trades at $85 with a delivery price of $100 in one year. If the spot price stays at $85, the holder of the call will not exercise the option, because the option is not proﬁtable with a stock price less than $100. In contrast, if the price goes to $120, the holder will exercise the right to buy at $100, will acquire the stock now worth $120, and will enjoy a “paper” proﬁt of $20. This proﬁt can be realized by selling the stock. For put options, a proﬁt accrues if the spot price falls below the exercise price K ⳱ $100. Thus the payoff proﬁle of a long position in the call option at expiration is CT ⳱ Max(ST ⫺ K, 0)

(6.1)

The payoff proﬁle of a long position in a put option is PT ⳱ Max(K ⫺ ST , 0)

(6.2)

If the current asset price St is close to the strike price K , the option is said to be atthe-money. If the current asset price St is such that the option could be exercised at a proﬁt, the option is said to be in-the-money. If the remaining situation, the option is said to be out-of-the-money. A call will be in-the-money if St ⬎ K ; a put will be in-the-money if St ⬍ K ; As in the case of forward contracts, the payoff at expiration can be cash settled. Instead of actually buying the asset, the contract could simply pay $20 if the price of the asset is $120.

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Because buying options can generate only proﬁts (at worst zero) at expiration, an option contract must be a valuable asset (or at worst have zero value). This means that a payment is needed to acquire the contract. This up-front payment, which is much like an insurance premium, is called the option “premium.” This premium cannot be negative. An option becomes more expensive as it moves in-the-money. Thus the payoffs on options must take into account this cost (for long positions) or beneﬁt (for short positions). To be complete, we should translate all option payoffs by the future value of the premium, that is, cer τ for European call options. Figure 6-1 compares the payoff patterns on long and short positions in a call and a put contract. Unlike those of forwards, these payoffs are nonlinear in the underlying spot price. Sometimes they are referred to as the “hockey stick” diagrams. This is because forwards are obligations, whereas options are rights. Note that the positions are symmetrical around the horizontal axis. For a given spot price, the sum of the proﬁt or loss for the long and for the short is zero. So far, we have covered options on cash instruments. Options can also be struck on futures. When exercising a call, the investor becomes long the futures at a price set to the strike price. Conversely, exercising a put creates a short position in the futures contract. FIGURE 6-1 Proﬁt Payoffs on Long and Short Calls and Puts Buy call

Buy put

Sell call

Sell put

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Because positions in futures are equivalent to leveraged positions in the underlying cash instrument, options on cash instruments and on futures are also equivalent. The only conceptual difference lies in the income payment to the underlying instrument. With an option on cash, the income is the dividend or interest on the cash instrument. In contrast, with a futures contract, the economically equivalent stream of income is the riskless interest rate. The intuition is that a futures can be viewed as equivalent to a position in the underlying asset with the investor setting aside an amount of cash equivalent to the present value of F .

6.1.2

Put-Call Parity

AM FL Y

Key concept: With an option on futures, the implicit income is the risk-free rate of interest.

These option payoffs can be used as the basic building blocks for more complex positions. At the most basic level, a long position in the underlying asset (plus some borrowing) can be decomposed into a long call plus a short put, as shown in Figure

TE

6-2. We only consider European options with the same maturity and exercise price. The long call provides the equivalent of the upside while the short put generates the same downside risk as holding the asset. FIGURE 6-2 Decomposing a Long Position in the Asset Buy call

Sell put

Long asset

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This link creates a relationship between the value of the call and that of the put, also known as put-call parity. The relationship is illustrated in Table 6-1, which examines the payoff at initiation and at expiration under the two possible states of the world. We assume no income payment on the underlying asset. The portfolio consists of a long position in the call (with an outﬂow of c represented by ⫺c ), a short position in the put and an investment to ensure that we will be able to pay the exercise price at maturity. TABLE 6-1 Put-Call Parity Position: Buy call Sell put Invest Total

Initial Payoff ⫺c Ⳮp

⫺Ke⫺r τ ⫺c Ⳮ p ⫺ Ke⫺r τ

Final Payoff ST ⬍ K ST ⱖ K 0 ST ⫺ K 0 ⫺(K ⫺ ST ) K K ST ST

The table shows that the ﬁnal payoffs are, in the two states of the world, equal to that of a long position in the asset. Hence, to avoid arbitrage, the initial payoff must be equal to the cost of buying the underlying asset, which is St . We have ⫺c Ⳮp ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ ⫺St . More generally, with income paid at the rate of r ⴱ , put-call parity can be written as c ⫺ p ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ (F ⫺ K )e⫺r τ

(6.3)

Because c ⱖ 0 and p ⱖ 0, this relationship can be also used to determine the lower bounds for European calls and puts. Note that the relationship does not hold exactly for American options since there is a likelihood of early exercise, which leads to mismatched payoffs. Example 6-1. FRM Exam 1999----Question 35/Capital Markets 6-1. According to put-call parity, writing a put is like a) Buying a call, buying stock, and lending b) Writing a call, buying stock, and borrowing c) Writing a call, buying stock, and lending d) Writing a call, selling stock, and borrowing

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Example 6-2. FRM Exam 2000----Question 15/Capital Markets 6-2. A six-month call option sells for $30, with a strike price of $120. If the stock price is $100 per share and the risk-free interest rate is 5 percent, what is the price of a 6-month put option with a strike price of $120? a) $39.20 b) $44.53 c) $46.28 d) $47.04

6.1.3

Combination of Options

Options can be combined in different ways, either with each other or with the underlying asset. Consider ﬁrst combinations of the underlying asset and an option. A long position in the stock can be accompanied by a short sale of a call to collect the option premium. This operation, called a covered call, is described in Figure 6-3. Likewise, a long position in the stock can be accompanied by a purchase of a put to protect the downside. This operation is called a protective put. FIGURE 6-3 Creating a Covered Call Long asset

Sell call

Covered call

We can also combine a call and a put with the same or different strike prices and maturities. When the strike prices of the call and the put and their maturities are the same, the combination is referred to as a straddle. When the strike prices are

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different, the combination is referred to as a strangle. Since strangles are out-of-themoney, they are cheaper to buy than straddles. Figure 6-4 shows how to construct a long straddle, buying a call and a put with the same maturity and strike price. This position is expected to beneﬁt from a large price move, whether up or down. The reverse position is a short straddle. FIGURE 6-4 Creating a Long Straddle Buy call

Buy put

Long straddle

Thus far, we have concentrated on positions involving two classes of options. One can, however, establish positions with one class of options, called spreads. Calendar, or horizontal spreads correspond to different maturities. Vertical spreads correspond to different strike prices. The names of the spreads are derived from the manner in which they are listed in newspapers; time is listed horizontally and strike prices are listed vertically. For instance, a bull spread is positioned to take advantage of an increase in the price of the underlying asset. Conversely, a bear spread represents a bet on a falling price. Figure 6-5 shows how to construct a bull(ish) vertical spread with two calls with the same maturity (although this could also be constructed with puts). Here, the spread is formed by buying a call option with a low exercise price K1 and selling another call with a higher exercise price K2 . Note that the cost of the ﬁrst call c (S, K1 ) must exceed the cost of the second call c (S, K2 ), because the ﬁrst option is more inthe-money than the second. Hence, the sum of the two premiums represents a net

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cost. At expiration, when ST ⬎ K2 , the payoff is Max(ST ⫺ K1 , 0) ⫺ Max(ST ⫺ K2 , 0) ⳱ (ST ⫺ K1 ) ⫺ (ST ⫺ K2 ) ⳱ K2 ⫺ K1 , which is positive. Thus this position is expected to beneﬁt from an upmove, while incurring only limited downside risk. FIGURE 6-5 Creating a Bull Spread Buy call

Sell call

Bull spread

Spreads involving more than two positions are referred to as butterﬂy or sandwich spreads. The latter is the opposite of the former. A butterﬂy spread involves three types of options with the same maturity: a long call at a strike price K1 , two short calls at a higher strike price K2 , and a long call position at an even higher strike price K3 . We can verify that this position is expected to beneﬁt when the underlying asset price stays stable, close to K2 . Example 6-3. FRM Exam 2001----Question 90 6-3. Which of the following is the riskiest form of speculation using options contracts? a) Setting up a spread using call options b) Buying put options c) Writing naked call options d) Writing naked put options

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Example 6-4. FRM Exam 1999----Question 50/Capital Markets 6-4. A covered call writing position is equivalent to a) A long position in the stock and a long position in the call option b) A short put position c) A short position in the stock and a long position in the call option d) A short call position

Example 6-5. FRM Exam 1999----Question 33/Capital Markets 6-5. Which of the following will create a bull spread? a) Buy a put with a strike price of X ⳱ 50, and sell a put with K ⳱ 55. b) Buy a put with a strike price of X ⳱ 55, and sell a put with K ⳱ 50. c) Buy a call with a premium of 5, and sell a call with a premium of 7. d) Buy a call with a strike price of X ⳱ 50, and sell a put with K ⳱ 55.

Example 6-6. FRM Exam 2000----Question 5/Capital Markets 6-6. Consider a bullish spread option strategy of buying one call option with a $30 exercise price at a premium of $3 and writing a call option with a $40 exercise price at a premium of $1.50. If the price of the stock increases to $42 at expiration and the option is exercised on the expiration date, the net proﬁt per share at expiration (ignoring transaction costs) will be a) $8.50 b) $9.00 c) $9.50 d) $12.50

Example 6-7. FRM Exam 2001----Question 111 6-7. Consider the following bearish option strategy of buying one at-the-money put with a strike price of $43 for $6, selling two puts with a strike price of $37 for $4 each and buying one put with a strike price of $32 for $1. If the stock price plummets to $19 at expiration, calculate the net proﬁt or loss per share of the strategy. a) ⫺2.00 per share b) Zero; no proﬁt or loss c) 1.00 per share d) 2.00 per share

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PART II: CAPITAL MARKETS

Valuing Options Option Premiums

So far, we have examined the payoffs at expiration only. As important is the instantaneous relationship between the option value and the current price S , which is displayed in Figures 6-6 and 6-7. FIGURE 6-6 Relationship between Call Value and Spot Price Option value

Premium

Time value Intrinsic value Strike Out-of-the-money

At-the-money

In-the-money

For a call, a higher price S increases the current value of the option, but in a nonlinear, convex fashion. For a put, lower values for S increase the value of the option, also in a convex fashion. As time goes by, the curved line approaches the hockey stick line. Figures 6-6 and 6-7 decompose the current premium into: ● An intrinsic value, which basically consists of the value of the option if exercised today, or Max(St ⫺ K, 0) for a call, and Max(K ⫺ St , 0) for a put ● A time value, which consists of the remainder, reﬂecting the possibility that the option will create further gains in the future

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FIGURE 6-7 Relationship between Put Value and Spot Price Option value

Premium Time value Intrinsic value Spot

Strike In-the-money

At-the-money

Out-of-the-money

As shown in the ﬁgures, options are also classiﬁed into: ● At-the-money, when the current spot price is close to the strike price ● In-the-money, when the intrinsic value is large ● Out-of-the-money, when the spot price is much below the strike price for calls and conversely for puts (out-of-the-money options have zero intrinsic value) We can also identify some general bounds for European options that should always be satisﬁed; otherwise there would be an arbitrage opportunity (a money machine). For simplicity, assume no dividend. First, the value of a call must be less than, or equal to, the asset price: c ⱕ C ⱕ St

(6.4)

In the limit, an option with zero exercise price is equivalent to holding the stock. Second, the value of a call must be greater than, or equal to, the price of the asset minus the present value of the strike price: c ⱖ St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ

(6.5)

To prove this, Table 6-2 considers the ﬁnal payoffs for two portfolios: (1) a long call and (2) a long stock with a loan of K . In each case, an outﬂow, or payment, is represented with a negative sign. A receipt has a positive sign.

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We consider the two states of the world, ST ⬍ K and ST ⱖ K . In the state where ST ⱖ K , the call is exercised and the two portfolios have exactly the same value, which is ST ⫺ K . In the state where ST ⬍ K , however, the second portfolio has a negative value and is worth less than the value of the call, which is zero. Since the payoffs on the call dominate those on the second portfolio, buying the call must be more expensive. Hence the initial cost of the call c must be greater than, or equal to, the up-front cost of the portfolio, which is St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ . TABLE 6-2 Lower Option Bound for a Call Position: Buy call Buy asset Borrow Total

Initial Payoff ⫺c ⫺ St ⳭKe⫺r τ ⫺S Ⳮ Ke⫺r τ

Final Payoff S T ⬍ K ST ⱖ K ST ⫺ K 0 ST ST ⫺K ⫺K ST ⫺ K ⬍ 0 ST ⫺ K

Note that, since e⫺r τ ⬍ 1, we must have St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⬎ St ⫺ K before expiration. Thus St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ is a better lower bound than St ⫺ K . We can also describe upper and lower bounds for put options. The value of a put cannot be worth more than K p ⱕP ⱕK

(6.6)

which is the upper bound if the price falls to zero. Using an argument similar to that in Table 6-2, we can show that the value of a European put must satisfy the following lower bound p ⱖ Ke⫺r τ ⫺ St

6.2.2

(6.7)

Early Exercise of Options

These relationships can be used to assess the value of early exercise for American options. An American call on a non-dividend-paying stock will never be exercised early. Recall that the choice is not between exercising or not, but rather between exercising the option and selling it on the open market. By exercising, the holder gets exactly St ⫺ K . ¿From Equation (6.5), the current value of a European call must satisfy c ⱖ St ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ,

which is strictly greater than St ⫺ K . Since the European call is a lower bound

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on the American call, it is never optimal to exercise early such American options. The American call is always worth more alive, that is, nonexercised, than dead, that is, exercised. As a result, the value of the American feature is zero and we always have ct ⳱ Ct . The only reason one would want to exercise early a call is to capture a dividend payment. Intuitively, a high income payment makes holding the asset more attractive than holding the option. Thus American options on income-paying assets may be exercised early. Note that this applies also to options on futures, since the implied income stream on the underlying is the risk-free rate. Key concept: An American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock (or asset with no income) should never be exercised early. If the asset pays income, early exercise may occur, with a probability that increases with the size of the income payment. For an American put, we must have P ⱖ K ⫺ St

(6.8)

because it could be exercised now. Unlike the relationship for calls, this lower bound K ⫺ St is strictly greater than the lower bound for European puts Ke⫺r τ ⫺ St . So, we could have early exercise. To decide whether to exercise early or not, the holder of the option has to balance the beneﬁt of exercising, which is to receive K now instead of later, against the loss of killing the time value of the option. Because it is better to receive money now than later, it may be worth exercising the put option early. Thus, American puts on nonincome paying assets may be exercised early, unlike calls. This translates into pt ⱕ Pt . With an increased income payment on the asset, the probability of early exercise decreases, as it becomes less attractive to sell the asset. Key concept: An American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock (or asset with no income) may be exercised early. If the asset pays income, the possibility of early exercise decreases with the size of the income payments.

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Example 6-8. FRM Exam 1998----Question 58/Capital Markets 6-8. Which of the following statements about options on futures is true? a) An American call is equal in value to a European call. b) An American put is equal in value to a European put. c) Put-call parity holds for both American and European options. d) None of the above statements are true.

AM FL Y

Example 6-9. FRM Exam 1999----Question 34/Capital Markets 6-9. What is the lower pricing bound for a European call option with a strike price of 80 and one year until expiration? The price of the underlying asset is 90, and the one-year interest rate is 5% per annum. Assume continuous compounding of interest. a) 14.61 b) 13.90 c) 10.00 d) 5.90

TE

Example 6-10. FRM Exam 1999----Question 52/Capital Markets 6-10. The price of an American call stock option is equal to an otherwise equivalent European call stock option at time t when: I) The stock pays continuous dividends from t to option expiration T. II) The interest rates follow a mean-reverting process between t and T. III) The stock pays no dividends from t to option expiration T. IV) Interest rates are nonstochastic between t and T. a) II and IV b) III only c) I and III d) None of the above; an American option is always worth more than a European option.

6.2.3

Black-Scholes Valuation

We now brieﬂy introduce the pricing of conventional European call and put options. Initially, we focus on valuation. We will discuss sensitivities to risk factors later, in Chapter 15 that deals with risk management. To illustrate the philosophy of option pricing methods, consider a call option on a stock whose price is represented by a binomial process. The initial price of S0 ⳱ $100 can only move up or down, to two values (hence the “bi”), S1 ⳱ $150 or S2 ⳱ $50.

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The option is a call with K ⳱ $100, and therefore can only take values of c1 ⳱ $50 or c2 ⳱ $0. We assume that the rate of interest is r ⳱ 25%, so that a dollar invested now grows to $1.25 at maturity. S1 ⳱ $150

c1 ⳱ $50

S2 ⳱ $50

c2 ⳱ $0

w S0 ⳱ $100 E

The key idea of derivatives pricing is that of replication. In other words, we exactly replicate the payoff on the option by a suitable portfolio of the underlying asset plus some borrowing. This is feasible in this simple setup because have 2 states of the world and 2 instruments, the stock and the bond. To prevent arbitrage, the current value of the derivative must be the same as that of the portfolio. The portfolio consists of n shares and a risk-free investment currently valued at B (a negative value implies borrowing). We set c1 ⳱ nS1 Ⳮ B , or $50 ⳱ n$150 Ⳮ B and c2 ⳱ nS2 Ⳮ B , or $0 ⳱ n$50 Ⳮ B and solve the 2 by 2 system, which gives n ⳱ 0.5 and B ⳱ ⫺$25. At time t ⳱ 0, the value of the loan is B0 ⳱ $25冫 1.25 ⳱ $20. The current value of the portfolio is nS0 Ⳮ B0 ⳱ 0.5 ⫻ $100 ⫺ $20 ⳱ $30. Hence the current value of the option must be c0 ⳱ $30. This derivation shows the essence of option pricing methods. Note that we did not need the actual probabilities of an upmove. Furthermore, we could write the current value of the stock as the discounted expected payoff assuming investors were risk-neutral: S0 ⳱ [p ⫻ S1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ p) ⫻ S2 ]冫 (1 Ⳮ r ) Solving for 100 ⳱ [p ⫻ 150 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ p) ⫻ 50]冫 1.25, we ﬁnd a risk-neutral probability of p ⳱ 0.75. We now value the option in the same fashion: c0 ⳱ [0.75 ⫻ $50 Ⳮ 0.25 ⫻ $0]冫 1.25 ⳱ $30 This simple example illustrates a very important concept, which is that of risk-neutral pricing. We can price the derivative, like the underlying asset, assuming discount rates and growth rates are the same as the risk-free rate. The Black-Scholes (BS) model is an application of these ideas that provides an elegant closed-form solution to the pricing of European calls. The derivation of the

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model is based on four assumptions: Black-Scholes Model Assumptions: (1) The price of the underlying asset moves in a continuous fashion. (2) Interest rates are known and constant. (3) The variance of underlying asset returns is constant. (4) Capital markets are perfect (i.e., short-sales are allowed, there are no transaction costs or taxes, and markets operate continuously). The most important assumption behind the model is that prices are continuous. This rules out discontinuities in the sample path, such as jumps, which cannot be hedged in this model. The statistical process for the asset price is modeled by a geometric Brownian motion: over a very short time interval, dt , the logarithmic return has a normal distribution with mean = µdt and variance = σ 2 dt . The total return can be modeled as dS 冫 S ⳱ µdt Ⳮ σ dz

(6.9)

where the ﬁrst term represents the drift component, and the second is the stochastic component, with dz distributed normally with mean zero and variance dt . This process implies that the logarithm of the ending price is distributed as ln(ST ) ⳱ ln(S0 ) Ⳮ (µ ⫺ σ 2 冫 2)τ Ⳮ σ 冪τ

(6.10)

where is a N (0, 1) random variable. Based on these assumptions, Black and Scholes (1972) derived a closed-form formula for European options on a non-dividend-paying stock, called the Black-Scholes model. Merton (1973) expanded their model to the case of a stock paying a continuous dividend yield. Garman and Kohlhagen (1983) extended the formula to foreign currencies, reinterpreting the yield as the foreign rate of interest, in what is called the Garman-Kohlhagen model. The Black model (1976) applies the same formula to options on futures, reinterpreting the yield as the domestic risk-free rate and the spot price as the forward price. In each case, µ represents the capital appreciation return, i.e. without any income payment. The key point of the analysis is that a position in the option can be replicated by a “delta” position in the underlying asset. Hence, a portfolio combining the asset and the option in appropriate proportions is “locally” risk-free, that is, for small movements in prices. To avoid arbitrage, this portfolio must return the risk-free rate.

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As a result, we can directly compute the present value of the derivative as the discounted expected payoff ft ⳱ ERN [e⫺r τ F (ST )]

(6.11)

where the underlying asset is assumed to grow at the risk-free rate, and the discounting is also done at the risk-free rate. Here, the subscript RN refers to the fact that the analysis assumes risk neutrality. In a risk-neutral world, the expected return on all securities must be the risk-free rate of interest, r . The reason is that risk-neutral investors do not require a risk premium to induce them to take risks. The BS model value can be computed assuming that all payoffs grow at the risk-free rate and are discounted at the same risk-free rate. This risk-neutral valuation approach is without a doubt the most important tool in derivatives pricing. Before the Black-Scholes breakthrough, Samuelson had derived a very similar model in 1965, but with the asset growing at the rate µ and discounting as some other rate µ ⴱ .1 Because µ and µ ⴱ are unknown, the Samuelson model was not practical. The risk-neutral valuation is merely an artiﬁcial method to obtain the correct solution, however. It does not imply that investors are in fact risk-neutral. Furthermore, this approach has limited uses for risk management. The BS model can be used to derive the risk-neutral probability of exercising the option. For risk management, however, what matters is the actual probability of exercise, also called physical probability. This can differ from the BS probability. In the case of a European call, the ﬁnal payoff is F (ST ) ⳱ Max(ST ⫺ K, 0). If the asset pays a continuous income of r ⴱ , the current value of the call is given by: c ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

N (d1 ) ⫺ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 )

(6.12)

where N (d ) is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution: N (d ) ⳱

冮

d

⫺⬁

⌽(x)dx ⳱

1

冮 冪2π

d

⫺⬁

1 2

e⫺ 2 x dx

with ⌽ deﬁned as the standard normal density function. N (d ) is also the area to the left of a standard normal variable with value equal to d , as shown in Figure 6-8. Note that, since the normal density is symmetrical, N (d ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ N (⫺d ), or the area to the left of d is the same as the area to the right of ⫺d . 1

Samuelson, Paul (1965), Rational Theory of Warrant Price, Industrial Management Review 6, 13–39.

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FIGURE 6-8 Cumulative Distribution Function Probability density function Φ (d)

1

N(d1 )

Delta 0.5

0

d1

The values of d1 and d2 are: d1 ⳱

ln (Se⫺r

ⴱτ

冫 Ke⫺r τ )

σ 冪τ

Ⳮ

σ 冪τ , 2

d 2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ 冪 τ

By put-call parity, the European put option value is p ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

[N (d1 ) ⫺ 1] ⫺ Ke⫺r τ [N (d2 ) ⫺ 1]

(6.13)

Example: Computing the Black-Scholes value Consider an at-the-money call on a stock worth S ⳱ $100, with a strike price of K ⳱ $100 and maturity of six months. The stock has annual volatility of σ ⳱ 20% and pays no dividend. The risk-free rate is r ⳱ 5%. First, we compute the present value factor, which is e⫺r τ ⳱ exp(⫺0.05 ⫻ 6冫 12) ⳱ 0.9753. We then compute the value of d1 ⳱ ln[S 冫 Ke⫺r τ ]冫 σ 冪τ Ⳮ σ 冪τ 冫 2 ⳱ 0.2475 and d2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ 冪τ ⳱ 0.1061. Using standard normal tables or the “=NORMSDIST” Excel function, we ﬁnd N (d1 ) ⳱ 0.5977 and N (d2 ) ⳱ 0.5422. Note that both values are greater than 0.5 since d1 and d2 are both positive. The option is at-the-money. As S is close to K , d1 is close to zero and N (d1 ) close to 0.5. The value of the call is c ⳱ SN (d1 ) ⫺ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 ) ⳱ $6.89.

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The value of the call can also be viewed as an equivalent position of N (d1 ) ⳱ 59.77% in the stock and some borrowing: c ⳱ $59.77 ⫺ $52.88 ⳱ $6.89. Thus this is a leveraged position in the stock. The value of the put is $4.42. Buying the call and selling the put costs $6.89 ⫺ $4.42 ⳱ $2.47. This indeed equals S ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ⳱ $100 ⫺ $97.53 ⳱ $2.47, which conﬁrms put-call parity. For options on futures, we simply replace S by F , the current futures quote and r ⴱ by r , the domestic risk-free rate. The Black model for the valuation of options on futures gives the following formula: c ⳱ [FN (d1 ) ⫺ KN (d2 )]e⫺r τ

(6.14)

We should note that Equation (6.12) can be reinterpreted in view of the discounting formula in a risk-neutral world, Equation (6.11) c ⳱ ERN [e⫺r τ Max(ST ⫺ K, 0)] ⳱ e⫺r τ [

冮

⬁

K

Sf (S )dS ] ⫺ Ke⫺r τ [

冮

⬁

f (S )dS ]

(6.15)

K

Matching this up with (6.12), we see that the term multiplying K is also the risk-neutral probability of exercising the call, or that the option will end up in-the-money: Risk ⫺ neutral probability of exercise ⳱ N (d2 )

(6.16)

The variable d2 is indeed linked to the exercise price. Setting ST to K in Equation (6.10), we have ln(K ) ⳱ ln(S0 ) Ⳮ (r ⫺ σ 2 冫 2)τ Ⳮ σ 冪τ ⴱ Solving, we ﬁnd ⴱ ⳱ ⫺d2 . The area to the left of d2 is therefore the same as the area to the right of ⴱ , which represents the risk-neutral probability of exercising the call. It is interesting to take the limit of Equation (6.12) as the option moves more inthe-money, that is, when the spot price S is much greater than K . In this case, d1 and d2 become very large and the functions N (d1 ) and N (d2 ) tend to unity. The value of the call then tends to c (S ⬎⬎ K ) ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

⫺ Ke⫺r τ

(6.17)

which is the valuation formula for a forward contract, Equation (5.6). A call that is deep in-the-money is equivalent to a long forward contract, because we are almost certain to exercise.

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Finally, we should note that standard options involve a choice to exchange cash for the asset. This is a special case of an exchange option, which involves the surrender of an asset (call it B ) in exchange for acquiring another (call it A). The payoff on such a call is cT ⳱ Max(STA ⫺ STB , 0)

(6.18)

where S A and S B are the respective spot prices. Some ﬁnancial instruments involve the maximum of the value of two assets, which is equivalent to a position in one asset plus an exchange option: Max(StA , StB ) ⳱ STB Ⳮ Max(STA ⫺ STB , 0)

(6.19)

Margrabe (1978) has shown that the valuation formula is similar to the usual model, except that K is replaced by the price of asset B (SB ), and the risk-free rate by the yield on asset B (yB ).2 The volatility σ is now that of the difference between the two assets, which is 2 σAB ⳱ σA2 Ⳮ σB2 ⫺ 2ρAB σA σB

(6.20)

These options also involve the correlation coefﬁcient. So, if we have a triplet of options, involving A, B , and the option to exchange B into A, we can compute σA , σB , and σAB . This allows us to infer the correlation coefﬁcient. The pricing formula is called the Margrabe model.

6.2.4

Market vs. Model Prices

In practice, the BS model is widely used to price options. All of the parameters are observable, except for the volatility. If we observe a market price, however, we can solve for the volatility parameter that sets the model price equal to the market price. This is called the implied standard deviation (ISD). If the model were correct, the ISD should be constant across strike prices. In fact, this is not what we observe. Plots of the ISD against the strike price display what is called a volatility smile pattern, meaning that ISDs increase for low and high values of K . This effect has been observed in a variety of markets, and can even change over time. Before the stock market crash of October 1987, for instance, the effect was minor. Since then, it has become more pronounced. 2

Margrabe, W. (1978), The Value of an Option to Exchange One Asset for Another, Journal of Finance 33, 177–186. See also Stulz, R. (1982), Options on the Minimum or the Maximum of Two Risky Assets: Analysis and Applications, Journal of Financial Economics 10, 161–185.

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Example 6-11. FRM Exam 2001----Question 91 6-11. Using the Black-Scholes model, calculate the value of a European call option given the following information: Spot rate = 100; Strike price = 110; Risk-free rate = 10%; Time to expiry = 0.5 years; N(d1) = 0.457185; N(d2) = 0.374163. a) $10.90 b) $9.51 c) $6.57 d) $4.92

Example 6-12. FRM Exam 1999----Question 55/Capital Markets 6-12. If the Garman-Kohlhagen formula is used for valuing options on a dividend-paying stock, then to be consistent with its assumptions, upon receipt of the dividend, the dividend should be a) Placed into a noninterest bearing account b) Placed into an interest bearing account at the risk-free rate assumed in the G-K model c) Used to purchase more stock of the same company d) Placed into an interest bearing account, paying interest equal to the dividend yield of the stock

Example 6-13. FRM Exam 1998----Question 2/Quant. Analysis 6-13. In the Black-Scholes expression for a European call option the term used to compute option probability of exercise is a) d1 b) d2 c) N (d1 ) d) N (d2 )

6.3

Other Option Contracts

The options described so far are standard, plain-vanilla options. Since the 1970s, however, markets have developed more complex option types. Binary options, also called digital options pay a ﬁxed amount, say Q, if the asset price ends up above the strike price cT ⳱ Q ⫻ I (ST ⫺ K )

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where I (x) is an indicator variable that takes the value of 1 if x ⬎ 0 and 0 otherwise. Because the probability of ending in the money in a risk-neutral world is N (d2 ), the initial value of this option is simply c ⳱ Qe⫺r τ N (d2 )

(6.22)

These options involve a sharp discontinuity around the strike price. As a result, they are quite difﬁcult to hedge since the value of the option cannot be smoothly replicated by a changing position in the underlying asset. Another important class of options are barrier options. Barrier options are options where the payoff depends on the value of the asset hitting a barrier during a certain period of time. A knock-out option disappears if the price hits a certain barrier. A knock-in option comes into existence when the price hits a certain barrier. An example of a knock-out option is the down-and-out call. This disappears if S hits a speciﬁed level H during its life. In this case, the knock-out price H must be lower than the initial price S0 . The option that appears at H is the down-and-in call. With identical parameters, the two options are perfectly complementary. When one disappears, the other appears. As a result, these two options must add up to a regular call option. Similarly, an up-and-out call ceases to exist when S reaches H ⬎ S0 . The complementary option is the up-and-in call. Figure 6-9 compares price paths for the four possible combinations of calls. The left panels involve the same underlying sample path. For the down-and-out call, the only relevant part is the one starting from S (0) until it hits the barrier. In all ﬁgures, the dark line describes the relevant price path, during which the option is alive; the grey line describes the remaining path. The call is not exercised even though the ﬁnal price ST is greater than the strike price. Conversely, the down-and-in call comes into existence precisely when the other one dies. Thus at initiation, the value of these two options must add up to a regular European call c ⳱ cDO Ⳮ cDI

(6.23)

Because all these values are positive (or at worst zero), the value of cDO and cDI each must be no greater than that of c . A similar reasoning applies to the two options in the right panels. Similar combinations exist for put options. An up-and-out put ceases to exist when S reaches H ⬎ S0 . A down-and-out put ceases to exist when S reaches H ⬍ S0 .

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Barrier options are attractive because they are “cheaper” than the equivalent ordinary option. This, of course, reﬂects the fact that they are less likely to be exercised than other options. These options are also difﬁcult to hedge due to the fact that a discontinuity arises as the spot price get closer to the barrier. Just above the barrier, the option has positive value. For a very small movement in the asset price, going below the barrier, this value disappears. FIGURE 6-9 Paths for Knock-out and Knock-in Call Options

Down and out call

Up and out call Barrier

Strike

S(0)

S(0) Strike

Barrier Time

Time

Down and in call

Up and in call Barrier

Strike

S(0) Strike

S(0) Barrier Time

Time

Finally, another widely used class of options are Asian options. Asian options, or average rate options, generate payoffs that depend on the average value of the underlying spot price during the life of the option, instead of the ending value. The ﬁnal payoff for a call is cT ⳱ Max(SAVE (t, T ) ⫺ K, 0)

(6.24)

Because an average is less variable than an instantaneous value, such options are “cheaper” than regular options due to lower volatility. In fact, the price of the option can be treated like that of an ordinary option with the volatility set equal to σ 冫 冪3 and an adjustment to the dividend yield.3 As a result of the averaging process, such 3

This is only strictly true when the averaging is a geometric average. In practice, average options involve an arithmetic average, for which there is no analytic solution; the lower volatility adjustment is just an approximation.

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options are easier to hedge than ordinary options. Example 6-14. FRM Exam 1998----Question 4/Capital Markets 6-14. A knock-in barrier option is harder to hedge when it is a) In the money b) Out of the money c) At the barrier and near maturity d) At the inception of the trade

6.4

AM FL Y

Example 6-15. FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Derivatives 6-15. Knockout options are often used instead of regular options because a) Knockouts have a lower volatility. b) Knockouts have a lower premium. c) Knockouts have a shorter maturity on average. d) Knockouts have a smaller gamma.

Valuing Options by Numerical Methods

Some options have analytical solutions, such as the Black-Scholes models for Euro-

TE

pean vanilla options. For more general options, however, we need to use numerical methods.

The basic valuation formula for derivatives is Equation (6.11), which states that the current value is the discounted present value of expected cash ﬂows, where all assets grow at the risk-free rate and are discounted at the same risk-free rate. We can use the Monte Carlo simulation methods presented in Chapter 4 to generate sample paths, ﬁnal option values, and discount them into the present. Such simulation methods can be used for European or even path-dependent options, such as Asian options. Simulation methods, however, cannot account for the possibility of early exercise. Instead, binomial trees must be used to value American options. As explained previously, the method consists of chopping up the time horizon into n intervals ⌬t and setting up the tree so that the characteristics of price movements ﬁt the lognormal distribution. At each node, the initial price S can go up to uS with probability p or down to dS with probability (1 ⫺ p). The parameters u, d, p are chosen so that, for a small time interval, the expected return and variance equal those of the continuous process. One

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could choose, for instance, u ⳱ eσ 冪⌬t ,

d ⳱ (1冫 u),

p⳱

eµ ⌬t ⫺ d u⫺d

(6.25)

Since this a risk-neutral process, the total expected return must be equal to the riskfree rate r . Allowing for an income payment of r ⴱ , this gives µ ⳱ r ⫺ r ⴱ . The tree is built starting from the current time to maturity, from the left to the right. Next, the derivative is valued by starting at the end of the tree, and working backward to the initial time, from the right to the left. Consider ﬁrst a European call option. At time T (maturity) and node j , the call option is worth Max(ST j ⫺ K, 0). At time T ⫺ 1 and node j , the call option is the discounted expected value of the option at time T and nodes j and j Ⳮ 1: cT ⫺1,j ⳱ e⫺r ⌬t [pcT ,jⳭ1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ p)cT ,j ]

(6.26)

We then work backward through the tree until the current time. For American options, the procedure is slightly different. At each point in time, the holder compares the value of the option alive and dead (i.e., exercised). The American call option value at node T ⫺ 1, j is CT ⫺1,j ⳱ Max[(ST ⫺1,j ⫺ K ), cT ⫺1,j ]

(6.27)

Example: Computing an American option value Consider an at-the-money call on a foreign currency with a spot price of $100, a strike price of K ⳱ $100, and a maturity of six months. The annualized volatility is σ ⳱ 20%. The domestic interest rate is r ⳱ 5%; the foreign rate is r ⴱ ⳱ 8%. Note that we require an income payment for the American feature to be valuable. First, we divide the period into 4 intervals, for instance, so that ⌬t ⳱ 0.125. The discounting factor over one interval is e⫺r ⌬t ⳱ 0.9938. We then compute: u ⳱ eσ 冪⌬t ⳱ e0.20 冪0.125 ⳱ 1.0733, d ⳱ (1冫 u) ⳱ 0.9317, a ⳱ e(r ⫺r p⳱

ⴱ )⌬t

⳱ e(⫺0.03)0.125 ⳱ 0.9963,

a⫺d ⳱ (0.9963 ⫺ 0.9317)冫 (1.0733 ⫺ 0.9317) ⳱ 0.4559. u⫺d

The procedure is detailed in Table 6-3. First, we lay out the tree for the spot price, starting with S ⳱ 100 at time t ⳱ 0, then uS ⳱ 107.33 and dS ⳱ 93.17 at time t ⳱ 1, and so on.

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This allows us to value the European call. We start from the end, at time t ⳱ 4, and set the call price to c ⳱ S ⫺ K ⳱ 132.69 ⫺ 100.00 ⳱ 32.69 for the highest spot price, 15.19 for the next rate and so on, down to c ⳱ 0 if the spot price is below K ⳱ 100.00. At the previous step and highest node, the value of the call is c ⳱ 0.9938[0.4559 ⫻ 32.69 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ 0.4559) ⫻ 15.19] ⳱ 23.02 Continuing through the tree to time 0 yields a European call value of $4.43. The BlackScholes formula gives an exact value of $4.76. Note how close the binomial approximation is, with just 4 steps. A ﬁner partition would quickly improve the approximation. TABLE 6-3 Computation of American option value Spot Price St

European Call ct

0 y

100.00 Y

4.43

1 y

107.33 93.17 Y

8.10 1.41

2 y

3 y

115.19 100.00 86.81 Y

123.63 107.33 93.17 80.89 Y

14.15 3.12 0.00

23.02 6.88 0.00 0.00

4 y 132.69 115.19 100.00 86.81 75.36 Y 32.69 15.19 0.00 0.00 0.00

Exercised Call St ⫺ K

American Call Ct

0.00 Y

4.74

7.33 0.00 Y

8.68 1.50

15.19 0.00 0.00 Y

23.63 7.33 0.00 0.00 Y

15.19 3.32 0.00

23.63 7.33 0.00 0.00

32.69 15.19 0.00 0.00 0.00 Y 32.69 15.19 0.00 0.00 0.00

Next, we examine the American call. At time t ⳱ 4, the values are the same as above since the call expires. At time t ⳱ 3 and node j ⳱ 4, the option holder can either keep

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the call, in which case the value is still $23.02, or exercise. When exercised, the option payoff is S ⫺ K ⳱ 123.63 ⫺ 100.00 ⳱ 23.63. Since this is greater than the value of the option alive, the holder should optimally exercise the option. We replace the European option value by $23.63. Continuing through the tree in the same fashion, we ﬁnd a starting value of $4.74. The value of the American call is slightly greater than the European call price, as expected.

6.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 6-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 35/Capital Markets b) A short put position is equivalent to a long asset position plus shorting a call. To fund the purchase of the asset, we need to borrow. This is because the value of the call or put is small relative to the value of the asset. Example 6-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 15/Capital Markets d) By put-call parity, p ⳱ c ⫺ (S ⫺ Ke⫺r τ ) ⳱ 30 ⫺ (100 ⫺ 120exp(⫺0.5 ⫻ 0.5)) ⳱ 30 Ⳮ 17.04 ⳱ 47.04. In the absence of other information, we had to assume these are European options, and that the stock pays no dividend. Example 6-3. FRM Exam 2001----Question 90 c) Long positions in options can lose at worst the premium, so (b) is wrong. Spreads involve long and short positions in options and have limited downside loss, so (a) is wrong. Writing options exposes the seller to very large losses. In the case of puts, the worst loss is the strike price K , if the asset price goes to zero. In the case of calls, however, the worst loss is in theory unlimited because there is a small probability of a huge increase in S . Between (c) and (d), (c) is the best answer. Example 6-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 50/Capital Markets b) A covered call is long the asset plus a short call. This preserves the downside but eliminates the upside, which is equivalent to a short put. Example 6-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 33/Capital Markets a) The purpose of a bull spread is to create a proﬁt when the underlying price increases. The strategy involves the same options but with different strike prices. It can be achieved with calls or puts. Answer (c) is incorrect as a bull spread based on calls

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involves buying a call with high premium and selling another with lower premium. Answer (d) is incorrect as it mixes a call and a put. Among the two puts p(K ⳱ $55) must have higher value than p(K ⳱ $50). If the spot price ends up above 55, none of the puts is exercised. The proﬁt must be positive, which implies selling the put with K ⳱ 55 and buying a put with K ⳱ 50. Example 6-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 5/Capital Markets a) The proceeds from exercise are ($42 ⫺ $30) ⫺ ($42 ⫺ $40) ⳱ $10. ¿From this should be deducted the net cost of the options, which is $3 ⫺ $1.5 ⳱ $1.5, ignoring the time value of money. This adds up to a net proﬁt of $8.50. Example 6-7. FRM Exam 2001----Question 111 d) All of the puts will be exercised, leading to a payoff of Ⳮ(43 ⫺ 19) ⫺ 2(37 ⫺ 19) Ⳮ (32 ⫺ 19) ⳱ Ⳮ1. To this, we add the premiums, or ⫺6 Ⳮ 2(4) ⫺ 1 ⳱ Ⳮ1. Ignoring the time value of money, the total payoff is $2. The same result holds for any value of S lower than 32. The fact that the strategy creates a proﬁt if the price falls explain why it is called bearish. Example 6-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 58/Capital Markets d) Futures have an “implied” income stream equal to the risk-free rate. As a result, an American call may be exercised early. Similarly, the American put may be exercised early. Also, the put-call parity only works when there is no possibility of early exercise, or with European options. Example 6-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 34/Capital Markets b) The call lower bound, when there is no income, is St ⫺Ke⫺r τ ⳱ $90⫺$80exp(⫺0.05 ⫻ 1) ⳱ $90 ⫺ $76.10 ⳱ $13.90. Example 6-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 52/Capital Markets b) An American call will not be exercised early when there is no income payment on the underlying asset. Example 6-11. FRM Exam 2001----Question 91 c) We use Equation (6.12) assuming there is no income payment on the asset. This gives c ⳱ SN (d1 ) ⫺ K exp(⫺r τ )N (d2 ) ⳱ 100 ⫻ 0.457185 ⫺ 110exp(⫺0.1 ⫻ 0.5) ⫻ 0.374163 ⳱ $6.568.

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Example 6-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 55/Capital Markets c) The GK formula assumes that income payments are reinvested in the stock itself. Answers (a) and (b) assume reinvestment at a zero and risk-free rate, which is incorrect. Answer (d) is not feasible. Example 6-13: FRM Exam 1998----Question 2/Quant. Analysis d) This is the term multiplying the present value of the strike price, by Equation (6.13). Example 6-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 4/Capital Markets c) Knock-in or knock-out options involve discontinuities, and are harder to hedge when the spot price is close to the barrier. Example 6-15: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Derivatives b) Knockouts are no different from regular options in terms of maturity or underlying volatility, but are cheaper than the equivalent European option since they involve a lower probability of ﬁnal exercise.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 7 Fixed-Income Securities The next two chapters provide an overview of ﬁxed-income markets, securities, and their derivatives. Originally, ﬁxed-income securities referred to bonds that promise to make ﬁxed coupon payments. Over time, this narrow deﬁnition has evolved to include any security that obligates the borrower to make speciﬁc payments to the bondholder on speciﬁed dates. Thus, a bond is a security that is issued in connection with a borrowing arrangement. In exchange for receiving cash, the borrower becomes obligated to make a series of payments to the bondholder. Fixed-income derivatives are instruments whose value derives from some bond price, interest rate, or other bond market variable. Due to their complexity, these instruments are analyzed in the next chapter. Section 7.1 provides an overview of the different segments of the bond market. Section 7.2 then introduces the various types of ﬁxed-income securities. Section 7.3 reviews the basic tools for analyzing ﬁxed-income securities, including the determination of cash ﬂows, the measurement of duration, and the term structure of interest rates and forward rates. Because of their importance, mortgage-backed securities (MBSs) are analyzed separately in Section 7.4. The section also discusses collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs), which illustrate the creativity of ﬁnancial engineering.

7.1

Overview of Debt Markets

Table 7-1 breaks down the world debt securities market, which was worth $38 trillion at the end of 2001. This includes the bond markets, deﬁned as ﬁxed-income securities with remaining maturities beyond one year, and the shorter-term money markets, with maturities below one year. The table includes all publicly tradable debt securities sorted by country of issuer and issuer type as of December 2001. To help sort the various categories of the bond markets, Table 7-2 provides a broad classiﬁcation of bonds by borrower and currency type. Bonds issued by resident entities and denominated in the domestic currency are called domestic bonds. In

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Country of Issuer United States Japan Germany Italy France United Kingdom Canada Spain Belgium Brazil Korea (South) Denmark Sweden Netherlands Australia China Switzerland Austria India Subtotal Others Total Of which, Eurozone

Domestic 15,655 5,820 1,475 1,362 1,050 925 571 364 315 316 305 229 166 360 183 407 161 154 132 29,950 602 30,552

Public 8,703 4,576 686 963 642 407 406 266 222 261 79 73 85 159 66 291 56 92 131 18,161 703 18,864

5,080

3,029

Of which Financials Corporates 4,517 2,434 570 674 752 36 330 70 289 119 292 227 92 73 55 43 75 18 52 3 108 118 144 13 60 21 151 51 68 50 106 10 82 23 59 3 0 2 7,801 3,988 136 125 7,936 4,113 1,711

340

Int’l

Total

2,395 96 643 176 402 757 221 72 54 60 44 34 89 569 138 13 16 105 4 5,887 1,624 7,511

18,049 5,915 2,117 1,537 1,452 1,682 792 436 369 375 350 263 255 930 321 420 177 259 137 35,837 2,226 38,063

2,020

7,100

Source: Bank for International Settlements

contrast, foreign bonds are those ﬂoated by a foreign issuer in the domestic currency and subject to domestic country regulations (e.g., by the government of Sweden in dollars in the United States). Eurobonds are mainly placed outside the country of the currency in which they are denominated and are sold by an international syndicate of ﬁnancial institutions (e.g., a dollar-denominated bond issued by IBM and marketed in London). These should not be confused with Euro-denominated bonds. Foreign bonds and Eurobonds constitute the international bond market. Global bonds are placed at the same time in the Eurobond and one or more domestic markets with securities fungible between these markets.

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TABLE 7-2 Classiﬁcation of Bond Markets In domestic currency In foreign currency

By resident Domestic Bond Eurobond

By non-resident Foreign Bond Eurobond

Coupon payment frequencies can differ across markets. For instance, domestic dollar bonds pay interest semiannually. In contrast, Eurobonds pay interest annually only. Because investors are spread all over the world, less frequent coupons lower payment costs. Going back to Table 7-1, we see that U.S. entities have issued a total of $15,665 billion in domestic bonds and $2,395 billion in international bonds. This leads to a total principal amount of $18,049 billion, which is by far the biggest debt market. Next comes the Eurozone market, with a size of $7,100 billion, and the Japanese market, with $5,915 billion. The domestic bond market can be further decomposed into the categories representing the public and private bond markets: Government bonds, issued by central governments, or also called sovereign bonds (e.g., by the United States or Argentina) Government agency and guaranteed bonds, issued by agencies or guaranteed by the central government, (e.g., by Fannie Mae, a U.S. government agency) State and local bonds, issued by local governments, other than the central government, also known as municipal bonds (e.g., by the state or city of New York) Bonds issued by private ﬁnancial institutions, including banks, insurance companies, or issuers of asset-backed securities (e.g., by Citibank in the U.S. market) Corporate bonds, issued by private nonﬁnancial corporations, including industrials and utilities (e.g., by IBM in the U.S. market) As Table 7-1 shows, the public sector accounts for more than half of the debt markets. This sector includes sovereign debt issued by emerging countries in their own currencies, e.g. Mexican peso-denominated debt issued by the Mexican government. Few of these markets have long-term issues, because of their history of high inﬂation, which renders long-term bonds very risky. In Mexico, for instance, the market consists mainly of Cetes, which are peso-denominated, short-term Treasury Bills.

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The emerging market sector also includes dollar-denominated debt, such as Brady bonds, which are sovereign bonds issued in exchange for bank loans, and the Tesebonos, which are dollar-denominated bills issued by the Mexican government. Brady bonds are hybrid securities whose principal is collateralized by U.S. Treasury zerocoupon bonds. As a result, there is no risk of default on the principal, unlike on coupon payments. A large and growing proportion of the market consists of mortgage-backed securities. Mortgage-backed securities (MBSs), or mortgage pass-throughs, are securities issued in conjunction with mortgage loans, either residential or commercial. Payments on MBSs are repackaged cash ﬂows supported by mortgage payments made by property owners. MBSs can be issued by government agencies as well as by private

AM FL Y

ﬁnancial corporations. More generally, asset-backed securities (ABSs) are securities whose cash ﬂows are supported by assets such as credit card receivables or car loan payments.

Finally, the remainder of the market represents bonds raised by private, nonﬁnancial corporations. This sector, large in the United States but smaller in other countries, is growing rather quickly as corporations recognize that bond issuances are a lower-

TE

cost source of funds than bank debt. The advent of the common currency, the Euro, is also leading to a growing, more liquid and efﬁcient, corporate bond market in Europe.

7.2 7.2.1

Fixed-Income Securities Instrument Types

Bonds pay interest on a regular basis, semiannual for U.S. Treasury and corporate bonds, annual for others such as Eurobonds, or quarterly for others. The most common types of bonds are: Fixed-coupon bonds, which pay a ﬁxed percentage of the principal every period and the principal as a balloon, one-time, payment at maturity Zero-coupon bonds, which pay no coupons but only the principal; their return is derived from price appreciation only Annuities, which pay a constant amount over time which includes interest plus amortization, or gradual repayment, of the principal;

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Perpetual bonds or consols, which have no set redemption date and whose value derives from interest payments only Floating-coupon bonds, which pay interest equal to a reference rate plus a margin, reset on a regular basis; these are usually called ﬂoating-rate notes (FRN) Structured notes, which have more complex coupon patterns to satisfy the investor’s needs There are many variations on these themes. For instance, step-up bonds have coupons that start at a low rate and increase over time. It is useful to consider ﬂoating-rate notes in more detail. Take for instance a 10year $100 million FRN paying semiannually 6-month LIBOR in arrears.1 Here, LIBOR is the London Interbank Offer Rate, a benchmark short-term cost of borrowing for AA credits. Every semester, on the reset date, the value of 6-month LIBOR is recorded. Say LIBOR is initially at 6%. At the next coupon date, the payment will be ( 12 ) ⫻ $100 ⫻ 6% ⳱ $3 million. Simultaneously, we record a new value for LIBOR, say 8%. The next payment will then increase to $4 million, and so on. At maturity, the issuer pays the last coupon plus the principal. Like a cork at the end of a ﬁshing line, the coupon payment “ﬂoats” with the current interest rate. Among structured notes, we should mention inverse ﬂoaters, which have coupon payments that vary inversely with the level of interest rates. A typical formula for the coupon is c ⳱ 12% ⫺ LIBOR, if positive, payable semiannually. Assume the principal is $100 million. If LIBOR starts at 6%, the ﬁrst coupon will be (1冫 2) ⫻ $100 ⫻ (12% ⫺ 6%) ⳱ $3 million. If after six months LIBOR moves to 8%, the second coupon will be (1冫 2) ⫻ $100 ⫻ (12% ⫺ 8%) ⳱ $2 million. The coupon will go to zero if LIBOR moves above 12%. Conversely, the coupon will increase if LIBOR drops. Hence, inverse ﬂoaters do best in a falling interest rate environment. Bonds can also be issued with option features. The most important are: Callable bonds, where the issuer has the right to “call” back the bond at ﬁxed prices on ﬁxed dates, the purpose being to call back the bond when the cost of issuing new debt is lower than the current coupon paid on the bond 1

Note that the index could be deﬁned differently. The ﬂoating payment could be tied to a Treasury rate, or LIBOR with a different maturity–say 3-month LIBOR. The pricing of the FRN will depend on the index. Also, the coupon will typically be set to LIBOR plus some spread that depends on the creditworthiness of the issuer.

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Puttable bonds, where the investor has the right to “put” the bond back to the issuer at ﬁxed prices on ﬁxed dates, the purpose being to dispose of the bond should its price deteriorate Convertible bonds, where the bond can be converted into the common stock of the issuing company at a ﬁxed price on a ﬁxed date, the purpose being to partake in the good fortunes of the company (these will be covered in Chapter 9 on equities) The key to analyzing these bonds is to identify and price the option feature. For instance, a callable bond can be decomposed into a long position in a straight bond minus a call option on the bond price. The call feature is unfavorable for investors who will demand a lower price to purchase the bond, thereby increasing its yield. Conversely, a put feature will make the bond more attractive, increasing its price and lowering its yield. Similarly, the convertible feature allows companies to issue bonds at a lower yield than otherwise. Example 7-1: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 3/Capital Markets 7-1. The price of an inverse ﬂoater a) Increases as interest rates increase b) Decreases as interest rates increase c) Remains constant as interest rates change d) Behaves like none of the above Example 7-2: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 9/Capital Markets 7-2. An investment in a callable bond can be analytically decomposed into a a) Long position in a noncallable bond and a short position in a put option b) Short position in a noncallable bond and a long position in a call option c) Long position in a noncallable bond and a long position in a call option d) Long position in a noncallable and a short position in a call option

7.2.2

Methods of Quotation

Most bonds are quoted on a clean price basis, that is, without accounting for the accrued income from the last coupon. For U.S. bonds, this clean price is expressed as a percent of the face value of the bond with fractions in thirty-seconds, for instance 104 ⫺ 12 or 104 Ⳮ 12冫 32 for the 6.25% May 2030 Treasury bond. Transactions are expressed in number of units, e.g. $20 million face value. Actual payments, however, must account for the accrual of interest. This is factored into the gross price, also known as the dirty price, which is equal to the clean

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price plus accrued interest. In the U.S. Treasury market, accrued interest (AI) is computed on an actual/actual basis: AI ⳱ Coupon ⫻

Actual number of days since last coupon Actual number of days between last and next coupon

(7.1)

The fraction involves the actual number of days in both the numerator and denominator. For instance, say the 6.25% of May 2030 paid the last coupon on November 15 and will pay the next coupon on May 15. The denominator is, counting the number of days in each month, 15 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 29 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 30 Ⳮ 15 ⳱ 182. If the trade settles on April 26, there are 15 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 29 Ⳮ 31 Ⳮ 26 ⳱ 163 days into the period. The accrued is computed from the $3.125 coupon as $3.125 ⫻

163 ⳱ $2.798763 182

The total, gross price for this transaction is: ($20, 000, 000冫 100) ⫻ [(104 Ⳮ 12冫 32) Ⳮ 2.798763] ⳱ $21, 434, 753 Different markets have different day count conventions. A 30/360 convention, for example, considers that all months count for 30 days exactly. The computation of the accrued interest is tedious but must be performed precisely to settle the trades. We should note that the accrued interest in the LIBOR market is based on actual/360. For instance, the actual interest payment on a 6% $1 million loan over 92 days is $1, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.06 ⫻

92 ⳱ $15, 333.33 360

Another notable pricing convention is the discount basis for Treasury Bills. These bills are quoted in terms of an annualized discount rate (DR) to the face value, deﬁned as DR ⳱ (Face ⫺ P)冫 Face ⫻ (360冫 t )

(7.2)

where P is the price and t is the actual number of days. The dollar price can be recovered from P ⳱ Face ⫻ [1 ⫺ DR ⫻ (t 冫 360)]

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For instance, a bill quoted at 5.19% discount with 91 days to maturity could be purchased for $100 ⫻ [1 ⫺ 5.19% ⫻ (91冫 360)] ⳱ $98.6881. This price can be transformed into a conventional yield to maturity, using F 冫 P ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⫻ t 冫 365)

(7.4)

which gives 5.33% in this case. Note that the yield is greater than the discount rate because it is a rate of return based on the initial price. Because the price is lower than the face value, the yield must be greater than the discount rate.

Example 7-3: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 13/Capital Markets 7-3. A U.S. Treasury bill selling for $97,569 with 100 days to maturity and a face value of $100,000 should be quoted on a bank discount basis at a) 8.75% b) 8.87% c) 8.97% d) 9.09%

7.3 7.3.1

Analysis of Fixed-Income Securities The NPV Approach

Fixed-income securities can be valued by, ﬁrst, laying out their cash ﬂows and, second, discounting them at the appropriate discount rate. This approach can also be used to infer a more convenient measure of value for the bond, which is the bond’s own yield. Let us write the market value of a bond P as the present value of future cash ﬂows: T

P⳱

C

冱 (1 Ⳮty )t

t ⳱1

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where: Ct ⳱the cash ﬂow (coupon or principal) in period t , t ⳱the number of periods (e.g., half-years) to each payment, T ⳱the number of periods to ﬁnal maturity, y ⳱the yield to maturity for this particular bond, P ⳱the price of the bond, including accrued interest. Here, the yield is the internal rate of return that equates the NPV of the cash ﬂows to the market price of the bond. The yield is also the expected rate of return on the bond, provided all coupons are reinvested at the same rate. For a ﬁxed-rate bond with face value F , the cash ﬂow Ct is cF each period, where c is the coupon rate, plus F upon maturity. Other cash ﬂow patterns are possible. Figure 7-1 shows the time proﬁle of the cash ﬂows Ct for three bonds with initial market value of $100, 10 year maturity and 6% annual interest. The ﬁgure describes a straight coupon-paying bond, an annuity, and a zero-coupon bond. As long as the cash ﬂows are predetermined, the valuation is straightforward. FIGURE 7-1 Time Proﬁle of Cash Flows 120 100 80 60 40 20 0 16 14 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 200 180 160 140 120 100 80 60 40 20 0

Straight-coupon Principal Interest

Annuity

Zero-coupon

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Problems start to arise when the cash ﬂows are random or when the life of the bond could be changed due to option-like features. In this case, the standard valuation formula in Equation (7.5) fails. More precisely, the yield cannot be interpreted as a reinvestment rate. Particularly important examples are MBSs, which are detailed in a later section. It is also important to note that we discounted all cash ﬂows at the same rate, y . More generally, the fair value of the bond can be assessed using the term structure of interest rates. Deﬁne Rt as the spot interest rate for maturity t and this risk class (i.e., same currency and credit risk). The fair value of the bond is then: Pˆ ⳱

T

C

冱 (1 Ⳮ tRt )t

(7.6)

t ⳱1

To assess whether a bond is rich or cheap, we can add a ﬁxed amount s , called the static spread to the spot rates so that the NPV equals the current price: T

P⳱

C

冱 (1 Ⳮ Rtt Ⳮ s )t

(7.7)

t ⳱1

All else equal, a bond with a large static spread is preferable to another with a lower spread. It means the bond is cheaper, or has a higher expected rate of return. It is often simpler to compute a yield spread ⌬y , using yield to maturity, such that T

P⳱

C

冱 (1 Ⳮ y Ⳮt ⌬y )t

(7.8)

t ⳱1

The static spread and yield spread are conceptually similar, but the former is more accurate since the term structure is not necessarily ﬂat. When the term structure is ﬂat, the two measures are identical. Table 7-3 gives an example of a 7% coupon, 2-year bond. The term structure environment, consisting of spot rates and par yields, is described on the left side. The right side lays out the present value of the cash ﬂows (PVCF). Discounting the two cash ﬂows at the spot rates gives a fair value of Pˆ ⳱ $101.9604. In fact, the bond is selling at a price of P ⳱ $101.5000. So, the bond is cheap. We can convert the difference in prices to annual yields. The yield to maturity on this bond is 6.1798%, which implies a yield spread of ⌬y ⳱ 6.1798 ⫺ 5.9412 ⳱ 0.2386%. Using the static spread approach, we ﬁnd that adding s ⳱ 0.2482% to the

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spot rates gives the current price. The second measure is more accurate than the ﬁrst. In this case, the difference is small. This will not be the case, however, with longer maturities and irregular yield curves. TABLE 7-3 Bond Price and Term Structure Maturity (Year) i 1 2 Sum Price

Term Structure Spot Par Rate Yield Ri yi 4.0000 4.0000 6.0000 5.9412

Spot s⳱0 6.7308 95.2296 101.9604 101.5000

7% Bond PVCF Discounted at Yield+YS Spot+SS ⌬y ⳱ 0.2386 s ⳱ 0.2482 6.5926 6.7147 94.9074 94.7853 101.5000 101.5000 101.5000 101.5000

Cash ﬂows with different credit risks need to be discounted with different rates. For example, the principal on Brady bonds is collateralized by U.S. Treasury securities and carries no default risk, in contrast to the coupons. As a result, it has become common to separate the discounting of the principal from that of the coupons. Valuation is done in two steps. First, the principal is discounted into a present value using the appropriate Treasury yield. The present value of the principal is subtracted from the market value. Next, the coupons are discounted at what is called the stripped yield, which accounts for the credit risk of the issuer.

7.3.2

Duration

Armed with a cash ﬂow proﬁle, we can proceed to compute duration. As we have seen in Chapter 1, duration is a measure of the exposure, or sensitivity, of the bond price to movements in yields. When cash ﬂows are ﬁxed, duration is measured as the weighted maturity of each payment, where the weights are proportional to the present value of the cash ﬂows. Using the same notations as in Equation (7.5), recall that Macaulay duration is T

D⳱

冱

t ⳱1

T

t ⫻ wt ⳱

C 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t

冱 t ⫻ 冱 Ct t 冫 (1 Ⳮ y )t .

t ⳱1

Key concept: Duration can only be viewed as the weighted average time to wait for each payment when the cash ﬂows are predetermined.

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More generally, duration is a measure of interest-rate exposure: dP D P ⳱ ⫺D ⴱ P ⳱⫺ dy (1 Ⳮ y )

(7.10)

where D ⴱ is modiﬁed duration. The second term D ⴱ P is also known as the dollar duration. Sometimes this sensitivity is expressed in dollar value of a basis point (also known as DV01), deﬁned as dP ⳱ DVBP 0.01%

(7.10)

For ﬁxed cash ﬂows, duration can be computed using Equation (7.9). Otherwise, we can infer duration from an understanding of the security. Consider a ﬂoating-rate note (FRN). Just before the reset date, we know that the coupon will be set to the prevailing interest rate. The FRN is then similar to cash, or a money market instrument, which has no interest rate risk and hence is selling at par with zero duration. Just after the reset date, the investor is locked into a ﬁxed coupon over the accrual period. The FRN is then economically equivalent to a zero-coupon bond with maturity equal to the time to the next reset date.

Key concept: The duration of a ﬂoating-rate note is the time to wait until the next reset period, at which time the FRN should be at par.

Example 7-4: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 53/Capital Markets 7-4. Consider a 9% annual coupon 20-year bond trading at 6% with a price of 134.41. When rates rise 10bps, price reduces to 132.99, and when rates decrease by 10bps, the price goes up to 135.85. What is the modiﬁed duration of the bond? a) 11.25 b) 10.61 c) 10.50 d) 10.73

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Example 7-5: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 31/Capital Markets 7-5. A 10-year zero-coupon bond is callable annually at par (its face value) starting at the beginning of year six. Assume a ﬂat yield curve of 10%. What is the bond duration? a) 5 years b) 7.5 years c) 10 years d) Cannot be determined based on the data given

Example 7-6: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 91/Market Risk 7-6. (Modiﬁed) duration of a ﬁxed-rate bond, in the case of ﬂat yield curve, can be interpreted as (where B is the bond price and y is the yield to maturity) a) ⫺ B1 ∂B ∂y 1 ∂B B ∂y c) ⫺ yB ∂B ∂y (1Ⳮy ) ∂B d) B ∂y

b)

Example 7-7: FRM Exam 1997----Ques:wtion 49/Market Risk 7-7. A money markets desk holds a ﬂoating-rate note with an eight-year maturity. The interest rate is ﬂoating at three-month LIBOR rate, reset quarterly. The next reset is in one week. What is the approximate duration of the ﬂoating-rate note? a) 8 years b) 4 years c) 3 months d) 1 week

7.4

Spot and Forward Rates

In addition to the cash ﬂows, we also need detailed information on the term structure of interest rates to value ﬁxed-income securities and their derivatives. This information is provided by spot rates, which are zero-coupon investment rates that start at the current time. From spot rates, we can infer forward rates, which are rates that start at a future date. Both are essential building blocks for the pricing of bonds. Consider for instance a one-year rate that starts in one year. This forward rate is deﬁned as F1,2 and can be inferred from the one-year and two-year spot rates, R1

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and R2 . The forward rate is the break-even future rate that equalizes the return on investments of different maturities. An investor has the choice to lock in a 2-year investment at the 2-year rate, or to invest for a term of one year and roll over at the 1-to-2 year forward rate. The two portfolios will have the same payoff when the future rate F1,2 is such that (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ R1 )(1 Ⳮ F1,2 )

(7.12)

For instance, if R1 ⳱ 4.00% and R2 ⳱ 4.62%, we have F1,2 ⳱ 5.24%. More generally, the T -period spot rate can be written as a geometric average of the spot and forward rates

AM FL Y

(1 Ⳮ RT )T ⳱ (1 Ⳮ R1 )(1 Ⳮ F1,2 )...(1 Ⳮ FT ⫺1,T )

(7.13)

where Fi,iⳭ1 is the forward rate of interest prevailing now (at time t ) over a horizon of i to i Ⳮ 1. Table 7-4 displays a sequence of spot rates, forward rates, and par yields, using annual compounding. The ﬁrst three years of this sequence are displayed in

TE

Figure 7-2.

FIGURE 7-2 Spot and Forward Rates

Spot rates: R3 R2 R1

Forward rates: F2,3 F1,2 F0,1

0

1

2

3

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Forward rates allow us to project future cash ﬂows that depend on future rates. The F1,2 forward rate, for example, can be taken as the market’s expectation of the second coupon payment on an FRN with annual payments and resets. We will also show later that positions in forward rates can be taken easily with derivative instruments. TABLE 7-4 Spot, Forward Rates and Par Yields Maturity (Year) i 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Spot Rate Ri 4.000 4.618 5.192 5.716 6.112 6.396 6.621 6.808 6.970 7.112

Forward Rate Fi ⫺1,i 4.000 5.240 6.350 7.303 7.712 7.830 7.980 8.130 8.270 8.400

Par Yield yi 4.000 4.604 5.153 5.640 6.000 6.254 6.451 6.611 6.745 6.860

Discount Function D (ti ) 0.9615 0.9136 0.8591 0.8006 0.7433 0.6893 0.6383 0.5903 0.5452 0.5030

Forward rates have to be positive, otherwise there would be an arbitrage opportunity. We abstract from transaction costs and assume we can invest and borrow at the same rate. For instance, R1 ⳱ 11.00% and R2 ⳱ 4.62% gives F1,2 ⳱ ⫺1.4%. This means that (1 Ⳮ R1 ) ⳱ 1.11 is greater than (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 ⳱ 1.094534. To take advantage of this discrepancy, we could borrow $1 million for two years and invest it for one year. After the ﬁrst year, the proceeds are kept in cash, or under the proverbial mattress, for the second period. The investment gives $1,110,000 and we have to pay back $1,094,534 only. This would create a proﬁt of $15,466 out of thin air, which is highly unlikely in practice. Interest rates must be positive for the same reason. The forward rate can be interpreted as a measure of the slope of the term structure. We can, for instance, expand both sides of Equation (7.12). After neglecting crossproduct terms, we have F1,2 ⬇ R2 Ⳮ (R2 ⫺ R1 )

(7.14)

Thus, with an upward sloping term structure, R2 is above R1 , and F1,2 will also be above R2 .

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We can also show that in this situation, the spot rate curve is above the par yield curve. Consider a bond with 2 payments. The 2-year par yield y2 is implicitly deﬁned from: P⳱

cF cF (cF Ⳮ F ) (cF Ⳮ F ) Ⳮ ⳱ Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ y2 ) (1 Ⳮ R1 ) (1 Ⳮ y2 )2 (1 Ⳮ R2 )2

where P is set to par P ⳱ F . The par yield can be viewed as a weighted average of spot rates. In an upward-sloping environment, par yield curves involve coupons that are discounted at shorter and thus lower rates than the ﬁnal payment. As a result, the par yield curve lies below the spot rate curve. For a formal proof, consider a 2-period par bond with a face value of $1 and coupon of y2 . We can write the price of this bond as 1 ⳱ y2 冫 (1 Ⳮ R1 ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ y2 )冫 (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 ⳱ y2 (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 冫 (1 Ⳮ R1 ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ y2 ) (1 Ⳮ R2 )2 ⳱ y2 (1 Ⳮ F1,2 ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ y2 ) 2R2 Ⳮ R22 ⳱ y2 (1 Ⳮ F1,2 ) Ⳮ y2 y2 ⳱ R2 (2 Ⳮ R2 )冫 (2 Ⳮ F1,2 ) In an upward-sloping environment, F1,2 ⬎ R2 and thus y2 ⬍ R2 . When the spot rate curve is ﬂat, the spot curve is identical to the par yield curve and to the forward curve. In general, the curves differ. Figure 7-3a displays the case of an upward sloping term structure. It shows the yield curve is below the spot curve while the forward curve is above the spot curve. With a downward sloping term structure, as shown in Figure 7-3b, the yield curve is above the spot curve, which is above the forward curve. Example 7-8: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 39/Capital Markets 7-8. Which of the following statements about yield curve arbitrage is true? a) No-arbitrage conditions require that the zero-coupon yield curve is either upward sloping or downward sloping. b) It is a violation of the no-arbitrage condition if the one-year interest rate is 10% or more, higher than the 10-year rate. c) As long as all discount factors are less than one but greater than zero, the curve is arbitrage free. d) The no-arbitrage condition requires all forward rates be nonnegative.

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FIGURE 7-3a Upward-Sloping Term Structure Interest rate 9

Forward curve

8

7

Spot curve

6

Par yield curve 5

4

3 0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

Maturity (Year) Example 7-9: FRM Exam 1997----Ques:wtion 1/Quantitative Techniques 7-9. Suppose a risk manager has made the mistake of valuing a zero-coupon bond using a swap (par) rate rather than a zero-coupon rate. Assume the par curve is upward sloping. The risk manager is therefore a) Indifferent to the rate used b) Over-estimating the value of the bond c) Under-estimating the value of the bond d) Lacking sufﬁcient information

Example 7-10: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 1/Quant. Analysis 7-10. Suppose that the yield curve is upward sloping. Which of the following statements is true? a) The forward rate yield curve is above the zero-coupon yield curve, which is above the coupon-bearing bond yield curve. b) The forward rate yield curve is above the coupon-bearing bond yield curve, which is above the zero-coupon yield curve. c) The coupon-bearing bond yield curve is above the zero-coupon yield curve, which is above the forward rate yield curve. d) The coupon-bearing bond yield curve is above the forward rate yield curve, which is above the zero-coupon yield curve.

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FIGURE 7-3b Downward-Sloping Term Structure 11

Interest rate

Par yield curve

10

Spot curve 9

Forward curve

8 0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

Maturity (Year)

7.5 7.5.1

Mortgage-Backed Securities Description

Mortgage-backed securities represent claims on repackaged mortgage loans. Their basic cash-ﬂow patterns start from an annuity, where the homeowner makes a monthly ﬁxed payment that covers principal and interest. Whereas mortgage loans are subject to credit risk, due to the possibility of default by the homeowner, most traded securities have third-party guarantees against credit risk. For instance, MBSs issued by Fannie Mae, an agency that is sponsored by the U.S. government, carry a guarantee of full interest and principal payment, even if the original borrower defaults. Even so, MBSs are complex securities due to the uncertainty in their cash ﬂows. Consider the traditional ﬁxed-rate mortgage. Homeowners have the possibility of making early payments of principal. This represents a long position in an option. In some cases, these prepayments are random, for instance when the homeowner sells the home due to changing job or family conditions. In other cases, these prepayments are more predictable. When interest rates fall, prepayments increase as homeowners can reﬁnance at a lower cost. This is similar to the rational early exercise of American call options.

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Generally, these factors affect reﬁnancing patterns: Age of the loan: Prepayment rates are generally low just after the mortgage loan has been issued and gradually increase over time until they reach a stable, or “seasoned,” level. This effect is known as seasoning. Spread between the mortgage rate and current rates: Like a callable bond, there is a greater beneﬁt to reﬁnancing if it achieves a signiﬁcant cost saving. Reﬁnancing incentives: The smaller the costs of reﬁnancing, the more likely homeowners will reﬁnance often. Previous path of interest rates: Reﬁnancing is more likely to occur if rates have been high in the past but recently dropped. In this scenario, past prepayments have been low but should rise sharply. In contrast, if rates are low but have been so for a while, most of the principal will already have been prepaid. This path dependence is usually referred to as burnout. Level of mortgage rates: Lower rates increase affordability and turnover. Economic activity: An economic environment where more workers change job location creates greater job turnover, which is more likely to lead to prepayments. Seasonal effects: There is typically more home-buying in the Spring, leading to increased prepayments in early Fall. The prepayment rate is summarized into what is called the conditional prepayment rate (CPR), which is expressed in annual terms. This number can be translated into a monthly number, known as the single monthly mortality (SMM) Rate using the adjustment: (1 ⫺ SMM)12 ⳱ (1 ⫺ CPR)

(7.15)

For instance, if CPR ⳱ 6% annually, the monthly proportion of principal paid early will be SMM ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ 0.06)1冫 12 ⳱ 0.005143, or 0.514% monthly. For a loan with a beginning monthly balance (BMB) of BMB = $50,525 and a scheduled principal payment of SP = $67, the prepayment will be 0.005143 ⫻ ($50,525 ⫺ $67) ⳱ $260. To price the MBS, the portfolio manager should describe the schedule of prepayments during the remaining life of the bond. This depends on many factors, including the age of the loan. Prepayments can be described using an industry standard, known as the Public Securities Association (PSA) prepayment model. The PSA model assumes a CPR of

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0.2% for the ﬁrst month, going up by 0.2% per month for the next 30 months, until 6% thereafter. Formally, this is: CPR ⳱ Min[6% ⫻ (t 冫 30), 6%]

(7.16)

This pattern is described in Figure 7-4 as the 100% PSA speed. By convention, prepayment patterns are expressed as a percentage of the PSA speed, for example 165% for a faster pattern and 70% PSA for a slower pattern.

Example: Computing the CPR Consider an MBS issued 20 months ago with a speed of 150% PSA. What are the CPR and SMM? The PSA speed is Min[6% ⫻ (20冫 30), 6%] ⳱ 0.04. Applying the 150 factor, we have CPR ⳱ 150% ⫻ 0.04 ⳱ 0.06. This implies SMM ⳱ 0.514%. FIGURE 7-4 Prepayment Pattern Annual CPR percentage 10 165% PSA 9 8 7 6 100% PSA 5 4

70% PSA

3 2 1 0 0

10

20 30 Mortgage age (months)

40

50

The next step is to project cash ﬂows based on the prepayment speed pattern. Figure 7-5 displays cash-ﬂow patterns for a 30-year MBS with a face amount of $100 million, 7.5% interest rate, and three months into its life. The horizontal, “0% PSA” line, describes the annuity pattern without any prepayment. The “100% PSA” line describes

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an increasing pattern of cash ﬂows, peaking in 27 months and decreasing thereafter. This point corresponds to the stabilization of the CPR at 6%. This pattern is more marked for the “165% PSA” line, which assumes a faster prepayment speed. Early prepayments create less payments later, which explains why the 100% PSA line is initially greater than the 0% line, then lower later as the principal has been paid off more quickly.

FIGURE 7-5 Cash Flows on MBS for Various PSA Cash flow ($ million) 1.6 1.4 1.2 1.0 0.8

0% PSA

0.6 100%PSA 0.4 0.2

165%PSA

0 0

60

120

180 240 Months to maturity

300

Example 7-11: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 51/Capital Markets 7-11. Suppose the annual prepayment rate CPR for a mortgage-backed security is 6%. What is the corresponding single-monthly mortality rate SMM? a) 0.514% b) 0.334% c) 0.5% d) 1.355%

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Example 7-12: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 14/Capital Markets 7-12. In analyzing the monthly prepayment risk of Mortgage-backed securities, an annual prepayment rate (CPR) is converted into a monthly prepayment rate (SMM). Which of the following formulas should be used for the conversion? a) SMM ⳱ (1 ⫺ CPR)1冫 12 b) SMM ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ CPR)1冫 12 c) SMM ⳱ 1 ⫺ (CPR)1冫 12 d) SMM ⳱ 1 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ CPR)1冫 12

Example 7-13: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 87/Market Risk 7-13. A CMO bond class with a duration of 50 means that a) It has a discounted cash ﬂow weighted average life of 50 years. b) For a 100 bp change in yield, the bond’s price will change by roughly 50%. c) For a 1 bp change in yield, the bond’s price will change by roughly 5%. d) None of the above is correct.

Example 7-14: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 18/Capital Markets 7-14. Which of the following risks are common to both mortgage-backed securities and emerging market Brady bonds? I. Interest rate risk II. Prepayment risk III. Default risk IV. Political risk a) I only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) III and IV only

7.5.2

Prepayment Risk

Like other bonds, mortgage-backed securities are subject to market risk, due to ﬂuctuations in interest rates. They are also, however, subject to prepayment risk, which is the risk that the principal will be repaid early. Consider for instance an 8% MBS, which is illustrated in Figure 7-6. If rates drop to 6%, homeowners will rationally prepay early to reﬁnance the loan. Because the average life of the loan is shortened, this is called contraction risk. Conversely, if rates increase to 10%, homeowners will be less likely to reﬁnance early, and prepayments

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will slow down. Because the average life of the loan is extended, this is called extension risk. As shown in Figure 7-6, these features create “negative convexity”, which reﬂects the fact that the investor in an MBS is short an option. At point B, interest rates are very high and there is little likelihood that the homeowner will reﬁnance early. The option is nearly worthless and the MBS behaves like a regular bond, with positive convexity. At point A, the option pattern starts to affect the value of the MBS. Shorting an option creates negative gamma, or convexity. FIGURE 7-6 Negative Convexity of MBSs Market price 140 120 A 100

Positive convexity B

Negative convexity 80 60 40 20 0 5

6

7

8 9 Market yield

10

11

12

This changing cash-ﬂow pattern makes standard duration measures unreliable. Instead, sensitivity measures are computed using effective duration and effective convexity, as explained in Chapter 1. The measures are based on the estimated price of the MBS for three yield values, making suitable assumptions about how changes in rates should affect prepayments. Table 7-5 shows an example. In each case, we consider an upmove and downmove of 25bp. In the ﬁrst, “unchanged” panel, the PSA speed is assumed to be constant at 165 PSA. In the second, “changed” panel, we assume a higher PSA speed if rates drop and lower speed if rates increase. When rates drop, the MBS value goes up but not as

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much as if the prepayment speed had not changed, which reﬂects contraction risk. When rates increase, the MBS value drops by more than if the prepayment speed had not changed, which reﬂects extension risk. TABLE 7-5 Computing Effective Duration and Convexity Yield PSA Price Duration Convexity

Initial 7.50%

Unchanged PSA ⫺25bp +25bp 165PSA 165PSA 98.75 101.50 5.49y 0

100.125

Changed PSA ⫺25bp +25bp 150PSA 200PSA 98.7188 101.3438 5.24y ⫺299

As we have seen in Chapter 1, effective duration is measured as P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ) ⫺ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ) (2P0 ⌬y )

AM FL Y

DE ⳱

(7.17)

Effective convexity is measured as

冋

P (y0 ⫺ ⌬y ) ⫺ P0 P ⫺ P (y0 Ⳮ ⌬y ) ⫺ 0 (P0 ⌬y ) (P0 ⌬y )

册冫

⌬y

(7.18)

TE

CE ⳱

In the ﬁrst, “unchanged” panel, the effective duration is 5.49 years and convexity close to zero. In the second, “changed” panel, the effective duration is 5.24 years and convexity is negative, as expected, and quite large. Key concept: Mortgage-backed securities have negative convexity, which reﬂects the short position in an option granted to the homeowner to repay early. This creates extension risk when rates increase or contraction risk when rates fall. The option feature in MBSs increases their yield. To ascertain whether the securities represent good value, portfolio managers need to model the option component. The approach most commonly used is the option-adjusted spread (OAS). Starting from the static spread, the OAS method involves running simulations of various interest rate scenarios and prepayments to establish the option cost. The OAS is then OAS ⳱ Static spread ⫺ Option cost

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which represents the net richness or cheapness of the MBS. Within the same risk class, a security trading at a high OAS is preferable to others. The OAS is more stable over time than the spread, because the latter is affected by the option component. This explains why during market rallies (i.e., when long-term Treasury yields fall) yield spreads on current coupon mortgages often widen. These mortgages are more likely to be prepaid early, which makes them less attractive. Their option cost increases, pushing up the yield spread. Example 7-15: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 44/Capital Markets 7-15. The following are reasons that a prepayment model will not accurately predict future mortgage prepayments. Which of these will have the greatest effect on the convexity of mortgage pass-throughs? a) Reﬁnancing incentive b) Seasoning c) Reﬁnancing burnout d) Seasonality

Example 7-16: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 40/Capital Markets 7-16. Which attribute of a bond is not a reason for using effective duration instead of modiﬁed duration? a) Its life may be uncertain. b) Its cash ﬂow may be uncertain. c) Its price volatility tends to decline as maturity approaches. d) It may include changes in adjustable rate coupons with caps or ﬂoors.

Example 7-17: FRM Exam 2001----Ques:wtion 95 7-17. The option-adjusted duration of a callable bond will be close to the duration of a similar non-callable bond when the a) Bond trades above the call price. b) Bond has a high volatility. c) Bond trades much lower than the call price. d) Bond trades above parity.

7.5.3

Financial Engineering and CMOs

The MBS market has grown enormously in the last twenty years in the United States and is growing fast in other markets. MBSs allow capital to ﬂow from investors to borrowers, principally homeowners, in an efﬁcient fashion.

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One major drawback of MBSs, however, is their negative convexity. This makes it difﬁcult for investors, such as pension funds, to invest in MBSs because the life of these instruments is uncertain, making it more difﬁcult to match the duration of pension assets to the horizon of pension liabilities. In response, the ﬁnance industry has developed new classes of securities based on MBSs with more appealing characteristics. These are the collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs), which are new securities that redirect the cash ﬂows of an MBS pool to various segments. Figure 7-7 illustrates the process. The cash ﬂows from the MBS pool go into a special-purpose vehicle (SPV), which is a legal entity that issues different claims, or tranches with various characteristics, like slices in a pie. These are structured so that the cash ﬂow from the ﬁrst tranche, for instance, is more predictable than the original cash ﬂows. The uncertainty is then pushed into the other tranches. Starting from an MBS pool, ﬁnancial engineering creates securities that are better tailored to investors’ needs. It is important to realize, however, that the cash ﬂows and risks are fully preserved. They are only redistributed across tranches. Whatever transformation is brought about, the resulting package must obey basic laws of conservation for the underlying securities and package of resulting securities. We must have the same cash ﬂows at each point in time, except for fees paid to the issuer. As a result, we must have (1) The same market value (2) The same risk proﬁle As Lavoisier, the French chemist who was executed during the French revolution said, Rien ne se perd, rien ne se cr´ ee (nothing is lost, nothing is created). In particular, the weighted duration and convexity of the portfolio of tranches must add up to the original duration and convexity. If Tranche A has less convexity than the underlying securities, the other tranches must have more convexity. Similar structures apply to collateralized bond obligations (CBOs), collateralized loan obligations (CLOs), collateralized debt obligations (CDOs), which are a set of tradable bonds backed by bonds, loans, or debt (bonds and loans), respectively. These structures rearrange credit risk and will be explained in more detail in a later chapter. As an example of a two-tranche structure, consider a claim on a regular 5-year, 6% coupon $100 million note. This can be split up into a ﬂoater, that pays LIBOR on a

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FIGURE 7-7 Creating CMO Tranches Special Purpose Vehicle Cash Flow

Mortgage loans

Tranche A

Pass-Through:

Tranche B

Pool of Mortgage Obligations Tranche C

Tranche Z

notional of $50 million, and an inverse ﬂoater, that pays 12% ⫺ LIBOR on a notional of $50 million. The coupon on the inverse ﬂoater cannot go below zero: Coupon ⳱ Max(12%⫺LIBOR, 0). This imposes another condition on the ﬂoater Coupon ⳱ Min(LIBOR, 12%). We verify that the cash ﬂows exactly add up to the original. For each coupon payment, we have, in millions $50 ⫻ LIBOR Ⳮ $50 ⫻ (12% ⫺ LIBOR) ⳱ $100 ⫻ 6% ⳱ $6. At maturity, the total payments of twice $50 million add up to $100 million. We can also decompose the risk of the original structure into that of the two components. Assume a ﬂat term structure for the original note. Say the duration of the original 5-year note is D ⳱ 4.5 years. The portfolio dollar duration is: $50, 000, 000 ⫻ DF Ⳮ $50, 000, 000 ⫻ DIF ⳱ $100, 000, 000 ⫻ D Just before a reset, the duration of the ﬂoater is close to zero DF ⳱ 0. Hence, the duration of the inverse ﬂoater must be DIF ⳱ ($100, 000, 000冫 $50, 000, 000) ⫻ D ⳱ 2 ⫻ D , or twice that of the original note. Note that the duration is much greater than the maturity of the note. This illustrates the point that duration is an interest rate sensitivity measure. When cash ﬂows are uncertain, duration is not necessarily related to maturity. Intuitively, the ﬁrst tranche, the ﬂoater, has zero risk so that all of the

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risk must be absorbed into the second tranche, which must have a duration of 9 years. The total risk of the portfolio is conserved. This analysis can be easily extended to inverse ﬂoaters with greater leverage. Suppose the coupon the coupon is tied to twice LIBOR, for example 18% ⫺ 2 ⫻ LIBOR. The principal must be allocated in the amount x, in millions, for the ﬂoater and 100 ⫺ x for the inverse ﬂoater so that the coupon payment is preserved. We set x ⫻ LIBOR Ⳮ (100 ⫺ x) ⫻ (18% ⫺ 2 ⫻ LIBOR ) ⳱ $6

[x ⫺ (100 ⫺ x)2] ⫻ LIBOR Ⳮ (100 ⫺ x) ⫻ 18% ⳱ $6 This can only be satisﬁed if 3x ⫺ 200 ⳱ 0, or if x ⳱ $66.67 million. Thus, two-thirds of the notional must be allocated to the ﬂoater, and one-third to the inverse ﬂoater. The inverse ﬂoater now has three times the duration of the original note. Key concept: Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) rearrange the total cash ﬂows, total value, and total risk of the underlying securities. At all times, the total cash ﬂows, value, and risk of the tranches must equal those of the collateral. If some tranches are less risky than the collateral, others must be more risky. When the collateral is a mortgage-backed security, CMOs can be deﬁned by prioritizing the payment of principal into different tranches. This is deﬁned as sequentialpay tranches. Tranche A, for instance, will receive the principal payment on the whole underlying mortgages ﬁrst. This creates more certainty in the cash ﬂows accruing to Tranche A, which makes it more appealing to some investors. Of course, this is to the detriment of others. After principal payments to Tranche A are exhausted, Tranche B then receives all principal payments on the underlying MBS. And so on for other tranches. Another popular construction is the IO/PO structure. An interest-only (IO) tranche receives only the interest payments on the underlying MBS. The principal-only (PO) tranche then receives only the principal payments. As before, the market value of the IO and PO must exactly add to that of the MBS. Figure 7-8 describes the price behavior of the IO and PO. Note that the vertical addition of the two components always equals the value of the MBS.

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FIGURE 7-8 Creating an IO and PO from an MBS Market price 140 120 Pass-Through

100 80

Interest-Only (IO)

60 40

Principal-Only (PO) 20 0 5

6

7

8 9 Market yield

10

11

12

To analyze the PO, it is useful to note that the sum of all principal payments is constant (because we have no default risk). Only the timing is uncertain. In contrast, the sum of all interest payments depends on the timing of principal payments. Later principal payments create greater total interest payments. If interest rates fall, principal payments will come early, which reﬂects contraction risk. Because the principal is paid earlier and the discount rate decreases, the PO should appreciate sharply in value. On the other hand, the faster prepayments mean less interest payments over the life of the MBS, which is unfavorable to the IO. the IO should depreciate. Conversely, if interest rates rise, slower prepayments will slow down, which reﬂects extension risk. Because the principal is paid later and the discount rate increases, the PO should lose value. On the other hand, the slower prepayments mean more interest payments over the life of the MBS, which is favorable to the IO. The IO appreciates in value, up to the point where the higher discount rate effect dominates. Thus, IOs are bullish securities with negative duration, as shown in Figure 7-8.

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Example 7-18: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 13/Capital Markets 7-18. A CLO is generally a) A set of loans that can be traded individually in the market b) A pass-through c) A set of bonds backed by a loan portfolio d) None of the above

Example 7-19: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 121/Quant. Analysis 7-19. Which one of the following long positions is more exposed to an increase in interest rates? a) A Treasury Bill b) 10-year ﬁxed-coupon bond c) 10-year ﬂoater d) 10-year reverse ﬂoater

Example 7-20: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 32/Capital Markets 7-20. A 10-year reverse ﬂoater pays a semiannual coupon of 8% minus 6-month LIBOR. Assume the yield curve is 8% ﬂat, the current 10-year note has a duration of 7 years, and the interest rate on the note was just reset. What is the duration of the note? a) 6 months b) Shorter than 7 years c) Longer than 7 years d) 7 years

Example 7-21: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 79/Market Risk 7-21. Suppose that the coupon and the modiﬁed duration of a 10-year bond priced to par are 6.0% and 7.5, respectively. What is the approximate modiﬁed duration of a 10-year inverse ﬂoater priced to par with a coupon of 18% ⫺ 2 ⫻ LIBOR? a) 7.5 b) 15.0 c) 22.5 d) 0.0

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Example 7-22: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 3/Capital Markets 7-22. How would you describe the typical price behavior of a low premium mortgage pass-through security? a) It is similar to a U.S. Treasury bond. b) It is similar to a plain vanilla corporate bond. c) When interest rates fall, its price increase would exceed that of a comparable duration U.S. Treasury bond. d) When interest rates fall, its price increase would lag that of a comparable duration U.S. Treasury bond.

7.6

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 7-1: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 3/Capital Markets b) As interest rates increase, the coupon decreases. In addition, the discount factor increases. Hence, the value of the note must decrease even more than a regular ﬁxedcoupon bond. Example 7-2: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 9/Capital Markets d) With a callable bond the issuer has the option to call the bond early if its price would otherwise go up. Hence, the investor is short an option. A long position in a callable bond is equivalent to a long position in a noncallable bond plus a short position in a call option. Example 7-3: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 13/Capital Markets a) DR ⳱ (Face ⫺ Price)冫 Face ⫻ (360冫 t ) ⳱ ($100,000 ⫺ $97,569)冫 $100,000 ⫻ (360冫 100) ⳱ 8.75%. Note that the yield is 9.09%, which is higher. Example 7-4: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 53/Capital Markets b) Using Equation (7.8), we have D ⴱ ⳱ ⫺(dP 冫 P )冫 dy ⳱ [(135.85 ⫺ 132.99)冫 134.41]冫 [0.001 ⫻ 2] ⳱ 10.63. This is also a measure of effective duration. Example 7-5: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 31/Capital Markets c) Because this is a zero-coupon bond, it will always trade below par, and the call should never be exercised. Hence its duration is the maturity, 10 years.

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Example 7-6: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 91/Market Risk a) By Equation (7.8). Example 7-7: FRM Exam 1997----Ques:wtion 49/Market Risk d) Duration is not related to maturity when coupons are not ﬁxed over the life of the investment. We know that at the next reset, the coupon on the FRN will be set at the prevailing rate. Hence, the market value of the note will be equal to par at that time. The duration or price risk is only related to the time to the next reset, which is 1 week here. Example 7-8: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 39/Capital Markets d) Discount factors need to be below one, as interest rates need to be positive, but in addition forward rates also need to be positive. Example 7-9: FRM Exam 1997----Ques:wtion 1/Quantitative Techniques b) If the par curve is rising, it must be below the spot curve. As a result, the discounting will use rates that are too low, thereby overestimating the bond value. Example 7-10: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 1/Quant. Analysis a) See Figures 7-3a an 7-3b. The coupon yield curve is an average of the spot, zerocoupon curve, hence has to lie below the spot curve when it is upward-sloping. The forward curve can be interpreted as the spot curve plus the slope of the spot curve. If the latter is upward sloping, the forward curve has to be above the spot curve. Example 7-11: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 51/Capital Markets a) Using (1 ⫺ 6%) ⳱ (1 ⫺ SMM)12 , we ﬁnd SMM = 0.51%. Example 7-12: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 14/Capital Markets b) As (1 ⫺ SMM)12 ⳱ (1 ⫺ CPR). Example 7-13: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 87/Market Risk b) Discounted cash ﬂows are not useful for CMOs because they are uncertain. So, duration is a measure of interest rate sensitivity. We have (dP 冫 P ) ⳱ D ⴱ dy ⳱ 50 ⫻ 1% ⳱ 50%.

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Example 7-14: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 18/Capital Markets c) MBSs are subject to I, II, III (either homeowner or agency default). Brady bonds are subject to I, III, IV. Neither is exposed to currency risk. Example 7-15: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 44/Capital Markets a) The question is which factor has the greatest effect on the interest rate convexity, or increases the prepayment rate when rates fall . Seasoning and seasonality are not related to interest rates. Burnout lowers the prepayment rate. So, reﬁnancing incentives is the remaining factor that affects most the option feature. Example 7-16: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 40/Capital Markets c) Effective convexity is useful when the cash ﬂows are uncertain. All attributes are reasons for using effective convexity, except that the price risk decreases as maturity gets close. This holds for a regular coupon-paying bond anyway. Example 7-17: FRM Exam 2001----Ques:wtion 95 c) This question is applicable to MBSs as well as callable bonds. From Figure 7-6, we see that the callable bond behaves like a straight bond when market yields are high, or when the bond price is low. So, (c) is correct and (a) and (d) must be wrong. Example 7-18: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 13/Capital Markets c) Like a CMO, a CLO represents a set of tradable securities backed by some collateral, in this case a loan portfolio. Example 7-19: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 121/Quant. Analysis d) Risk is measured by duration. Treasury bills and ﬂoaters have very small duration. A 10-year ﬁxed-rate note will have a duration of perhaps 8 years. In contrast, an inverse (or reverse) ﬂoater has twice the duration. Example 7-20: FRM Exam 1998----Ques:wtion 32/Capital Markets c) The duration is normally about 14 years. Note that if the current coupon is zero, the inverse ﬂoater behaves like a zero-coupon bond with a duration of 10 years.

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Example 7-21: FRM Exam 1999----Ques:wtion 79/Market Risk c) Following the same reasoning as above, we must divide the ﬁxed-rate bonds into 2/3 FRN and 1/3 inverse ﬂoater. This will ensure that the inverse ﬂoater payment is related to twice LIBOR. As a result, the duration of the inverse ﬂoater must be 3 times that of the bond. Example 7-22: FRM Exam 2000----Ques:wtion 3/Capital Markets d) MBSs are unlike regular bonds, Treasuries, or corporates, because of their negative convexity. When rates fall, homeowners prepay early, which means that the price

TE

AM FL Y

appreciation is less than that of comparable duration regular bonds.

Team-Fly® Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 8 Fixed-Income Derivatives This chapter turns to the analysis of ﬁxed-income derivatives. These are instruments whose value derives from a bond price, interest rate, or other bond market variable. As discussed in Chapter 5, ﬁxed-income derivatives account for the largest proportion of the global derivatives markets. Understanding ﬁxed-income derivatives is also important because many ﬁxed-income securities have derivative-like characteristics. This chapter focuses on the use of ﬁxed-income derivatives, as well as their pricing. Pricing involves ﬁnding the fair market value of the contract. For risk management purposes, however, we also need to assess the range of possible movements in contract values. This will be further examined in the chapters on market risk and in Chapter 21, when discussing credit exposure. Section 8.1 discusses interest rate forward contracts, also known as forward rate agreements. Section 8.2 then turns to the discussion of interest rate futures, covering Eurodollar and Treasury Bond futures. Although these products are dollar-based, similar products exist on other capital markets. Swaps are analyzed in Section 8.3. Swaps are very important instruments due to their widespread use. Finally, interest rate options are covered in Section 8.4, including caps and ﬂoors, swaptions, and exchange-traded options.1

8.1

Forward Contracts

Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs) are over-the-counter ﬁnancial contracts that allow counterparties to lock in an interest rate starting at a future time. The buyers of an FRA lock in a borrowing rate, the sellers lock in a lending rate. In other words, the “long” beneﬁts from an increase in rates and the short beneﬁts from a fall in rates.

1

The reader should be aware that this chapter is very technical.

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As an example, consider an FRA that settles in one month on 3-month LIBOR. Such FRA is called 1 ⫻ 4. The ﬁrst number corresponds to the ﬁrst settlement date, the second to the time to ﬁnal maturity. Call τ the period to which LIBOR applies, 3 months in this case. On the settlement date, in one month, the payment to the long involves the net value of the difference between the spot rate ST (the prevailing 3month LIBOR rate) and of the locked-in forward rate F The payoff is ST ⫺ F , as with other forward contracts, present valued to the ﬁrst settlement date. This gives VT ⳱ (ST ⫺ F ) ⫻ τ ⫻ Notional ⫻ PV($1)

(8.1)

where PV($1) ⳱ $1冫 (1ⳭST τ ). The amount is cash settled. Figure 8-1 shows how a short position in an FRA, which locks in an investing rate, is equivalent to borrowing shortterm to ﬁnance a long-term investment. In both cases, there is no up-front investment. The duration is equal to the difference between the durations of the two legs. From Equation (8.1), the duration is τ and dollar duration DD ⳱ τ ⫻ Notional ⫻ PV($1).

FIGURE 8-1 Decompositions of an FRA

Spot rates: R2 R1 Position : borrow 1 yr, invest 2 yr

Forward rates: F1,2 Position : short FRA (receive fixed)

0

1

2

Example: Using an FRA A company will receive $100 million in 6 months to be invested for a 6-month period. The Treasurer is afraid rates will fall, in which case the investment return will

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be lower. The company could sell a 6 ⫻ 12 FRA on $100 million at the rate of F ⳱ 5%. This locks in an investment rate of 5% starting in six months. When the FRA expires in 6 months, assume that the prevailing 6-month spot rate is ST ⳱ 4%. This will lower the investment return on the cash received, which is the scenario the Treasurer feared. Using Equation (8.1), the FRA has a payoff of VT ⳱ ⫺(4% ⫺ 5%) ⫻ (6冫 12) ⫻ $100 million ⳱ $500,000, which multiplied by the present value factor gives $490,196. In effect, this payment offsets the lower return that the company would otherwise receive on a ﬂoating investment, guaranteeing a return equal to the forward rate. This contract is also equivalent to borrowing the present value of $100 million for 6 months and investing the proceeds for 12 months. Thus its duration is D12 ⫺ D6 ⳱ 12 ⫺ 6 ⳱ 6 months. Key concept: A short FRA position is similar to a long position in a bond. Its duration is positive and equal to the difference between the two maturities. Example 8-1: FRM Exam 2001----Question 70/Capital Markets 8-1. Consider the following 6 ⫻ 9 FRA. Assume the buyer of the FRA agrees to a contract rate of 6.35% on a notional amount of $10 million. Calculate the settlement amount of the seller if the settlement rate is 6.85%. Assume a 30/360 day count basis. a) ⫺12, 500 b) ⫺12, 290 c) Ⳮ12, 500 d) Ⳮ12, 290 Example 8-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 73/Capital Markets 8-2. The following instruments are traded, on an ACT/360 basis: 3-month deposit (91 days), at 4.5% 3 ⫻ 6 FRA (92 days), at 4.6% 6 ⫻ 9 FRA (90 days), at 4.8% 9 ⫻ 12 FRA (92 days), at 6% What is the 1-year interest rate on an ACT/360 basis? a) 5.19% b) 5.12% c) 5.07% d) 4.98%

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Example 8-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 54/Capital Markets 8-3. Roughly estimate the DV01 for a 2 ⫻ 5 CHF 100 million FRA in which a trader will pay ﬁxed and receive ﬂoating rate. a) CHF 1,700 b) CHF (1,700) c) CHF 2,500 d) CHF (2,500)

8.2

Futures

Whereas FRAs are over-the-counter contracts, futures are traded on organized exchanges. We will cover the most important types of futures contracts, Eurodollar and T-bond futures.

8.2.1

Eurodollar Futures

Eurodollar futures are futures contracts tied to a forward LIBOR rate. Since their creation on the Chicago Mercantile Exchange, Eurodollar futures have spread to equivalent contracts such as Euribor futures (denominated in euros),2 Euroswiss futures (denominated in Swiss francs), Euroyen futures (denominated in Japanese yen), and so on. These contracts are akin to FRAs involving 3-month forward rates starting on a wide range of dates, from near dates to ten years into the future. The formula for calculating the price of one contract is Pt ⳱ 10, 000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25(100 ⫺ FQt )] ⳱ 10, 000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25Ft ]

(8.2)

where FQt is the quoted Eurodollar futures price. This is quoted as 100.00 minus the interest rate Ft , expressed in percent, that is, FQt ⳱ 100 ⫺ Ft . The 0.25 factor represents the 3-month maturity, or 0.25 years. For instance, if the market quotes FQt ⳱ 94.47, the contract price is P ⳱ 10, 000[100 ⫺ 0.25 ⫻ 5.53] ⳱ $98, 175. At expiration, the contract price settles to PT ⳱ 10, 000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25ST ] 2

(8.3)

Euribor futures are based on the European Bankers Federations’ Euribor Offered Rate (EBF Euribor). The contracts differ from Euro LIBOR futures, which are based on the British Bankers’ Association London Interbank Offer Rate (BBA LIBOR), but are much less active.

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where ST is the 3-month Eurodollar spot rate prevailing at T . Payments are cash settled. As a result, Ft can be viewed as a 3-month forward rate that starts at the maturity of the futures contract. The formula for the contract price may look complicated but in fact is structured so that an increase in the interest rate leads to a decrease in the price of the contract, as is usual for ﬁxed-income instruments. Also, since the change in the price is related to the interest rate by a factor of 0.25, this contract has a constant duration of 3 months. The DV01 is DV01 ⳱ $10, 000 ⫻ 0.25 ⫻ 0.01 ⳱ $25.

Example: Using Eurodollar futures As in the previous section, the Treasurer wants to hedge a future investment of $100 million in 6 months for a 6-month period. He or she should sell Eurodollar futures to generate a gain if rates fall. If the futures contract trades at FQt ⳱ 95.00, the dollar value of the contract is P ⳱ 10,000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25(100 ⫺ 95)] ⳱ $987, 500. The duration of the Eurodollar futures is three months; that of the company’s investment is six months. Using the ratio of dollar durations, the number of contracts to sell is N⳱

0.50 ⫻ $100, 000, 000 DV V ⳱ ⳱ 202.53 0.25 ⫻ $987, 500 DF P

Rounding, the Treasurer needs to sell 203 contracts. Chapter 5 has explained that the pricing of forwards is similar to those of futures, except when the value of the futures contract is strongly correlated with the reinvestment rate. This is the case with Eurodollar futures. Interest rate futures contracts are designed to move like a bond, that is, lose value when interest rates increase. The correlation is negative. This implies that when interest rates rise, the futures contract loses value and in addition funds have to be provided precisely when the borrowing cost or reinvestment rate is higher. Conversely when rates drop, the contract gains value and the proﬁts can be withdrawn but are now reinvested at a lower rate. Relative to forward contracts, this marking-to-market feature is disadvantageous to long futures positions. This has to be offset by a lower value for the futures contract price. Given that Pt ⳱ 10, 000 ⫻ [100 ⫺ 0.25 ⫻ Ft ], this implies a higher Eurodollar futures rate Ft .

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The difference is called the convexity adjustment and can be described as3 Futures Rate ⳱ Forward Rate Ⳮ (1冫 2)σ 2 t1 t2

(8.4)

where σ is the volatility of the change in the short-term rate, t1 is the time to maturity of the futures contract, and t2 is the maturity of the rate underlying the futures contract.

Example: Convexity adjustment Consider a 10-year Eurodollar contract, for which t1 ⳱ 10, t2 ⳱ 10.25. The maturity of the futures contract itself is 10 years and that of the underlying rate is 10 years plus three months. Typically, σ ⳱ 1%, so that the adjustment is (1冫 2)0.012 ⫻ 10 ⫻ 10.25 ⳱ 0.51%. So, if the forward price is 6%, the equivalent futures rate would be 6.51%. Note that the effect is signiﬁcant for long maturities only. Changing t1 to one year and t2 to 1.25, for instance, reduces the adjustment to 0.006%, which is negligible.

Example 8-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Capital Markets 8-4. What are the differences between forward rate agreements (FRAs) and Eurodollar Futures? I. FRAs are traded on an exchange, whereas Eurodollar Futures are not. II. FRAs have better liquidity than Eurodollar Futures. III. FRAs have standard contract sizes, whereas Eurodollar Futures do not. a) I only b) I and II only c) II and III only d) None of the above

Example 8-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 40/Capital Markets 8-5. Roughly, how many 3-month LIBOR Eurodollar Futures contracts are needed to hedge a long 100 million position in 1-year U.S. Treasury Bills? a) Short 100 b) Long 4,000 c) Long 100 d) Short 400 3

This formula is derived from the Ho-Lee model. See for instance Hull (2000), Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives, Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice-Hall.

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Example 8-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 7/Capital Markets 8-6. For assets that are strongly positively correlated with interest rates, which one of the following is true? a) Long-dated forward contracts will have higher prices than long-dated futures contracts. b) Long-dated futures contracts will have higher prices than long-dated forward contracts. c) Long-dated forward and long-dated futures prices are always the same. d) The “convexity effect” can be ignored for long-dated futures contracts on that asset.

8.2.2

T-bond Futures

T-bond futures are futures contracts tied to a pool of Treasury bonds that consists of all bonds with a remaining maturity greater than 15 years (and noncallable within 15 years). Similar contracts exist on shorter rates, including 2-, 5-, and 10-year Treasury notes. Treasury futures also exist in other markets, including Canada, the United Kingdom, Eurozone, and Japanese government bonds. Futures contracts are quoted like T-bonds, for example 97-02, in percent plus thirty-seconds, with a notional of $100,000. Thus the price of the contract would be $100,000 ⫻ (97 Ⳮ 2冫 32)冫 100 ⳱ $97,062.50. The next day, if yields go up and the quoted price falls to 96-0, the new price would be $965,000, and the loss on a long position would be P2 ⫺ P1 ⳱ ⫺$1,062.50. It is important to note that the T-bond futures contract is settled by physical delivery. To ensure interchangeability between the deliverable bonds, the futures contract uses a conversion factor (CF) for delivery. This factor multiplies the futures price for payment to the short and attempts to equalize the net cost of delivering the eligible bonds. The conversion factor is needed due to the fact that bonds trade at widely different prices. High coupon bonds trade at a premium, low coupon bonds at a discount. Without this adjustment, the party with the short position (the“short”) would always deliver the same, cheap bond and there would be little exchangeability between bonds. This exchangeability minimizes the possibility of market squeezes. A squeeze occurs when holders of the short position cannot acquire or borrow the securities required for delivery under the terms of the contract.

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So, the “short” delivers a bond and receives the quoted futures price times a CF that is speciﬁc to the delivered bond (plus accrued interest). The “short” picks the bond that minimizes the net cost, Cost ⳱ Price ⫺ Futures Quote ⫻ CF

(8.5)

The bond with the lowest net cost is called cheapest to deliver (CTD). In practice, the CF is set by the exchange at initiation of the contract. It is computed by discounting the bond cash ﬂows at a notional 6% rate, assuming a ﬂat term structure. So, high coupon bonds receive a high conversion factor. The net cost calculations are illustrated in Table 8-1 for three bonds. The 10 5/8% coupon bond has a high factor, at 1.4533. The 5 1/2% bond in contrast has a factor less than one. Note how the CF adjustment brings the cost of all bonds much closer to each other than their original prices. Still, small differences remain due to the fact that the term structure is not perfectly ﬂat at 6%.4 The ﬁrst bond is the CTD. TABLE 8-1 Calculation of CTD Bond 8 7/8% Aug 2017 10 5/8% Aug 2015 5 1/2% Nov 2028

Price 127.094 141.938 91.359

Futures 97.0625 97.0625 97.0625

CF 1.3038 1.4533 0.9326

Cost 0.544 0.877 0.839

As a ﬁrst approximation, this CTD bond drives the characteristics of the futures contract. The equilibrium futures price is given by Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St ⫺ PV(D )

(8.6)

where St is the gross price of the CTD and PV(D ) is the present value of the coupon payments. This has to be further divided by the conversion factor for this bond. The duration of the futures contract is also given by that of the CTD. In fact, these relations are only approximate because the “short” has an option to deliver the cheapest of a 4

The adjustement is not perfect when current yields are far from 6%, or when the term structure is not ﬂat, or when bonds do not trade at their theoretical prices. When rates are below 6%, discounting cash ﬂows at 6% creates an downside bias for CF that increases for longer-term bonds. This tends to favor short-term bonds for delivery. When the term structure is upward sloping, the opposite occurs, and there is a tendency for long-term bonds to be delivered. Every so often, the exchange changes the coupon on the notional to reﬂect market conditions. The recent fall in yields explains why, for instance, the Chicago Board of Trade changed the notional coupon from 8% to 6% in 1999.

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group of bonds. The value of this delivery option should depress the futures price since the party who is long the futures is also short the option, which is unfavorable. Unfortunately, this complex option is not easy to evaluate. Example 8-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 11/Capital Markets 8-7. The Chicago Board of Trade has reduced the notional coupon of its Treasury futures contracts from 8% to 6%. Which of the following statements are likely to be true as a result of the change? a) The cheapest to deliver status will become more unstable if yields hover near the 6% range. b) When yields fall below 6%, higher duration bonds will become cheapest to deliver, whereas lower duration bonds will become cheapest to deliver when yields range above 6%. c) The 6% coupon would decrease the duration of the contract, making it a more effective hedge for the long end of the yield curve. d) There will be no impact at all by the change.

8.3

Swaps

Swaps are agreements by two parties to exchange cash ﬂows in the future according to a prearranged formula. Interest rate swaps have payments tied to an interest rate. The most common type of swap is the ﬁxed-for-ﬂoating swap, where one party commits to pay a ﬁxed percentage of notional against a receipt that is indexed to a ﬂoating rate, typically LIBOR. The risk is that of a change in the level of rates. Other types of swaps are basis swaps, where both payments are indexed to a ﬂoating rate. For instance, the swap can involve exchanging payments tied to 3-month LIBOR against a 3-month Treasury Bill rate. The risk is that of a change in the spread between the reference rates.

8.3.1

Deﬁnitions

Consider two counterparties, A and B, that can raise funds either at ﬁxed or ﬂoating rates, $100 million over ten years. A wants to raise ﬂoating, and B wants to raise ﬁxed. Table 8-2a displays capital costs. Company A has an absolute advantage in the two markets as it can raise funds at rates systematically lower than B. Company A, however, has a comparative advantage in raising ﬁxed as the cost is 1.2% lower than

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for B. In contrast, the cost of raising ﬂoating is only 0.70% lower than for B. Conversely, company B must have a comparative advantage in raising ﬂoating. TABLE 8-2a Cost of Capital Comparison Company A B

Fixed 10.00% 11.20%

Floating LIBOR + 0.30% LIBOR + 1.00%

This provides a rationale for a swap that will be to the mutual advantage of both parties. If both companies directly issue funds in their ﬁnal desired market, the total cost will be LIBOR + 0.30% (for A) and 11.20% (for B), for a total of LIBOR + 11.50%. In contrast, the total cost of raising capital where each has a com-

AM FL Y

parative advantage is 10.0% (for A) and LIBOR + 1.00% (for B), for a total of LIBOR + 11.00%. The gain to both parties from entering a swap is 11.50% ⫺ 11.00% = 0.50%. For instance, the swap described in Tables 8-2b and 8-2c splits the beneﬁt equally between the two parties.

TABLE 8-2b Swap to Company A Fixed Pay 10.00% Receive 10.00%

TE

Operation Issue debt Enter swap Net Direct cost Savings

Floating

Pay LIBOR + 0.05% Pay LIBOR + 0.05% Pay LIBOR + 0.30% 0.25%

Company A issues ﬁxed debt at 10.00%, and then enters a swap whereby it promises to pay LIBOR + 0.05% in exchange for receiving 10.00% ﬁxed payments. Its effective funding cost is therefore LIBOR + 0.05%, which is less than the direct cost by 25bp. TABLE 8-2c Swap to Company B Operation Issue debt Enter swap Net Direct cost Savings

Floating Pay LIBOR + 1.00% Receive LIBOR + 0.05%

Fixed Pay 10.00% Pay 10.95% Pay 11.20% 0.25%

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Similarly, Company B issues ﬂoating debt at LIBOR + 1.0%, and then enters a swap whereby it receives LIBOR + 0.05% in exchange for paying 10.0% ﬁxed. Its effective funding cost is therefore 10.95%, which is less than the direct cost by 25bp. Both parties beneﬁt from the swap. In terms of actual cash ﬂows, payments are typically netted against each other. For instance, if the ﬁrst LIBOR rate is at 9% assuming annual payments, Company A would be owed 10% ⫻ $100 ⳱ $1 million, and have to pay 9.05% ⫻ $100 ⳱ $0.905 million. This gives a net receipt of $95,000. There is no need to exchange principals since both involve the same amount.

8.3.2

Quotations

Swaps are often quoted in terms of spreads relative to the yield of similar-maturity Treasury notes. For instance, a dealer may quote 10-year swap spreads as 31冫 34bp against LIBOR. If the current note yield is 6.72, this means that the dealer is willing to pay 6.72Ⳮ0.31 ⳱ 7.03% against receiving LIBOR, or that the dealer is willing to receive 6.72 Ⳮ 0.34 ⳱ 7.06% against paying LIBOR. Of course, the dealer makes a proﬁt from the spread, which is rather small, at 3bp only. Swap rates are quoted for AA-rated counterparties. For lower rated counterparties the spread would be higher.

8.3.3

Pricing

Consider, for instance, a 3-year $100 million swap, where we receive a ﬁxed coupon of 5.50% against LIBOR. Payments are annual and we ignore credit spreads. We can price the swap using either of two approaches, taking the difference between two bond prices or valuing a sequence of forward contracts. This is illustrated in Figure 8-2. This swap is equivalent to a long position in a ﬁxed-rate, 5.5% 3-year bond and a short position in a 3-year ﬂoating-rate note (FRN). If BF is the value of the ﬁxed-rate bond and Bf is the value of the FRN, the value of the swap is V ⳱ BF ⫺ Bf . The value of the FRN should be close to par. Just before a reset, Bf will behave exactly like a cash investment, as the coupon for the next period will be set to the prevailing interest rate. Therefore, its market value should be close to the face value. Just after a reset, the FRN will behave like a bond with a 6-month maturity. But overall, ﬂuctuations in the market value of Bf should be small. Consider now the swap value. If at initiation the swap coupon is set to the prevailing par yield, BF is equal to the face value, BF ⳱ 100. Because Bf ⳱ 100 just before

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FIGURE 8-2 Alternative Decompositions for Swap Cash Flows $100m

Long fixedrate bond

5.5% × $100m LIBOR × $100m

Short floatingrate bond

$100m

5.5% × $100m Long forward contracts L× $100m 0

1

2

3

Year

the reset on the ﬂoating leg, the value of the swap is zero, V ⳱ BF ⫺ Bf ⳱ 0. This is like a forward contract at initiation. After the swap is consummated, its value will be affected by interest rates. If rates fall, the swap will move in the money, since it receives higher coupons than prevailing market yields. BF will increase whereas Bf will barely change. Thus the duration of a receive-ﬁxed swap is similar to that of a ﬁxed-rate bond, including the ﬁxed coupons and principal at maturity. This is because the duration of the ﬂoating leg is close to zero. The fact that the principals are not exchanged does not mean that the duration computation should not include the principal. Duration should be viewed as an interest rate sensitivity.

Key concept: A position in a receive-ﬁxed swap is equivalent to a long position in a bond with similar coupon characteristics and maturity offset by a short position in a ﬂoating-rate note. Its duration is close to that of the ﬁxed-rate note.

We now value the 3-year swap using term-structure data from the preceding chapter. The time is just before a reset, so Bf ⳱ $100 million. We compute BF (in millions) as

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199

$5.5 $5.5 $105.5 Ⳮ Ⳮ ⳱ $100.95 2 (1 Ⳮ 4.000%) (1 Ⳮ 4.618%) (1 Ⳮ 5.192%)3

The outstanding value of the swap is therefore V ⳱ $100.95 ⫺ $100 ⳱ $0.95 million. Alternatively, the swap can be valued as a sequence of forward contracts. Recall that the valuation of a unit position in a long forward contract is given by Vi ⳱ (Fi ⫺ K )exp(⫺ri τi )

(8.7)

where Fi is the market forward rate, K the prespeciﬁed rate, and ri the spot rate for time τi , using continuous compounding. Extending this to multiple maturities, the swap can be valued as V ⳱

冱 ni (Fi ⫺ K )exp(⫺ri τi )

(8.8)

i

where ni is the notional amount for maturity i . Since the contract increases in value if market rates, i.e., Fi , go up, this corresponds to a pay-ﬁxed position. We have to adapt this to our receive-ﬁxed swap and annual compounding. Using the forward rates listed in Table 7-4, we ﬁnd V ⳱⫺

$100(4.000% ⫺ 5.50%) $100(5.240% ⫺ 5.50%) $100(6.350% ⫺ 5.50%) ⫺ ⫺ (1 Ⳮ 4.000%) (1 Ⳮ 4.618%)2 (1 Ⳮ 5.192%)3

V ⳱ Ⳮ1.4423 Ⳮ 0.2376 ⫺ 0.7302 ⳱ $0.95 million This is identical to the previous result, as should be. The swap is in-the-money primarily because of the ﬁrst payment, which pays a rate of 5.5% whereas the forward rate is only 4.00%. Thus, interest rate swaps can be priced and hedged using a sequence of forward rates, such as those implicit in Eurodollar contracts. In practice, the practice of daily marking-to-market futures induces a slight convexity bias in futures rates, which have to be adjusted downward to get forward rates. Figure 8-3 compares a sequence of quarterly forward rates with the ﬁve-year swap rate prevailing at the same time. Because short-term forward rates are less than the swap rate, the near payments are in-the-money. In contrast, the more distant payments are out-of-the-money. The current market value of this swap is zero, which implies that all the near-term positive values must be offset by distant negative values.

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FIGURE 8-3 Sequence of Forward Rates and Swap Rate Interest rate 5.00 Forward rates 4.00

Fixed swap rate

3.00

2.00

1.00

0 0

1

2 Time (years)

3

4

5

Example 8-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 55/Credit Risk 8-8. Bank One enters into a 5-year swap contract with Mervin Co. to pay LIBOR in return for a ﬁxed 8% rate on a nominal principal of $100 million. Two years from now, the market rate on three-year swaps at LIBOR is 7%; at this time Mervin Co. declares bankruptcy and defaults on its swap obligation. Assume that the net payment is made only at the end of each year for the swap contract period. What is the market value of the loss incurred by Bank One as result of the default? a) $1.927 million b) $2.245 million c) $2.624 million d) $3.011 million

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Example 8-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 42/Capital Markets 8-9. A multinational corporation is considering issuing a ﬁxed-rate bond. However, by using interest swaps and ﬂoating-rate notes, the issuer can achieve the same objective. To do so, the issuer should consider a) Issuing a ﬂoating-rate note of the same maturity of and enter into an interest rate swap paying ﬁxed and receiving ﬂoat b) Issuing a ﬂoating-rate note of the same maturity of and enter into an interest rate swap paying ﬂoat and receiving ﬁxed c) Buying a ﬂoating-rate note of the same maturity of and enter into an interest rate swap paying ﬁxed and receiving ﬂoat d) Buying a ﬂoating-rate note of the same maturity of and enter into an interest rate swap paying ﬂoat and receiving ﬁxed

Example 8-10: FRM Exam 1998----Question 46/Capital Markets 8-10. Which of the following positions has the same exposure to interest rates as the receiver of the ﬂoating rate on a standard interest rate swap? a) Long a ﬂoating-rate note with the same maturity b) Long a ﬁxed-rate note with the same maturity c) Short a ﬂoating-rate note with the same maturity d) Short a ﬁxed-rate note with the same maturity

Example 8-11: FRM Exam 1999----Question 59/Capital Markets 8-11. (Complex) If an interest rate swap is priced off the Eurodollar futures strip without correcting the rates for convexity, the resulting arbitrage can be exploited by a a) Receive-ﬁxed swap + short Eurodollar futures position b) Pay-ﬁxed swap + short Eurodollar futures position c) Receive-ﬁxed swap + long Eurodollar futures position d) Pay-ﬁxed swap + long Eurodollar futures position

8.4

Options

There is a large variety of ﬁxed-income options. We will brieﬂy describe here caps and ﬂoors, swaptions, and exchange-traded options. In addition to these stand alone instruments, ﬁxed-income options are embedded in many securities. For instance, a callable bond can be viewed as a regular bond plus a short position in an option.

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When considering ﬁxed-income options, the underlying can be a yield or a price. Due to the negative price-yield relationship, a call option on a bond can also be viewed as a put option on the underlying yield.

8.4.1

Caps and Floors

A cap is a call option on interest rates with unit value CT ⳱ Max[iT ⫺ iC , 0]

(8.9)

where iC is the cap rate and iT is the rate prevailing at maturity. In practice, caps are issued jointly with the issuance of ﬂoating-rate notes that pay LIBOR plus a spread on a periodic basis for the term of the note. By purchasing the cap, the issuer ensures that the cost of capital will not exceed the capped rate. Such caps are really a combination of individual options, called caplets. The payment on each caplet is determined by CT , the notional, and an accrual factor. Payments are made in arrears, that is, at the end of the period. For instance, take a one-year cap on a notional of $1 million and a 6-month LIBOR cap rate of 5%. The agreement period is from January 15 to the next January with a reset on July 15. Suppose that on July 15, LIBOR is at 5.5%. On the following January, the payment is $1 million ⫻ (0.055 ⫺ 0.05)(184冫 360) ⳱ $2, 555.56 using Actual 冫 360 interest accrual. If the cap is used to hedge an FRN, this would help to offset the higher coupon payment, which is now 5.5%. A ﬂoor is a put option on interest rates with value PT ⳱ Max[iF ⫺ iT , 0]

(8.10)

where iF is the ﬂoor rate. A collar is a combination of buying a cap and selling a ﬂoor. This combination decreases the net cost of purchasing the cap protection. When the cap and ﬂoor rates converge to the same value, the overall debt cost becomes ﬁxed instead of ﬂoating. By put-call parity, we have Long Cap(iC ⳱ K ) ⫺ Short Floor(iF ⳱ K ) ⳱ Long Pay ⫺ Fixed Swap

(8.11)

Caps are typically priced using a variant of the Black model, assuming that interest rate changes are lognormal. The value of the cap is set equal to a portfolio of K caplets, which are European-style individual options on different interest rates with

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regularly spaced maturities K

c⳱

冱 ck

(8.12)

k⳱1

Each caplet is priced according to the Black model, per dollar and year ck ⳱ [FN (d1 ) ⫺ KN (d2 )]PV($1)

(8.13)

where F is the current forward rate for the period tk to tkⳭ1 , K is the cap rate, and PV($1) is the discount factor to time tkⳭ1 . To obtain a dollar amount, we must adjust for the notional amount as well as the length of the accrual period. The volatility entering the function, σ , is that of the forward rate between now and the expiration of the option contract, that is, at tk . Generally, volatilities are quoted as one number for all caplets within a cap, which is called ﬂat volatilities. σk ⳱ σ Alternatively, volatilities can be quoted separately for each forward rate in the caplet, which is called spot volatilities.

Example: Computing the value of a cap Consider the previous cap on $1 million at the capped rate of 5%. Assume a ﬂat term structure at 5.5% and a volatility of 20% pa. The reset is on July 15, in 181 days; the accrual period is 184 days. Since the term structure is ﬂat, the six-month forward rate starting in six months is also 5.5%. First, we compute the present value factor, which is PV($1) ⳱ 1冫 (1 Ⳮ 0.055 ⫻ 365冫 360) ⳱ 0.9472, and the volatility, which is σ冪τ ⳱ 0.20 冪181冫 360 ⳱ 0.1418. We then compute the value of d1 ⳱ln[F 冫 K ]冫σ冪τⳭσ冪τ 冫 2 ⳱ ln[0.055冫 0.05]冫0.1418Ⳮ 0.1418冫 2 ⳱ 0.7430 and d2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ冪τ ⳱ 0.7430 ⫺ 0.1418 ⳱ 0.6012. We ﬁnd N (d1 ) ⳱ 0.7713 and N (d2 ) ⳱ 0.7261. The value of the call is c ⳱ [F N (d1 ) ⫺ KN (d2 )]PV($1) ⳱ 0.5789%. Finally, the total price of the call is $1million ⫻ 0.5789% ⫻ (184冫 360) ⳱ $2,959. Figure 8-3 can be taken as an illustration of the sequence of forward rates. If the cap rate is the same as the prevailing swap rate, the cap is said to be at-the-money. In

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the ﬁgure, the near caplets are out-of-the-money because Fi ⬍ K . The distant caplets, however, are in-the-money. Example 8-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 54/Capital Markets 8-12. The cap-ﬂoor parity can be stated as a) Short cap + Long ﬂoor = Fixed-rate bond. b) Long cap + Short ﬂoor = Fixed swap. c) Long cap + Short ﬂoor = Floating-rate bond. d) Short cap + Short ﬂoor = Interest rate collar.

Example 8-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 60/Capital Markets 8-13. For a 5-year ATM cap on the 3-month LIBOR, what can be said about the individual caplets, in a downward sloping term-structure environment? a) The short maturity caplets are ITM, long maturity caplets are OTM. b) The short maturity caplets are OTM, long maturity caplets are ITM. c) All the caplets are ATM. d) The moneyness of the individual caplets also depends on the volatility term structure.

8.4.2

Swaptions

Swaptions are OTC options that give the buyer the right to enter a swap at a ﬁxed point in time at speciﬁed terms, including a ﬁxed coupon rate. These contracts take many forms. A European swaption is exercisable on a single date at some point in the future. On that date, the owner has the right to enter a swap with a speciﬁc rate and term. Consider for example a “1Y x 5Y” swaption. This gives the owner the right to enter in one year a long or short position in a 5-year swap. A ﬁxed-term American swaption is exercisable on any date during the exercise period. In our example, this would be during the next year. If, for instance, exercise occurs after six months, the swap would terminate in 5 years and six months. So, the termination date of the swap depends on the exercise date. In contrast, a contingent American swaption has a prespeciﬁed termination date, for instance exactly six years from now. Finally, a Bermudan option gives the holder the right to exercise on a speciﬁc set of dates during the life of the option. As an example, consider a company that, in one year, will issue 5-year ﬂoatingrate debt. The company wishes to swap the ﬂoating payments into ﬁxed payments.

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The company can purchase a swaption that will give it the right to create a 5-year pay-ﬁxed swap at the rate of 8%. If the prevailing swap rate in one year is higher than 8%, the company will exercise the swaption, otherwise not. The value of the option at expiration will be PT ⳱ Max[V (iT ) ⫺ V (iK ), 0]

(8.14)

where V (i ) is the value of a swap to pay a ﬁxed rate i , iT is the prevailing swap rate at swap maturity, and iK is the locked-in swap rate. This contract is called a European 6/1 put swaption, or 1 into 5-year payer option. Such a swap is equivalent to an option on a bond. As this swaption creates a proﬁt if rates rise, it is akin to a one-year put option on a 6-year bond. Conversely, a swaption that gives the right to receive ﬁxed is akin to a call option on a bond. Table 8-3 summarizes the terminology for swaps, caps and ﬂoors, and swaptions. Swaptions are typically priced using a variant of the Black model, assuming that interest rates are lognormal. The value of the swaption is then equal to a portfolio of options on different interest rates, all with the same maturity. In practice, swaptions are traded in terms of volatilities instead of option premiums.

TABLE 8-3 Summary of Terminology for OTC Swaps and Options Product Fixed/Floating Swap Cap Floor Put Swaption (payer option) Call Swaption (receiver option)

Buy (long) Pay ﬁxed Receive ﬂoating Pay premium Receive Max(i ⫺ iC , 0) Pay premium Receive Max(iF ⫺ i, 0) Pay premium Option to pay ﬁxed and receive ﬂoating Pay premium Option to pay ﬂoating and receive ﬁxed

Sell (short) Pay ﬂoating Receive ﬁxed Receive premium Pay Max(i ⫺ iC , 0) Receive premium Pay Max(iF ⫺ i, 0) Receive premium If exercised, receive ﬁxed and pay ﬂoating Receive premium If exercised, receive ﬂoating and pay ﬁxed

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Example 8-14: FRM Exam 1997----Question 18/Derivatives 8-14. The price of an option that gives you the right to receive ﬁxed on a swap will decrease as a) Time to expiry of the option increases. b) Time to expiry of the swap increases. c) The swap rate increases. d) Volatility increases.

TE

AM FL Y

Example 8-15: FRM Exam 2000----Question 10/Capital Markets 8-15. Consider a 2 into 3-year Bermudan swaption (i.e., an option to obtain a swap that starts in 2 years and matures in 5 years). Consider the following statements: I. A lower bound on the Bermudan price is a 2 into 3-year European swaption. II. An upper bound on the Bermudan price is a cap that starts in 2 years and matures in 5 years. III. A lower bound on the Bermudan price is a 2 into 5-year European option. Which of the following statements is (are) true? a) I only b) II only c) I and II d) III only

8.4.3

Exchange-Traded Options

Among exchange-traded ﬁxed-income options, we describe options on Eurodollar futures and on T-bond futures. Options on Eurodollar futures give the owner the right to enter a long or short position in Eurodollar futures at a ﬁxed price. The payoff on a put option, for example, is PT ⳱ Notional ⫻ Max[K ⫺ FQT , 0] ⫻ (90冫 360)

(8.15)

where K is the strike price and FQT the prevailing futures price quote at maturity. In addition to the cash payoff, the option holder enters a position in the underlying futures. Since this is a put, it creates a short position after exercise, with the counterparty taking the opposing position. Note that, since futures are settled daily, the value of the contract is zero.

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Since the futures price can also be written as FQT ⳱ 100 ⫺ iT and the strike price as K ⳱ 100 ⫺ iC , the payoff is also PT ⳱ Notional ⫻ Max[iT ⫺ iC , 0] ⫻ (90冫 360)

(8.16)

which is equivalent to that of a cap on rates. Thus a put on Eurodollar futures is equivalent to a caplet on LIBOR. In practice, there are minor differences in the contracts. Options on Eurodollar futures are American style instead of European style. Also, payments are made at the expiration date of Eurodollar futures options instead of in arrears. Options on T-Bond futures give the owner the right to enter a long or short position in futures at a ﬁxed price. The payoff on a call option, for example, is CT ⳱ Notional ⫻ Max[FT ⫺ K, 0]

(8.17)

An investor who thinks that rates will fall, or that the bond market will rally, could buy a call on T-Bond futures. In this manner, he or she will participate in the upside, without downside risk.

8.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 8-1: FRM Exam 2001----Question 70/Capital Markets b) The seller of an FRA agrees to receive ﬁxed. Since rates are now higher than the contract rate, this contract must show a loss. The loss is $10, 000, 000 ⫻ (6.85% ⫺ 6.35%) ⫻ (90冫 360) ⳱ $12, 500 when paid in arrears, i.e. in 9 months. On the settlement date, i.e. in 6 months, the loss is $12, 500冫 (1 Ⳮ 6.85%0.25) ⳱ $12, 290.

Example 8-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 73/Capital Markets c) The 1-year spot rate can be inferred from the sequence of 3-month spot and consecutive 3-month forward rates. We can compute the future value factor for each leg: for 3-mo, (1 Ⳮ 4.5% ⫻ 91冫 360) ⳱ 1.011375, for 3 ⫻ 6, (1 Ⳮ 4.6% ⫻ 92冫 360) ⳱ 1.011756, for 6 ⫻ 9, (1 Ⳮ 4.8% ⫻ 90冫 360) ⳱ 1.01200, for 9 ⫻ 12, (1 Ⳮ 6.0% ⫻ 92冫 360) ⳱ 1.01533. The product is 1.05142 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ r ⫻ 365冫 360), which gives r ⳱ 5.0717%.

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Example 8-3: FRM Exam 1998----Question 54/Capital Markets c) The duration is 5 ⫺ 2 = 3 months. If rates go up, the position generates a proﬁt. So the DV01 must be positive and 100 ⫻ 0.01% ⫻ 0.25 ⳱ 2,500. Example 8-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Capital Markets d) FRAs are OTC contracts, so (I) is wrong. Since Eurodollar futures are the most active contracts in the world, liquidity is excellent and (II) is wrong. Eurodollar contracts have ﬁxed contract sizes, $1 million, so (III) is wrong. Example 8-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 40/Capital Markets d) We need to short Eurodollars in an amount that accounts for the notional and durations of the inventory and hedge. The duration of the 1-year Treasury Bills is 1 year. The DV01 of Eurodollar futures is $1, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.25 ⫻ 0.0001 ⳱ $25. The DV01 of the portfolio is $100, 000, 000 ⫻ 1.00 ⫻ 0.0001 ⳱ $10, 000. This gives a ratio of 400. Alternatively, (VP 冫 VF ) ⫻ (DP 冫 DF ) ⳱ (100冫 1) ⫻ (1冫 0.25) ⳱ 400. Example 8-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 7/Capital Markets b) For assets whose value is negatively related to interest rates, such as Eurodollar futures, the futures rate must be higher than the forward rate. Because rates and prices are inversely related, the futures price quote is lower than the forward price quote. The question deals with a situation where the correlation is positive, rather than negative. Hence, the futures price quote must be above the forward price quote. Example 8-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 11/Capital Markets a) The goal of the CF is to equalize differences between various deliverable bonds. In the extreme, if we discounted all bonds using the current term structure, the CF would provide an exact offset to all bond prices, making all of the deliverable bonds equivalent. This reduction from 8% to 6% notional reﬂects more closely recent interest rates. It will lead to more instability in the CTD, which is exactly the effect intended. (b) is not correct as yields lower than 6% imply that the CF for long-term bonds is lower than otherwise. This will tend to favor bonds with high conversion factors, or shorter bonds. Also, a lower coupon increases the duration of the contract, so (c) is not correct.

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Example 8-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 55/Credit Risk c) Using Equation (8.8) for three remaining periods, we have the discounted value of the net interest payment, or (8% ⫺ 7%)$100,000,000 ⳱ $1,000,000, discounted at 7%, which is $934, 579 Ⳮ $873, 439 Ⳮ $816, 298 ⳱ $2, 624, 316. Example 8-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 42/Capital Markets a) Receiving a ﬂoating rate on the swap will offset the payment on the note, leaving a net obligation at a ﬁxed rate. Example 8-10: FRM Exam 1998----Question 46/Capital Markets d) Paying ﬁxed on the swap is the same as being short a ﬁxed-rate note. Example 8-11: FRM Exam 1999----Question 59/Capital Markets a) (Complex) A receive-ﬁxed swap is equivalent to a long position in a bond, which can be hedged by a short Eurodollar position. Conversely, a pay-ﬁxed swap is hedged by a long Eurodollar position. So, only (a) and (d) are correct. The convexity adjustment should correct futures rates downward. Without this adjustment, forward rates will be too high. This implies that the valuation of a pay-ﬁxed swap is too high. To arbitrage this, we should short the asset that is priced too high, i.e. enter a receive-ﬁxed swap, and buy the position that is cheap, i.e. take a short Eurodollar position. Example 8-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 54/Capital Markets a) With the same strike price, a short cap/long ﬂoor loses money if rates increase, which is equivalent to a long position in a ﬁxed-rate bond. Example 8-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 60/Capital Markets a) In a downward-sloping rate environment, forward rates are higher for short maturities. Caplets involves the right to buy at the same ﬁxed rate for all caplets. Hence short maturities are ITM. Example 8-14: FRM Exam 1997----Question 18/Derivatives c) The value of a call increases with the maturity of the call and the volatility of the underlying asset value (which here also increases with the maturity of the swap contract). So (a) and (d) are wrong. In contrast, the value of the right to receive an asset at K decreases as K increases.

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Example 8-15: FRM Exam 2000----Question 10/Capital Markets c) A swaption is a one-time option that can be exercised either at one point in time (European), at any point during the exercise period (American), or on a discrete set of dates during the exercise period (Bermudan). As such the Bermudan option must be more valuable than the European option, ceteris paribus. Also, a cap is a series of options. As such, it must be more valuable than any option that is exercisable only once. Answers (I) and (II) match the exercise date of the option and the ﬁnal maturity. Answer (III), in contrast, describes an option that matures in 7 years, so cannot be compared with the original swaption.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 9 Equity Markets Having covered ﬁxed-income instruments, we now turn to equities and equity linked instruments. Equities, or common stocks, represent ownership shares in a corporation. Due to the uncertainty in their cash ﬂows, as well as in the appropriate discount rate, equities are much more difﬁcult to value than ﬁxed-income securities. They are also less amenable to the quantitative analysis that is used in ﬁxed-income markets. Equity derivatives, however, can be priced reasonably precisely in relation to underlying stock prices. Section 9.1 introduces equity markets and presents valuation methods. Section 9.2 brieﬂy discusses convertible bonds and warrants. These differ from the usual equity options in that exercising them creates new shares. In contrast, the exercise of options on individual stocks simply transfers shares from one counterpart to another. Section 9.3 then provides an overview of important equity derivatives, including stock index futures, stock options, stock index options, and equity swaps. As the basic valuation methods have been covered in a previous chapter, this section instead focuses on applications.

9.1 9.1.1

Equities Overview

Common stocks, also called equities, are securities that represent ownership in a corporation. Bonds are senior to equities, that is, have a prior claim on the ﬁrm’s assets in case of bankruptcy. Hence equities represent residual claims to what is left of the value of the ﬁrm after bonds, loans, and other contractual obligations have been paid off. Another important feature of common stocks is their limited liability, which means that the most shareholders can lose is their original investment. This is unlike

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owners of unincorporated businesses, whose creditors have a claim on the personal assets of the owner should the business turn bad. Table 9-1 describes the global equity markets. The total market value of common stocks was worth approximately $35 trillion at the end of 1999. The United States accounts for the largest proportion, followed by the Eurozone, Japan, and the United Kingdom. TABLE 9-1 Global Equity Markets - 1999 (Billions of U.S. Dollars) United States Eurozone Japan United Kingdom Other Europe Other Paciﬁc Canada Developed Emerging World

15,370 5,070 4,693 2,895 1,589 1,216 763 31,594 2,979 34,573

Source: Morgan Stanley Capital International

Preferred stocks differ from common stock because they promise to pay a speciﬁc stream of dividends. So, they behave like a perpetual bond, or consol. Unlike bonds, however, failure to pay these dividends does not result in bankruptcy. Instead, the corporation cannot pay dividends to common stock holders until the preferred dividends have been paid out. In other words, preferred stocks are junior to bonds, but senior to common stocks. With cumulative preferred dividends, all current and previously postponed dividends must be paid before any dividends on common stock shares can be paid. Preferred stocks usually have no voting rights. Unlike interest payments, preferred stocks dividends are not tax-deductible expenses. Preferred stocks, however, have an offsetting tax advantage. Corporations that receive preferred dividends only pay taxes on 30% of the amount received, which lowers their income tax burden. As a result, most preferred stocks are held by corporations. The market capitalization of preferred stocks is much lower than that of common stocks, as seen from the IBM example below. Trading volumes are also much lower.

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Example: IBM Preferred Stock IBM issued 11.25 million preferred shares in June 1993. These are traded as 45 million “depositary” shares, each representing one-fourth of the preferred, under the ticker “IBM-A” on the NYSE. Dividends accrue at the rate of $7.50 per annum, or $1.875 per depositary share. As of April 2001, the depositary shares were trading at $25.4, within a narrow 52-week trading range of [$25.00, $26.25]. Using the valuation formula for a consol, the shares trade at an implied yield of 7.38%. The total market capitalization of the IBM-A shares amounts to approximately $260 million. In comparison, the market value of the common stock is $214,602 million, which is more than 800 times larger.

9.1.2

Valuation

Common stocks are extremely difﬁcult to value. Like any other asset, their value derives from their future beneﬁts, that is, from their stream of future cash ﬂows (i.e., dividend payments) or future stock price. We have seen that valuing Treasury bonds is relatively straightforward, as the stream of cash ﬂows, coupon and principal payments, can be easily laid out and discounted into the present. This is an entirely different affair for common stocks. Consider for illustration a “simple” case where a ﬁrm pays out a dividend D over the next year that grows at the constant rate of g . We ignore the ﬁnal stock value and discount at the constant rate of r , such that r ⬎ g . The ﬁrm’s value, P , can be assessed using the net present value formula, like a bond P⳱ ⳱

⬁

冱 Ct 冫 (1 Ⳮ r )t

t ⳱1 ⬁

冱 D(1 Ⳮ g)(t ⫺1)冫 (1 Ⳮ r )t

t ⳱1

⳱ [D 冫 (1 Ⳮ r )]

⬁

冱 [(1 Ⳮ g)冫 (1 Ⳮ r )]t

t ⳱0

⳱ [D 冫 (1 Ⳮ r )] ⫻

冋

1 1 ⫺ (1 Ⳮ g )冫 (1 Ⳮ r )

册

⳱ [D 冫 (1 Ⳮ r )] ⫻ [(1 Ⳮ r )冫 (r ⫺ g )]

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This is also the so-called “Gordon-growth” model, P⳱

D r ⫺g

(9.1)

as long as the discount rate exceeds the growth rate of dividends, r ⬎ g . The problem with equities is that the growth rate of dividends is uncertain and that, in addition, it is not clear what the required discount rate should be. To make things even harder, some companies simply do not pay any dividend and instead create value from the appreciation of their share price. Still, this valuation formula indicates that large variations in equity prices can arise from small changes in the discount rate or in the growth rate of dividends, explaining the large volatility of equities. More generally, the risk and expected return of the equity depends on the underlying business fundamentals as well as on the amount of leverage, or debt in the capital structure. For ﬁnancial intermediaries for which the value of underlying assets can be measured precisely, we can value the equity based on the capital structure. In this situation, however, the equity is really valued as a derivative on the underlying assets. Example 9-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 50/Capital Markets 9-1. A hedge fund leverages its $100 million of investor capital by a factor of three and invests it into a portfolio of junk bonds yielding 14%. If its borrowing costs are 8%, what is the yield on investor capital? a) 14% b) 18% c) 26% d) 42%

9.1.3

Equity Indices

It is useful to summarize the performance of a group of stocks by an index. A stock index summarizes the performance of a representative group of stocks. Most commonly, this is achieved by mimicking the performance of a buy-and-hold strategy where each stock is weighted by its market capitalization. Deﬁne Ri as the price appreciation return from stock i , from the initial price Pi 0 to the ﬁnal price Pi 1 . Ni is the number of shares outstanding, which is ﬁxed over the period. The portfolio value at the initial time is 冱 i Ni Pi 0 . The performance of the index is computed from the rate of change in the portfolio value

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冱 Ni Pi1 ⫺ (冱 Ni Pi0)]冫 (冱 Ni Pi0)

RM 1 ⳱ [

i

i

i

冱 Ni (Pi1 ⫺ Pi0)]冫 (冱 Ni Pi0)

⳱[

i

i

冱 Ni Pi0(Pi1 ⫺ Pi0)冫 Pi0]冫 (冱 Ni Pi0)

⳱[

i

⳱

冱[Ni Pi0冫 (冱 Ni Pi0)](Pi1 ⫺ Pi0)冫 Pi0 i

⳱

i

i

冱[wi ](Pi1 ⫺ Pi0)冫 Pi0 i

Here, Ni Pi 0 is the market capitalization of stock i , and wi ⳱ [Ni Pi 0 冫 (冱 i Ni Pi 0 )] is the market-cap weight of stock i in the index. This gives RM 1 ⳱

冱 wi Ri1

(9.2)

i

From this, the level of the index can be computed, starting from I0 , as I1 ⳱ I0 ⫻ (1 Ⳮ RM 1 )

(9.3)

and so on for the next periods. Thus, most stock indices are constructed using market value weights, also called capitalization weights. Notable exceptions are the Dow and Nikkei 225 indices, which are price weighted, or simply involve a summation of share prices for companies in the index. Among international indices, the German DAX is also unusual because it includes dividend payments. These indices can be used to assess general market risk factors for equities.

9.2 9.2.1

Convertible Bonds and Warrants Deﬁnitions

We now turn to convertible bonds and warrants. While these instruments have option like features, they differ from regular options. When a call option is exercised, for instance, the “long” purchases an outstanding share from the “short.” There is no net creation of shares. In contrast, the exercise of convertible bonds, of warrants, (and of executive stock options) entails the creation of new shares, as the option is sold by the corporation itself. In this case, the existing shares are said to be diluted by the creation of new shares.

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Warrants are long-term call options issued by a corporation on its own stock. They are typically created at the time of a bond issue, but they trade separately from the bond to which they were originally attached. When a warrant is exercised, it results in a cash inﬂow to the ﬁrm which issues more shares. Convertible bonds are bonds issued by a corporation that can be converted into equity at certain times using a predetermined exchange ratio. They are equivalent to a regular bond plus a warrant. This allows the company to issue debt with a lower coupon than otherwise. For example, a bond with a conversion ratio of 10 allows its holder to convert one bond with par value of $1,000 into 10 shares of the common stock. The conversion price, which is really the strike price of the option, is $1,000/10 = $100. The corpora-

AM FL Y

tion will typically issue the convertible deep out of the money, for example when the stock price is at $50. When the stock price moves, for instance to $120, the bond can be converted into stock for an immediate option proﬁt of ($120 ⫺ $100) ⫻ 10 ⳱ $200. Figure 9-1 describes the relationship between the value of the convertible bond and the conversion value, deﬁned as the current stock price times the conversion ratio. The convertible bond value must be greater than the price of an otherwise identical

TE

straight bond and the conversion value.

For high values of the stock price, the ﬁrm is unlikely to default and the straight bond price is constant, reﬂecting the discounting of cash ﬂows at the risk-free rate. In this situation, it is almost certain the option will be exercised and the convertible value is close to the conversion value. For low values of the stock price, the ﬁrm is likely to FIGURE 9-1 Convertible Bond Price and Conversion Value

Conversion value

Convertible bond price

Straight bond price

Conversion value: stock price times conversion ratio

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default and the straight bond price drops, reﬂecting the likely loss upon default. In this situation, it is almost certain the option will not be exercised, and the convertible value is close to the straight bond value. In the intermediate region, the convertible value depends on both the conversion and straight bond values. The convertible is also sensitive to interest rate risk.

Example: A Convertible Bond Consider a 8% annual coupon, 10-year convertible bond with face value of $1,000. The yield on similar maturity straight debt issued by the company is currently 8.50%, which gives a current value of straight debt of $967. The bond can be converted into common stock at a ratio of 10-to-1. Assume ﬁrst that the stock price is $50. The conversion value is then $500, much less than the straight debt value of $967. This corresponds to the left area of Figure 9-1. If the convertible trades at $972, its promised yield is 8.42%. This is close to the yield of straight debt, as the option has little value. Assume next that the stock price is $150. The conversion value is then $1,500, much higher than the straight debt value of $967. This corresponds to the right area of Figure 9-1. If the convertible trades at $1,505, its promised yield is 2.29%. In this case, the conversion option is in-the-money, which explains why the yield is so low.

9.2.2

Valuation

Warrants can be valued by adapting standard option pricing models to the dilution effect of new shares. Consider a company with N outstanding shares and M outstanding warrants, each allowing the holder to purchase γ shares at the ﬁxed price of K . At origination, the value of the ﬁrm includes the warrant, or V0 ⳱ NS0 Ⳮ MW0

(9.4)

where S0 is the initial stock price just before issuing the warrant, and W0 is the upfront value of the warrant. After dilution, the total value of the ﬁrm includes the value of the ﬁrm before exercise (including the original value of the warrants) plus the proceeds from exercise, i.e. VT Ⳮ MγK . The number of shares then increases to N Ⳮ γM . The total payoff to the warrant holder is WT ⳱ γ

VT Ⳮ MγK

冢 N Ⳮ γM

⫺K

冣

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which must be positive. After simpliﬁcation, this is also WT ⳱ γ

VT ⫺ NK

冢 N Ⳮ γM 冣 ⳱ N Ⳮ γM (V

which is equivalent to n ⳱

γ

T

γN NⳭγM

⫺ NK ) ⳱

冢

γN VT ⫺K N Ⳮ γM N

冣

(9.6)

options on the stock price. The warrant can be valued

by standard option models with the asset value equal to the stock price plus the warrant proceeds, multiplied by the factor n,

冢

W0 ⳱ n ⫻ c S0 Ⳮ

M W , K, τ, σ , r , d N 0

with the usual parameters and the unit asset value is

V0 N

冣

(9.7)

⳱ S0 Ⳮ M N W0 . This must be

solved iteratively since W0 appears on both sides. If, however, M is small relative to the current ﬂoat, or number of outstanding shares N , the formula reduces to a simple call option in the amount γ W0 ⳱ γ c (S0 , K, τ, σ , r , d )

(9.8)

Example: Pricing a Convertible Bond Consider a zero-coupon, 10-year convertible bond with face value of $1,000. The yield on similar maturity straight debt issued by the company is currently 8.158%, using continuous compounding, which gives a straight debt value of $442.29. The bond can be converted into common stock at a ratio of 10-to-1 at expiration only. This gives a strike price of K ⳱ $100. The current stock price is $60. The stock pays no dividend and has annual volatility of 30%. The risk-free rate is 5%, also continuously compounded. Ignoring dilution effects, the Black-Scholes model gives an option value of $216.79. So, the theoretical value for the convertible bond is P ⳱ $442.29Ⳮ$216.79 ⳱ $659.08. If the market price is lower than $659, the convertible is said to be cheap. This, of course, assumes that the pricing model and input assumptions are correct. One complication is that most convertibles are also callable at the discretion of the ﬁrm. Convertible securities can be called for several reasons. First, an issue can be called to force conversion into common stock when the stock price is high enough. Bondholders have typically a month during which they can still convert, in which case this is a forced conversion. This call feature gives the corporation more control over conversion and allows it to raise equity capital. Second, the call may be exercised when the option value is worthless and the ﬁrm can reﬁnance its debt at a lower coupon. This is similar to the call of a non-convertible

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bond, except that the convertible must be busted, which occurs when the stock price is much lower than the conversion price. Example 9-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 52/Market Risk 9-2. A convertible bond trader has purchased a long-dated convertible bond with a call provision. Assuming there is a 50% chance that this bond will be converted into stock, which combination of stock price and interest rate level would constitute the worst case scenario? a) Decreasing rates and decreasing stock prices b) Decreasing rates and increasing stock prices c) Increasing rates and decreasing stock prices d) Increasing rates and increasing stock prices Example 9-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 119 9-3. A corporate bond with face value of $100 is convertible at $40 and the corporation has called it for redemption at $106. The bond is currently selling at $115 and the stock’s current market price is $45. Which of the following would a bondholder most likely do? a) Sell the bond b) Convert the bond into common stock c) Allow the corporation to call the bond at 106 d) None of the above Example 9-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 117 9-4. What is the main reason why convertible bonds are generally issued with a call? a) To make their analysis less easy for investors b) To protect against unwanted takeover bids c) To reduce duration d) To force conversion if in-the-money

9.3

Equity Derivatives

Equity derivatives can be traded on over-the-counter markets as well as organized exchanges. We only consider a limited range of popular instruments.

9.3.1

Stock Index Futures

Stock index futures are actively traded all over the world. In fact, the turnover corresponding to the notional amount is often greater than the total amount of trading in

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physical stocks in the same market. The success of thee contracts can be explained by their versatility for risk management. Stock index futures allow investors to manage their exposure to broad stock market movements. Speculators can take efﬁciently directional bets, on the upside or downside. Hedgers can protect the value of their investments. Perhaps the most active contract is the S&P 500 futures contract on the Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME). The contract notional is deﬁned as $250 times the index level. Table 9-2 displays quotations as of December 31, 1999. TABLE 9-2 Sample S&P Futures Quotations Maturity March June

Open 1480.80 1498.00

Settle 1484.20 1503.10

Change +3.40 +3.60

Volume 34,897 410

Open Interest 356,791 8,431

The table shows that most of the volume was concentrated in the “near” contract, that is, March in this case. Translating the trading volume in number of contracts into a dollar equivalent, we ﬁnd $250 ⫻ 1484.2 ⫻ 34, 897, which gives $12.9 billion. In 2001, average daily volume was worth $35 billion, which is close to the trading volume of $42 billion on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE). We can also compute the daily proﬁt on a long position, which would have been $250 ⫻ (Ⳮ3.40), or $850. This is rather small, as the daily move was Ⳮ3.4冫 1480.8, which is only 0.23%. The typical daily standard deviation is about 1%, which gives a typical proﬁt or loss of $3,710.50. These contracts are cash settled. They do not involve delivery of the underlying stocks at expiration. In terms of valuation, the futures contract is priced according to the usual cash-and-carry relationship, Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St e⫺yτ

(9.9)

where y is now the dividend yield deﬁned per unit time. For instance, the yield on the S&P was y ⳱ 0.94 percent per annum. Here, we assume that the dividend yield is known in advance and paid on a continuous basis. In general, this is not necessarily the case but can be viewed as a good approximation. With a large number of ﬁrms in the index, dividends will be spread reasonably evenly over the quarter. To check if the futures contract was fairly valued, we need the spot price, S ⳱ 1469.25; the short-term interest rate, r ⳱ 5.3%; and the number of days to maturity,

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which was 76 (to March 16). Note that rates are not continuously compounded. The present value factor is PV($1) ⳱ 1冫 (1Ⳮr τ ) ⳱ 1冫 (1Ⳮ5.3%(76冫 365)) ⳱ 0.9891. Similarly, the present value of the dividend stream is 1冫 (1 Ⳮ yτ ) ⳱ 1冫 (1 Ⳮ 0.94%(76冫 365)) ⳱ 0.9980. The fair price is then F ⳱ [S 冫 (1 Ⳮ yτ )] (1 Ⳮ r τ ) ⳱ [1469.25 ⫻ 0.9980]冫 0.9891 ⳱ 1482.6 This is rather close to the settlement value of F ⳱ 1484.2. The discrepancy is probably due to the fact that the quotes were not measured simultaneously. Figure 9-2 displays the convergence of futures and cash prices for the December 1999 S&P 500 futures contract traded on the CME. The futures price is always the spot price. The correlation between the two prices is very high, reﬂecting the cashand-carry relationship in Equation (9.9). Because ﬁnancial institutions engage in stock index arbitrage, we would expect the cash-and-carry relationship to hold very well, One notable exception was during the market crash of October 19, 1987. The market lost more than 20% in a single day. Throughout the day, however, futures prices were more up-to-date than cash prices because of execution delays and closing in cash markets. As a result, the S&P stock index futures value was very cheap compared with the underlying cash market. Arbitrage, however, was made difﬁcult due to chaotic market conditions. FIGURE 9-2 Futures and Cash Prices for S&P500 Futures 1500

Price index

1400 Futures price 1300

1200

Cash price

1100

1000

900 9/30/98

11/30/98

1/31/99

3/31/99

5/31/99

7/31/99

9/29/99

11/29/99

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Example 9-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 9/Capital Markets 9-5. To prevent arbitrage proﬁts, the theoretical future price of a stock index should be fully determined by which of the following? I. Cash market price II. Financing cost III. Inﬂation IV. Dividend yield a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I, II and IV only d) All of the above Example 9-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 12/Capital Markets 9-6. Suppose the price for a 6-month S&P index futures contract is 552.3. If the risk-free interest rate is 7.5% per year and the dividend yield on the stock index is 4.2% per year, and the market is complete and there is no arbitrage, what is the price of the index today? a) 543.26 b) 552.11 c) 555.78 d) 560.02

9.3.2

Single Stock Futures

In late 2000, the United States passed legislation authorizing trading in single stock futures, which are futures contracts on individual stocks. Such contracts were already trading in Europe and elsewhere. In the United States, electronic trading started in November 2002.1 Each contract gives the obligation to buy or sell 100 shares of the underlying stock. Delivery involves physical settlement. Relative to trading in the underlying stocks, single stock futures have many advantages. Positions can be established more efﬁciently due to their low margin requirements, which are generally 20% of the cash value. Margin for stocks are higher. Also, short selling eliminates the costs and inefﬁciencies associated with the stock loan process. Other than physical settlement, these contracts trade like stock index futures. 1 Two electronic exchanges are currently competing, “OneChicago”, a joint venture of Chicago exchanges, and “Nasdaq Liffe”, a joint venture of NASDAQ, the main electronic stock exchange in the United States, and Liffe, the U.K. derivatives exchange.

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Equity Options

Options can be traded on individual stocks, on stock indices, or on stock index futures. In the United States, stock options trade, for example, on the Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE). Each option gives the right to buy or sell a round lot of 100 shares. Exercise of stock options involves physical delivery, or the exchange of the underlying stock. Traded options are typically American-style, so their valuation should include the possibility of early exercise. In practice, however, their values do not differ much from those of European options, which can be priced by the Black-Scholes model. When the stock pays no dividend, the values are the same. For more precision, we can use numerical models such as binomial trees to take into account dividend payments. The most active index options in the United States are options on the S&P 100 and S&P 500 index traded on the CBOE. The former are American-style, while the latter are European-style. These options are cash settled, as it would be too complicated to deliver a basket of 100 or 500 underlying stocks. Each contract is for $100 times the value of the index. European options on stock indices can be priced using the BlackScholes formula, using y as the dividend yield on the index as we have done in the previous section for stock index futures. Finally, options on S&P 500 stock index futures are also popular. These give the right to enter a long or short futures position at a ﬁxed price. Exercise is cash settled.

9.3.4

Equity Swaps

Equity swaps are agreements to exchange cash ﬂows tied to the return on a stock market index in exchange for a ﬁxed or ﬂoating rate of interest. An example is a swap that provides the return on the S&P 500 index every six months in exchange for payment of LIBOR plus a spread. The swap will be typically priced so as to have zero value at initiation. Equity swaps can be valued as portfolios of forward contracts, as in the case of interest rate swaps. We will later see how to price currency swaps. The same method can be used for equity swaps. These swaps are used by investment managers to acquire exposure to, for example, an emerging market without having to invest in the market itself. In some cases, these swaps can also be used to defeat restrictions on foreign investments.

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 9-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 50/Capital Markets c) The fund borrows $200 million and invest $300 million, which creates a yield of $300 ⫻ 14% ⳱ $42 million. Borrowing costs are $200 ⫻ 8% ⳱ $16 million, for a difference of $26 million on equity of $100 million, or 26%. Note that this is a yield, not expected rate of return if we expect some losses from default. This higher yield also implies higher risk. Example 9-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 52/Market Risk c) Abstracting from the convertible feature, the value of the ﬁxed-coupon bond will fall if rates increase; also, the value of the convertible feature falls as the stock price decreases. Example 9-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 119 a) The conversion rate is expressed here in terms of the conversion price. The conversion rate for this bond is $100 into $40, or 1 bond into 2.5 shares. Immediate conversion will yield 2.5 ⫻ $45 ⳱ $112.5. The call price is $106. Since the market price is higher than the call price and the conversion value, and the bond is being called, the best value is achieved by selling the bond. Example 9-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 117 d) Companies issue convertible bonds because the coupon is lower than for regular bonds. In addition, these bonds are callable in order to force conversion into the stock at a favorable ratio. In the previous question, for instance, conversion would provide equity capital to the ﬁrm at the price of $40, while the market price is at $45. Example 9-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 9/Capital Markets c) The futures price depends on S , r , y , and time to maturity. The rate of inﬂation is not in the cash-and-carry formula, although it is embedded in the nominal interest rate. Example 9-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 12/Capital Markets a) This is the cash-and-carry relationship, solved for S . We have Se⫺yτ ⳱ F e⫺r τ , or S ⳱ 552.3 ⫻ exp(⫺7.5冫 200)冫 exp(⫺4.2冫 200) ⳱ 543.26. We verify that the forward price is greater than the spot price since the dividend yield is less than the risk-free rate.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 10 Currencies and Commodities Markets This chapter turns to currency and commodity markets. The foreign exchange markets are by far the largest ﬁnancial markets in the world, with daily turnover estimated at $1,210 billion in 2001. The forex markets consist of the spot, forward, options, futures, and swap markets. Commodity markets consist of agricultural products, metals, energy, and other products. They are traded cash and through derivatives instruments. Commodities differ from ﬁnancial assets as their holding provides an implied beneﬁt known as convenience yield but also incurs storage costs. Section 10.1 presents a brief introduction to currency markets. Contracts such as futures, forward, and options have been developed in previous chapters and do not require special treatment. In contrast, currency swaps are analyzed in some detail in Section 10.2 due to their unique features and importance. Section 10.3 then discusses commodity markets.

10.1

Currency Markets

The global currency markets are without a doubt the most active ﬁnancial markets in the world. Their size and growth is described in Table 10-1. This trading activity dwarfs that of bond or stock markets. In comparison, the daily trading volume on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) is approximately $40 billion. Even though the largest share of these transaction is between dealers, or with other ﬁnancial institutions, the volume of trading with other, nonﬁnancial institutions is still quite large, at $156 billion daily. Spot transactions are exchanges of two currencies for settlement as soon as practical, typically in two business days. They account for about 40% of trading volume.

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TABLE 10-1 Activity in Global Currency Markets Average Daily Trading Volume (Billions of U.S. Dollars) Year

Spot

1989 350 1992 416 1995 517 1998 592 2001 399 Of which, between: Dealers Financials Others

Forwards & forex swaps 240 404 673 898 811

Total 590 820 1,190 1,490 1,210 689 329 156

Source: Bank for International Settlements surveys.

AM FL Y

Other transactions are outright forward contracts and forex swaps. Outright forward contracts are agreements to exchange two currencies at a future date, and account for about 9% of the total market. Forex swaps involve two transactions, an exchange of currencies on a given date and a reversal at a later date, and account for 51% of the total market.1

TE

In addition to these contracts, there is also some activity in forex options ($60 billion daily) and exchange-traded derivatives ($9 billion daily), as measured in April 2001. The most active currency futures are traded on the Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME) and settled by physical delivery. Options on currencies are available over-thecounter (OTC), on the Philadelphia Stock Exchange (PHLX), and are also cash settled. The CME also trades options on currency futures. As we have seen before, currency forwards, futures, and options can be priced according to standard valuation models, specifying the income payment to be a continuous ﬂow deﬁned by the foreign interest rate, r ⴱ . Currencies are generally quoted in European terms, that is, in units of the foreign currency per dollar. The yen, for example, could be quoted as 120 yen per U.S. dollar. Two notable exceptions are the British pound (sterling) and the euro, which are quoted in American terms, that is in dollars per unit of the foreign currency The pound, for example, could be quoted as 1.6 dollar per pound. 1

Forex swaps are typically of a short-term nature and should not be confused with long-term currency swaps, which involve a stream of payments over longer horizons.

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Currency Swaps

Currency swaps are agreements by two parties to exchange a stream of cash ﬂows in different currencies according to a prearranged formula.

10.2.1

Deﬁnitions

Consider two counterparties, company A and company B that can raise funds either in dollars or in yen, $100 million or Y10 billion at the current rate of 100Y/$, over ten years. Company A wants to raise dollars, and company B wants to raise yen. Table 10-2a displays borrowing costs. This example is similar to that of interest rate swaps, except that rates now apply to different currencies. Company A has an absolute advantage in the two markets as it can raise funds at rates systematically lower than company B. Company B, however, has a comparative advantage in raising dollars as the cost is only 0.50% higher than for company A, compared to the relative cost of 1.50% in yen. Conversely, company A must have a comparative advantage in raising yen. TABLE 10-2a Cost of Capital Comparison Company A B

Yen

Dollar

5.00% 6.50%

9.5% 10.0%

This provides the basis for a swap which will be to the mutual advantage of both parties. If both institutions directly issue funds in their ﬁnal desired market, the total cost will be 9.5% (for A) and 6.5% (for B), for a total of 16.0%. In contrast, the total cost of raising capital where each has a comparative advantage is 5.0% (for A) and 10.0% (for B), for a total of 15.0%. The gain to both parties from entering a swap is 16.0 ⫺ 15.0 = 1.00%. For instance, the swap described in Tables 10-2b and 10-2c splits the beneﬁt equally between the two parties. TABLE 10-2b Swap to Company A Operation Issue debt Enter swap Net Direct cost Savings

Yen Pay yen 5.0% Receive yen 5.0%

Dollar Pay dollar 9.0% Pay dollar 9.0% Pay dollar 9.5% 0.50%

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Company A issues yen debt at 5.0%, then enters a swap whereby it promises to pay 9.0% in dollar in exchange for receiving 5.0% yen payments. Its effective funding cost is therefore 9.0%, which is less than the direct cost by 50bp. TABLE 10-2c Swap to Company B Operation Issue debt Enter swap Net Direct cost Savings

Dollar Pay dollar 10.0% Receive dollar 9.0%

Yen Pay yen 5.0% Pay yen 6.0% Pay yen 6.5% 0.50%

Similarly, company B issues dollar debt at 10.0%, then enters a swap whereby it receives 9.0% dollar in exchange for paying 5.0% yen. If we add up the difference in dollar funding cost of 1.0% to the 5.0% yen funding costs, the effective funding cost is therefore 6.0%, which is less than the direct cost by 50bp.2 Both parties beneﬁt from the swap. While payments are typically netted for an interest rate swap, since they are in the same currency, this is not the case for currency swaps. At initiation and termination, there is exchange of principal in different currencies. Full interest payments are also made in different currencies. For instance, assuming annual payments, company A will receive 5.0% on a notional of Y10b, which is Y500 million in exchange for paying 9.0% on a notional of $100 million, or $9 million every year.

10.2.2

Pricing

Consider now the pricing of the swap to company A. This involves receiving 5.0% yen in exchange for paying 9.0% dollars. As with interest rate swaps, we can price the swap using either of two approaches, taking the difference between two bond prices or valuing a sequence of forward contracts. This swap is equivalent to a long position in a ﬁxed-rate, 5% 10-year yen denominated bond and a short position in a 10-year 9% dollar denominated bond. The value of the swap is that of a long yen bond minus a dollar bond. Deﬁning S as the dollar price of the yen and P and P ⴱ as the dollar and yen bond, we have: V ⳱ S ($冫 Y )P ⴱ (Y ) ⫺ P ($) 2

(10.1)

Note that B is somewhat exposed to currency risk, as funding costs cannot be simply added when they are denominated in different currencies. The error, however, is of second-order magnitude.

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Here, we indicate the value of the yen bond by an asterisk, P ⴱ . In general, the bond value can be written as P (c, r , F ) where the coupon is c , the yield is r and the face value is F . Our swap is initially worth (in millions) V ⳱ (1冫 100)P (5%, 5%, Y 10000) ⫺ P (9%, 9%, $100) ⳱ ($1冫 Y 100)Y 10000 ⫺ $100 ⳱ $0 Thus, the initial value of the swap is zero. Here, we assumed a ﬂat term structure for both countries and no credit risk. We can identify conditions under which the swap will be in-the-money. This will happen: (1) If the value of the yen S appreciates (2) If the yen interest rate r ⴱ falls (3) If the dollar interest rate r goes up Thus the swap is exposed to three risk factors, the spot rate, and two interest rates. The latter exposures are given by the duration of the equivalent bond. Key concept: A position in a receive-foreign currency swap is equivalent to a long position in a foreign currency bond offset by a short position in a dollar bond. The swap can be alternatively valued as a sequence of forward contracts. Recall that the valuation of a forward contract on one yen is given by Vi ⳱ (Fi ⫺ K )exp(⫺ri τi )

(10.2)

using continuous compounding. Here, ri is the dollar interest rate, Fi is the prevailing forward rate (in $/yen), K is the locked-in rate of exchange deﬁned as the ratio of the dollar to yen payment on this maturity. Extending this to multiple maturities, the swap is valued as V ⳱

冱 ni (Fi ⫺ K )exp(⫺ri τi )

(10.3)

i

where ni Fi is the dollar value of the yen payments translated at the forward rate and the other term ni K is the dollar payment in exchange. Table 10-3 compares the two approaches for a 3-year swap with annual payments. Market rates have now changed and are r ⳱ 8% for U.S. yields, r ⴱ ⳱ 4% for yen yields. We assume annual compounding. The spot exchange rate has moved from 100Y/$ to 95Y/$, reﬂecting a depreciation of the dollar (or appreciation of the yen).

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Dollar Yen Exchange rate: initial market

Time (year) 1 2 3 Total Swap ($) Value

Time (year) 1 2 3 Value

Speciﬁcations Notional Swap Amount Coupon (millions) $100 9% Y10,000 5%

Market Yield 8% 4%

100Y/$ 95Y/$

Valuation Using Bond Approach (millions) Dollar Bond Yen Bond Dollar Yen Payment PV($1) PV(CF) Payment PV(Y1) PV(CF) 9 0.9259 8.333 500 0.9615 480.769 9 0.8573 7.716 500 0.9246 462.278 109 0.7938 86.528 10500 0.8890 9334.462 $102.58 Y10,277.51 ⫺$102.58 $108.18 $5.61 Valuation Using Forward Contract Approach (millions) Forward Yen Yen Dollar Difference Rate Receipt Receipt Payment CF (Y/$) (Y) ( $) ($) ($) ⫺9.00 ⫺3.534 91.48 500 5.47 ⫺9.00 ⫺3.324 88.09 500 5.68 84.83 10500 123.78 ⫺109.00 14.776

PV(CF) ($) ⫺3.273 ⫺2.850 11.730 $5.61

The middle panel shows the valuation using the difference between the two bonds. First, we discount the cash ﬂows in each currency at the newly prevailing yield. This gives P ⳱ $102.58 for the dollar bond and Y10,277.51 for the yen bond. Translating the latter at the new spot rate of Y95, we get $108.18. The swap is now valued at $108.18 ⫺ $102.58, which is a positive value of V ⳱ $5.61 million. The appreciation of the swap is principally driven by the appreciation of the yen. The bottom panel shows how the swap can be valued by a sequence of forward contracts. First, we compute the forward rates for the three maturities. For example,

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the 1-year rate is 95 ⫻ (1 Ⳮ 4%)冫 (1 Ⳮ 8%) ⳱ 91.48 Y 冫 $, by interest rate parity. Next, we convert each yen receipt into dollars at the forward rate, for example Y500 million in one year, which is $5.47 million. This is offset against a payment of $9 million, for a net planned cash outﬂow of ⫺$3.53 million. Discounting and adding up the planned cash ﬂows, we get V ⳱ $5.61 million, which must be exactly equal to the value found using the alternative approach. Example 10-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 37/Capital Markets 10-1. The table below shows quoted ﬁxed borrowing rates (adjusted for taxes) in two different currencies for two different ﬁrms:

Company A Company B

Yen 2% 3%

Pounds 4% 6%

Which of the following is true? a) Company A has a comparative advantage borrowing in both yen and pounds. b) Company A has a comparative advantage borrowing in pounds. c) Company A has a comparative advantage borrowing in yen. d) Company A can arbitrage by borrowing in yen and lending in pounds. Example 10-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 67 10-2. Consider the following currency swap: Counterparty A swaps 3% on $25 million for 7.5% on 20 million Sterling. There are now 18 months remaining in the swap, the term structures of interest rates are ﬂat in both countries with dollar rates currently at 4.25% and Sterling rates currently at 7.75%. The current $/Sterling exchange rate is $1.65. Calculate the value of the swap. Use continuous compounding. Assume 6 months until the next annual coupon and use current market rates to discount. a) ⫺$1, 237, 500 b) ⫺$4, 893, 963 c) ⫺$9, 068, 742 d) ⫺$8, 250, 000

10.3

Commodities

10.3.1

Products

Commodities are typically traded on exchanges. Contracts include spot, futures, and options on futures. There is also an OTC market for long-term commodity swaps, where payments are tied to the price of a commodity against a ﬁxed or ﬂoating rate.

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Commodity contracts can be classiﬁed into: ● Agricultural products, including grains and oilseeds (corn, wheat, soybean) food and ﬁber (cocoa, coffee, sugar, orange juice) ● Livestock and meat (cattle, hogs) ● Base metals (aluminum, copper, nickel, and zinc) ● Precious metals (gold, silver, platinum), and ● Energy products (natural gas, heating oil, unleaded gasoline, crude oil) The Goldman Sachs Commodity Index (GSCI) is a broad index of commodity price performance, containing 49% energy products, 9% industrial/base metals, 3% precious metals, 28% agricultural products, and 12% livestock products. The CME trades futures and options contracts on the GSCI. In the last ﬁve years, active markets have developed for electricity products, electricity futures for delivery at speciﬁc locations, for instance California/Oregon border (COB), Palo Verde, and so on. These markets have mushroomed following the deregulation of electricity prices, which has led to more variability in electricity prices. More recently, OTC markets and exchanges have introduced weather derivatives, where the payout is indexed to temperature or precipitation. On the CME, for instance, contract payouts are based on the “Degree Day Index” over a calendar month. This index measures the extent to which the daily temperature deviates from the average. These contracts allow users to hedge situations where their income is negatively affected by extreme weather. Markets are also evolving in newer products, such as indices of consumer bankruptcy and catastrophe insurance contracts. Such commodity markets allow participants to exchange risks. Farmers, for instance, can sell their crops at a ﬁxed price on a future date, insuring themselves against variations in crop prices. Likewise, consumers can buy these crops at a ﬁxed price.

10.3.2

Pricing of Futures

Commodities differ from ﬁnancial assets in two notable dimensions: they may be expensive, even impossible, to store and they may generate a ﬂow of beneﬁts that are not directly measurable. The ﬁrst dimension involves the cost of carrying a physical inventory of commodities. For most ﬁnancial instruments, this cost is negligible. For bulky commodities, this cost may be high. Other commodities, like electricity cannot be stored easily.

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The second dimension involves the beneﬁt from holding the physical commodity. For instance, a company that manufactures copper pipes beneﬁts from an inventory of copper which is used up in its production process. This ﬂow is also called convenience yield for the holder. For a ﬁnancial asset, this ﬂow would be a monetary income payment for the investor. Consider the ﬁrst factor, storage cost only. The cash-and-carry relationship should be modiﬁed as follows. We compare two positions. In the ﬁrst, we buy the commodity spot plus pay up front the present value of storage costs PV(C ). In the second, we enter a forward contract and invest the present value of the forward price. Since the two positions are identical at expiration, they must have the same initial value: Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St Ⳮ PV(C )

(10.4)

where e⫺r τ is the present value factor. Alternatively, if storage costs are incurred per unit time and deﬁned as c , we can restate this relationship as Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St ecτ

(10.5)

Due to these costs, the forward rate should be much greater than the spot rate, as the holder of a forward contract beneﬁts not only from the time value of money but also from avoiding storage costs.

Example: Computing the forward price of gold Let us use data from December 1999. The spot price of gold is S ⳱ $288, the 1-year interest rate is r ⳱ 5.73% (continuously compounded), and storage costs are $2 per ounce per year, paid up front. The fair price for a 1-year forward contract should be F ⳱ [S Ⳮ PV(C )]er τ ⳱ [$288 Ⳮ $2]e5.73% ⳱ $307.1. Let us now turn to the convenience yield, which can be expressed as y per unit time. In fact, y represents the net beneﬁt from holding the commodity, after storage costs. Following the same reasoning as before, the forward price on a commodity should be given by Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St e⫺yτ

(10.6)

where e⫺yτ is an actualization factor. This factor may have an economically identiﬁable meaning, reﬂecting demand and supply conditions in the cash and futures markets. Alternatively, it can be viewed as a plug-in that, given F , S , and e⫺r τ , will make Equation (10.6) balance.

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FIGURE 10-1 Spot and Futures Prices for Crude Oil Price ($/barrel) 30

25 Dec-99 20 Dec-97 15 Dec-98 10

5

0 0

5

10

15 20 Months to expiration

25

30

Figure 10-1, for example, displays the shape of the term structure of spot and futures prices for the New York Mercantile Exchange (NYMEX) crude oil contract. On December 1997, the term structure is relatively ﬂat. On December 1998, the term structure becomes strongly upward sloping. Part of this slope can be explained by the time value of money (the term e⫺r τ in the equation). In contrast, the term structure is downward sloping on December 1999. This can be interpreted in terms of a large convenience yield from holding the physical asset (in other words, the term e⫺yτ in the equation dominates). Let us focus for example on the 1-year contract. Using S ⳱ $25.60, F ⳱ $20.47, r ⳱ 5.73% and solving for y , y ⳱r⫺

1 ln(F 冫 S ) τ

(10.7)

we ﬁnd y ⳱ 28.10%, which is quite large. In fact, variations in y can be substantial. Just one year before, a similar calculation would have given y ⳱ ⫺9%, which implies a negative convenience yield, or a storage cost. Table 10-4 displays futures prices for selected contracts. Futures prices are generally increasing with maturity, reﬂecting the time value of money, storage cost and low convenience yields. There are some irregularities, however, reﬂecting anticipated

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TABLE 10-4 Futures Prices as of December 30, 1999 Maturity Jan Mar July Sept Dec Mar01 ... Dec01

Corn

Sugar

204.5 218.0 224.0 233.8 241.5

18.24 19.00 19.85 18.91 18.90

Copper 85.25 86.30 87.10 87.90 88.45 88.75

253.5

Gold 288.5 290.6 294.9 297.0 300.1 303.2

Nat.Gas

312.9

2.688

2.328 2.377 2.418 2.689 2.494

Gasoline .6910 .6750 .6675 .6245

imbalances between demand and supply. For instance, gasoline futures prices increase in the summer due to increased driving. Natural gas displays the opposite pattern, where prices increase during the winter due to the demand for heating. Agricultural products can also be highly seasonal. In contrast, futures prices for gold are going up monotonically with time, since this is a perfectly storable good.

10.3.3

Futures and Expected Spot Prices

An interesting issue is whether today’s futures price gives the best forecast of the future spot price. If so, it satisﬁes the expectations hypothesis, which can be written as: F t ⳱ E t [S T ]

(10.8)

The reason this relationship may hold is as follows. Say that the 1-year oil futures price is F ⳱ $20.47. If the market forecasts that oil prices in one year will be at $25, one could make a proﬁt by going long a futures contract at the cheap futures price of F ⳱ $20.47, waiting a year, then buying oil at $20.47, and reselling it at the higher price of $25. In other words, deviations from this relationship imply speculative proﬁts. To be sure, these proﬁts are not risk-free. Hence, they may represent some compensation for risk. For instance, if the market is dominated by producers who want to hedge by selling oil futures, F will be abnormally low compared with expectations. Thus the relationship between futures prices and expected spot prices can be complex. For ﬁnancial assets for which the arbitrage between cash and futures is easy, the futures or forward rate is solely determined by the cash-and-carry relationship, i.e. the

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interest rate and income on the asset. For commodities, however, the arbitrage may not be so easy. As a result, the futures price may deviate from the cash-and-carry relationship through this convenience yield factor. Such prices may reﬂect expectations of futures spot prices, as well as speculative and hedging pressures. A market is said to be in contango when the futures price trades at a premium relative to the spot price, as shown in Figure 10-2. Using Equation (10.7), this implies that the convenience yield is smaller than the interest rate y ⬍ r . A market is said to be in backwardation (or inverted) when forward prices trade at a discount relative to spot prices. This implies that the convenience yield is greater than the interest rate y ⬎ r . In other words, a high convenience yields puts a higher price on the cash market, as there is great demand for immediate consumption of the

AM FL Y

commodity. With backwardation, the futures price tends to increase as the contract nears maturity. In such a situation, a roll-over strategy should be proﬁtable, provided prices do not move too much. This involves by buying a long maturity contract, waiting, and then selling it at a higher price in exchange for buying a cheaper, longer-term contract. This strategy is comparable to riding the yield curve when positively sloped. This

TE

involves buying long maturities and waiting to have yields fall due to the passage of

FIGURE 10-2 Patterns of Contango and Backwardation Futures price

Backwardation

Contango

Maturity

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time. If the shape of the yield curve does not change too much, this will generate a capital gain from bond price appreciation. This was basically the strategy followed by Metallgesellschaft Reﬁning & Marketing (MGRM), the U.S. subsidiary of Metallgesellschaft, which rolled over purchases of WTI crude oil futures as a hedge against OTC sales to customers. The problem was that the basis S ⫺ F , which had been generally positive, turned negative, creating losses for the company. In addition, these losses caused cash ﬂow, or liquidity problems. MGRM ended up liquidating the positions, which led to a realized loss of $1.3 billion. Example 10-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 32/Capital Markets 10-3. The spot price of corn on April 10th is 207 cents/bushels. The futures price of the September contract is 241.5 cents/bushels. If hedgers are net short, which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the expected spot price of corn in September? a) The expected spot price of corn is higher than 207. b) The expected spot price of corn is lower than 207. c) The expected spot price of corn is higher than 241.5. d) The expected spot price of corn is lower than 241.5. Example 10-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 24/Capital Markets 10-4. In commodity markets, the complex relationships between spot and forward prices are embodied in the commodity price curve. Which of the following statements is true? a) In a backwardation market, the discount in forward prices relative to the spot price represents a positive yield for the commodity supplier. b) In a backwardation market, the discount in forward prices relative to the spot price represents a positive yield for the commodity consumer. c) In a contango market, the discount in forward prices relative to the spot price represents a positive yield for the commodity supplier. d) In a contango market, the discount in forward prices relative to the spot price represents a positive yield for the commodity consumer. Example 10-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 48/Capital Markets 10-5. If a commodity is more expensive for immediate delivery than for future delivery, the commodity curve is said to be in a) Contango b) Backwardation c) Reversal d) None of the above

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Example 10-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 45/Market Risk 10-6. In the commodity markets being long the future and short the cash exposes you to which of the following risks? a) Increasing backwardation b) Increasing contango c) Change in volatility of the commodity d) Decreasing convexity Example 10-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 27/Capital Markets 10-7. Metallgesellschaft AG’s oil hedging program used a stack-and-roll strategy that eventually led to large losses. What can be said about this strategy? The strategy involved a) Buying short-dated futures or forward contracts to hedge long-term exposure, hence expecting the short-term oil price would not decline b) Buying short-dated futures or forward contracts to hedge long-term exposure, hence expecting the short-term oil price would decline c) Selling short-dated futures or forward contracts to hedge long-term exposure, hence expecting the short-term oil price would not decline d) Selling short-dated futures or forward contracts to hedge long-term exposure, hence expecting the short-term oil price would decline

10.4

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 10-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 37/Capital Markets b) A company can only have a comparative advantage in one currency, that with the greatest difference in capital cost, 2% for pounds versus 1% for yen. Example 10-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 67 c) As in Table 10-3, we use the bond valuation approach. The receive-dollar swap is equivalent to a long position in the dollar bond and a short position in the sterling bond.

Time (year) 1 2 Total Dollars Value

Dollar Payment 750,000 25,750,000

Dollar Bond PV($1) (4.25%) 0.97897 0.93824

PV(CF) (dollars) 734,231 24,159,668 24,893,899 Ⳮ$24, 893, 899

Sterling Payment 1,500,000 21,500,000

Sterling Bond PV(GBP1) (7.75%) 0.96199 0.89025

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Example 10-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 32/Capital Markets c) If hedgers are net short, they are selling corn futures even if it involves a risk premium such that the selling price is lower than the expected future spot price. Thus the expected spot price of corn is higher than the futures price. Note that the current spot price is irrelevant. Example 10-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 24/Capital Markets b) First, forward prices are only at a discount versus spot prices in a backwardation market. The high spot price represents a convenience yield to the consumer of the product, who holds the physical asset. Example 10-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 48/Capital Markets b) Backwardation means that the spot price is greater than futures price. Example 10-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 45/Market Risk a) Shorting the cash exposes the position to increasing cash prices, assuming, for instance, ﬁxed futures prices, hence increasing backwardation. Example 10-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 27/Capital Markets a) Because MG was selling oil forward to clients, it had to hedge by buying short-dated futures oil contracts. In theory, price declines in one market were to be offset by gains in another. In futures markets, however, losses are realized immediately, which may lead to liquidity problems (and did so). Thus, the expectation was that oil prices would stay constant.

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three

Market Risk Management

Chapter 11 Introduction to Market Risk Measurement This chapter provides an introduction to the measurement of market risk. Market risk is primarily measured with value at risk (VAR). VAR is a statistical measure of downside risk that is simple to explain. VAR measures the total portfolio risk, taking into account portfolio diversiﬁcation and leverage. In theory, risk managers should report the entire distribution of proﬁts and losses over the speciﬁed horizon. In practice, this distribution is summarized by one number, the worst loss at a speciﬁed conﬁdence level, such as 99 percent. VAR, however, is only one of the measures that risk managers focus on. It should be complemented by stress testing, which identiﬁes potential losses under extreme market conditions, which are associated with much higher conﬁdence levels. Section 16.1 gives a brief overview of the history of risk measurement systems. Section 16.2 then shows how to compute VAR for a very simple portfolio. It also discusses caveats, or pitfalls to be aware of when interpreting VAR numbers. Section 16.3 turns to the choice of VAR parameters, that is, the conﬁdence level and horizon. Next, Section 16.4 describes the broad components of a VAR system. Section 16.5 shows to complement VAR by stress tests. Finally, Section 16.6 shows how VAR methods, primarily developed for ﬁnancial institutions, are now applied to measures of cash ﬂow at risk.

11.1

Introduction to Financial Market Risks

Market risk measurement attempts to quantify the risk of losses due movements in ﬁnancial market variables. The variables include interest rates, foreign exchange rates, equities, and commodities. Positions can include cash or derivative instruments.

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In the past, risks were measured using a variety of ad hoc tools, none of which was satisfactory. These included notional amounts, sensitivity measures, and scenarios. While these measures provide some intuition of risk, they do not measure what matters, that is, the downside risk for the total portfolio. They fail to take into account correlations across risk factors. In addition, they do not account for the probability of adverse moves in the risk factors. Consider for instance a 5-year inverse ﬂoater, which pays a coupon equal to 16 percent minus twice current LIBOR, if positive, on a notional principal of $100 million. The initial market value of the note is $100 million. This investment is extremely sensitive to movements in interest rates. If rates go up, the present value of the cash ﬂows will drop sharply. In addition, discount rate also increases. The combination of a decrease in the numerator terms and an increase in the denominator terms will push the price down sharply. The question is, how much could an investor lose on this investment over a speciﬁed horizon? The notional amount only provide an indication of the potential loss. The worst case scenario is one where interest rates rise above 8 percent. In this situation, the coupon will drop to zero and the bond becomes a deeply-discounted bond. Discounting at 8 percent, the value of the bond will drop to $68 million. This gives a loss of $100 ⫺ $68 ⳱ $32 million, which is much less than the notional. A sensitivity measure such as duration is more helpful. As we have seen in Chapter 7, the bond has three times the duration of a similar 5-year note. This gives a modiﬁed duration of D ⳱ 3 ⫻ 4 ⳱ 12 years. This duration measure reveals the extreme sensitivity of the bond to interest rates but does not answer the question of whether such a disastrous movement in interest rates is likely. It also ignores the nonlinearity between the note price and yields. Scenario analysis provides some improvement, as it allows the investor to investigate nonlinear, extreme effects in price. But again, the method does not associate the loss with a probability. Another general problem is that these sensitivity or scenario measures do not allow the investor to aggregate risk across different markets. Let us say that this investor also holds a position in a bond denominated in Euros. Do the risks add up, or diversify each other? The great beauty of value at risk (VAR) is that it provides a neat answer to all these questions. One number aggregates the risks across the whole portfolio, taking into

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account leverage and diversiﬁcation, and providing a risk measure with an associated probability. If the worst increase in yield at the 95% level is 1.645, we can compute VAR as VAR ⳱ Market value ⫻ Modiﬁed Duration ⫻ Worst yield increase

(11.1)

This gives VAR ⳱ $100 ⫻ 12 ⫻ 0.0165 ⳱ $19.8 millions. Or, we could reprice the note on the target date under the worst increase in yield scenario. The investor can now make a statement such as the worst loss at the 95% conﬁdence level is approximately $20 million, with appropriate caveats. This is a huge improvement over traditional risk measurement methods, as it expresses risk in an intuitive fashion, bringing risk transparency to the masses. The VAR revolution started in 1993 when it was endorsed by the Group of Thirty (G-30) as part of “best practices” for dealing with derivatives. The methodology behind VAR, however, is not new. It results from a merging of ﬁnance theory, which focuses on the pricing and sensitivity of ﬁnancial instruments, and statistics, which studies the behavior of the risk factors. As Table 11-1 shows, VAR could not have happened without its predecessor tools. VAR revolutionized risk management by applying consistent ﬁrm-wide risk measures to the market risk of an institution. These methods are now extended to credit risk, operational risk, and the holy grail of integrated, or ﬁrm-wide, risk management.

TABLE 11-1 The Evolution of Analytical Risk-Management Tools 1938 1952 1963 1966 1973 1988 1993 1994 1997 1998 1998

Bond duration Markowitz mean-variance framework Sharpe’s capital asset pricing model Multiple factor models Black-Scholes option pricing model, “Greeks” Risk-weighted assets for banks Value at Risk RiskMetrics CreditMetrics, CreditRisk+ Integration of credit and market risk Risk budgeting

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11.2

VAR as Downside Risk

11.2.1

VAR: Deﬁnition

VAR is a summary measure of the downside risk, expressed in dollars. A general deﬁnition is VAR is the maximum loss over a target horizon such that there is a low, prespeciﬁed probability that the actual loss will be larger. Consider for instance a position of $4 billion short the yen, long the dollar. This position corresponds to a well-known hedge fund that took a bet that the yen would fall in value against the dollar. How much could this position lose over a day?

AM FL Y

To answer this question, we could use 10 years of historical daily data on the yen/dollar rate and simulate a daily return. The simulated daily return in dollars is then

Rt ($) ⳱ Q0 ($)[St ⫺ St ⫺1 ]冫 St ⫺1

(11.2)

TE

where Q0 is the current dollar value of the position and S is the spot rate in yen per dollar measured over two consecutive days. For instance, for two hypothetical days S1 ⳱ 112.0 and S2 ⳱ 111.8. We then have a hypothetical return of R2 ($) ⳱ $4, 000million ⫻ [111.8 ⫺ 112.0]冫 112.0 ⳱ ⫺$7.2million So, the simulated return over the ﬁrst day is ⫺$7.2 million. Repeating this operation over the whole sample, or 2,527 trading days, creates a time-series of ﬁctitious returns, which is plotted in Figure 11-1. We can now construct a frequency distribution of daily returns. For instance, there are four losses below $160 million, three losses between $160 million and $120 million, and so on. The histogram, or frequency distribution, is graphed in Figure 11-2. We can also order the losses from worst to best return. We now wish to summarize the distribution by one number. We could describe the quantile, that is, the level of loss that will not be exceeded at some high conﬁdence level. Select for instance this conﬁdence level as c = 95 percent. This corresponds to a right-tail probability. We could as well deﬁne VAR in terms of a left-tail probability, which we write as p ⳱ 1 ⫺ c .

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FIGURE 11-1 Simulated Daily Returns

Return ($ million)

$150

$100

$50

$0

-$50

-$100

-$150 1/2/90 1/2/91 1/2/92 1/2/93 1/2/94 1/2/95 1/2/96 1/2/97 1/2/98 1/2/99

FIGURE 11-2 Distribution of Daily Returns

400

Frequency

350 300 250

VAR 5% of observations

200 150 100 50 0 -$160 -$120 -$80

-$40 $0 $40 Return ($ million)

$80

$120

$160

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Deﬁning x as the dollar proﬁt or loss, VAR can be deﬁned implicitly from c⳱

冮

⬁

⫺VAR

xf (x)dx

(11.3)

Note that VAR measures a loss and therefore taken as a positive number. When the outcomes are discrete, VAR is the smallest loss such that the right-tail probability is at least c . Sometimes, VAR is reported as the deviation between the mean and the quantile. This second deﬁnition is more consistent than the usual one. Because it considers the deviation between two values on the target date, it takes into account the time value of money. In most applications, however, the time horizon is very short and the mean, or expected proﬁt is close to zero. As a result, the two deﬁnitions usually give similar values. In this hedge fund example, we want to ﬁnd the cutoff value R ⴱ such that the probability of a loss worse than R ⴱ is p ⳱ 1 ⫺ c = 5 percent. With a total of T ⳱ 2, 527 observations, this corresponds to a total of pT ⳱ 0.05 ⫻ 2527 ⳱ 126 observations in the left tail. We pick from the ordered distribution the cutoff value, which is R ⴱ ⳱ $47.1 million. We can now make a statement such as: The maximum loss over one day is about $47 million at the 95 percent conﬁdence level. This vividly describes risk in a way that notional amounts or exposures cannot convey. From the conﬁdence level, we can determine the number of expected exceedences n over a period of N days: n⳱p⫻N Example 11-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 89/Market Risk 11-1. What is the correct interpretation of a $3 million overnight VAR ﬁgure with 99% conﬁdence level? The institution a) Can be expected to lose at most $3 million in 1 out of next 100 days b) Can be expected to lose at least $3 million in 95 out of next 100 days c) Can be expected to lose at least $3 million in 1 out of next 100 days d) Can be expected to lose at most $6 million in 2 out of next 100 days

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VAR: Caveats

VAR is a useful summary measure of risk. Its application, however, is subject to some caveats. VAR does not describe the worst loss. This is not what VAR is designed to measure. Indeed we would expect the VAR number to be exceeded with a frequency of p, that is 5 days out of a hundred for a 95 percent conﬁdence level. This is perfectly normal. In fact, backtesting procedures are designed to check whether the frequency of exceedences is in line with p. VAR does not describe the losses in the left tail. VAR does not say anything about the distribution of losses in its left tail. It just indicates the probability of such a value occurring. For the same VAR number, however, we can have very different distribution shapes. In the case of Figure 11-2, the average value of the losses worse than $47 million is around $74 million, which is 60 percent worse than the VAR. So, it would be unusual to sustain many losses beyond $200 million. Instead, Figure 11-3 shows a distribution with the same VAR, but with 125 occurrences of large losses beyond $160 million. This graph shows that, while the VAR number is still $47 million, there is a high probability of sustaining very large losses. VAR is measured with some error. The VAR number itself is subject to normal sampling variation. In our example, we used ten years of daily data. Another sample period, or a period of different length, will lead to a different VAR number. Different statistical methodologies or simpliﬁcations can also lead to different VAR numbers. One can experiment with sample periods and methodologies to get a sense of the precision in VAR. Hence, it is useful to remember that there is limited precision in VAR numbers. What matters is the ﬁrst-order magnitude.

11.2.3

Alternative Measures of Risk

The conventional VAR measure is the quantile of the distribution measured in dollars. This single number is a convenient summary, but its very simplicity may be dangerous. We have seen in Figure 11-3 that the same VAR can hide very different distribution patterns. The appendix reviews desirable properties for risk measures and shows that VAR may be inconsistent under some conditions. In particular, the VAR of a

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FIGURE 11-3 Altered Distribution with Same VAR

400

Frequency

350 300 250

VAR 5% of observations

200 150 100 50 0 -$160 -$120 -$80

-$40 $0 $40 Return ($ million)

$80

$120

$160

portfolio can be greater than the sum of subportfolios VARs. If so, merging portfolios can increase risk, which is a strange result. Alternative measures of risk are The entire distribution In our example, VAR is simply one quantile in the distribution. The risk manager, however, has access to the whole distribution and could report a range of VAR numbers for increasing conﬁdence levels. The conditional VAR A related concept is the expected value of the loss when it exceeds VAR. This measures the average of the loss conditional on the fact that it is greater than VAR. Deﬁne the VAR number as q . Formally, the conditional VAR (CVAR) is E [X 兩 X ⬍ q ] ⳱

冮

q

⫺⬁

xf (x)dx

冫冮

q

⫺⬁

f (x)dx

(11.5)

Note that the denominator represents the probability of a loss exceeding VAR, which is also c . This ratio is also called expected shortfall, tail conditional expectation, conditional loss, or expected tail loss. It tells us how much we could lose if we are “hit” beyond VAR. For example, for our yen position, this value is CVAR ⳱ $74 million

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This is measured as the average loss beyond the $47 million VAR. The standard deviation A simple summary measure of the distribution is the usual standard deviation (SD) ⱍ SD(X ) ⳱ ⱍ

冪

N 1 [x ⫺ E (X )]2 (N ⫺ 1) i ⳱1 i

冱

(11.6)

The advantage of this measure is that it takes into account all observations, not just the few around the quantile. Any large negative value, for example, will affect the computation of the variance, increasing SD(X ). If we are willing to take a stand on the shape of the distribution, say normal or Student’s t , we do know that the standard deviation is the most efﬁcient measure of dispersion. For example, for our yen position, this value is SD ⳱ $29.7 million Using a normal approximation and α ⳱ 1.645, we get a VAR estimate of $49 million, which is not far from the empirical quantile of $47 million. Under these conditions, VAR inherits all properties of the standard deviation. In particular, the SD of a portfolio must be smaller than the sum of the SDs of subportfolios. The disadvantage of the standard deviation is that it is symmetrical and cannot distinguish between large losses or gains. Also, computing VAR from SD requires a distributional assumption, which may not be valid. The semi-standard deviation This is a simple extension of the usual standard deviation that considers only data points that represent a loss. Deﬁne NL as the number of such points. The measure is ⱍ SDL (X ) ⳱ ⱍ

冪

N 1 [Min(xi , 0) ⫺ E (X )]2 (NL ⫺ 1) i ⳱1

冱

where the data are averaged over NL . In practice, this is rarely used. Example 11-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Capital Markets 11-2. Considering arbitrary portfolios A and B , and their combined portfolio C , which of the following relationships always holds for VARs of A, B , and C ? a) VARA Ⳮ VARB ⳱ VARC b) VARA Ⳮ VARB ⱖ VARC c) VARA Ⳮ VARB ⱕ VARC d) None of the above

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VAR: Parameters

To measure VAR, we ﬁrst need to deﬁne two quantitative parameters, the conﬁdence level and the horizon.

11.3.1

Conﬁdence Level

The higher the conﬁdence level c , the greater the VAR measure. Varying the conﬁdence level provides useful information about the return distribution and potential extreme losses. It is not clear, however, whether one should stop at 99%, 99.9%, 99.99% and so on. Each of these values will create an increasingly larger loss, but less likely. Another problem is that, as c increases, the number of occurrences below VAR shrinks, leading to poor measures of large but unlikely losses. With 1000 observations, for example, VAR can be taken as the 10th lowest observation for a 99% conﬁdence level. If the conﬁdence level increases to 99.9%, VAR is taken from the lowest observation only. Finally, there is no simple way to estimate a 99.99% VAR from this sample. The choice of the conﬁdence level depends on the use of VAR. For most applications, VAR is simply a benchmark measure of downside risk. If so, what really matters is consistency of the VAR conﬁdence level across trading desks or time. In contrast, if the VAR number is being used to decide how much capital to set aside to avoid bankruptcy, then a high conﬁdence level is advisable. Obviously, institutions would prefer to go bankrupt very infrequently. This capital adequacy use, however, applies to the overall institution and not to trading desks. Another important point is that VAR models are only useful insofar as they can be veriﬁed. This is the purpose of backtesting, which systematically checks whether the frequency of losses exceeding VAR is in line with p ⳱ 1 ⫺ c . For this purpose, the risk manager should not choose a value of c that is too high. Picking, for instance, c ⳱ 99.99% should lead, on average, to one exceedence out of 10,000 trading days, or 40 years. In other words, it is going to be impossible to verify if the true probability associated with VAR is indeed 99.99 percent. For all these reasons, the usual recommendation is to pick a conﬁdence level that is not too high, such as 95 to 99 percent.

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Horizon

The longer the horizon (T ), the greater the VAR measure. This extrapolation depends on two factors, the behavior of the risk factors, and the portfolio positions. To extrapolate from a one-day horizon to a longer horizon, we need to assume that returns are independently and identically distributed. This allows us to transform a daily volatility to a multiple-day volatility by multiplication by the square root of time. We also need to assume that the distribution of daily returns is unchanged for longer horizons, which restricts the class of distribution to the so-called “stable” family, of which the normal is a member. If so, we have VAR(T days) ⳱ VAR(1 day) ⫻ 冪T

(11.8)

This requires (1) the distribution to be invariant to the horizon (i.e., the same α, as for the normal), (2) the distribution to be the same for various horizons (i.e., no time decay in variances), and (3) innovations to be independent across days.

Key concept: VAR can be extended from a 1⫺day horizon to T days by multiplication by the square root of time. This adjustement is valid with i.i.d. returns that have a normal distribution.

The choice of the horizon also depends on the characteristics of the portfolio. If the positions change quickly, or if exposures (e.g., option deltas) change as underlying prices change, increasing the horizon will create “slippage” in the VAR measure. Again, the choice of the horizon depends on the use of VAR. If the purpose is to provide an accurate benchmark measure of downside risk, the horizon should be relatively short, ideally less than the average period for major portfolio rebalancing. In contrast, if the VAR number is being used to decide how much capital to set aside to avoid bankruptcy, then a long horizon is advisable. Institutions will want to have enough time for corrective action as problems start to develop. In practice, the horizon cannot be less than the frequency of reporting of profits and losses. Typically, banks measure P&L on a daily basis, and corporates on a longer interval (ranging from daily to monthly). This interval is the minimum horizon for VAR.

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Another criteria relates to the backtesting issue. Shorter time intervals create more data points matching the forecast VAR with the actual, subsequent P&L. As the power of the statistical tests increases with the number of observations, it is advisable to have a horizon as short as possible. For all these reasons, the usual recommendation is to pick a horizon that is as short as feasible, for instance 1 day for trading desks. The horizon needs to be appropriate to the asset classes and the purpose of risk management. For institutions such as pension funds, for instance, a 1-month horizon may be more appropriate. For capital adequacy purposes, institutions should select a high conﬁdence level and a long horizon. There is a trade-off, however, between these two parameters. Increasing one or the other will increase VAR. Example 11-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 7/Risk Measurement 11-3. To convert VAR from a one-day holding period to a ten-day holding period the VAR number is generally multiplied by a) 2.33 b) 3.16 c) 7.25 d) 10.00

Example 11-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 114 11-4. Rank the following portfolios from least risky to most risky. Assume 252 trading days a year and there are 5 trading days per week. Portfolio 1 2 3 4 5 6 a) b) c) d)

VAR 10 10 10 10 10 10

Holding Period in Days

10 10 15 15

Conﬁdence Interval 99 95 99 95 99 95

5,3,6,1,4,2 3,4,1,2,5,6 5,6,1,2,3,4 2,1,5,6,4,3

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Application: The Basel Rules

The Basel market risk charge requires VAR to be computed with the following parameters: a. A horizon of 10 trading days, or two calendar weeks b. A 99 percent conﬁdence interval c. An observation period based on at least a year of historical data and updated at least once a quarter The Market Risk Charge (MRC) is measured as follows:

冢

⳱ Max k MRCIMA t

冣

1 60 VARt ⫺i , VARt ⫺1 Ⳮ SRCt 60 i ⳱1

冱

(11.9)

which involves the average of the market VAR over the last 60 days, times a supervisordetermined multiplier k (with a minimum value of 3), as well as yesterday’s VAR, and a speciﬁc risk charge SRC .1 The Basel Committee allows the 10-day VAR to be obtained from an extrapolation of 1-day VAR ﬁgures. Thus VAR is really VARt (10, 99%) ⳱ 冪10 ⫻ VARt (1, 99%) Presumably, the 10-day period corresponds to the time required for corrective action by bank regulators should an institution start to run into trouble. Presumably as well, the 99 percent conﬁdence level corresponds to a low probability of bank failure due to market risk. Even so, one occurrence every 100 periods implies a high frequency of failure. There are 52冫 2 ⳱ 26 two-week periods in one year. Thus, one failure should be expected to happen every 100冫 26 ⳱ 3.8 years, which is still much too frequent. This explains why the Basel Committee has applied a multiplier factor, k ⱖ 3 to guarantee further safety. 1

The speciﬁc risk charge is designed to provide a buffer against losses due to idiosyncractic factors related to the individual issuer of the security. It includes the risk that an individual debt or equity moves by more or less than the general market, as well as event risk. Consider for instance a corporate bond issued by Ford Motor, a company with a credit rating of “BBB”. component should capture the effect of movements in yields for an index of BBB-rated corporate bonds. In contrast, the SRC should capture the effect of credit downgrades for Ford. The SRC can be computed from the VAR of sub-portfolios of debt and equity positions that contain speciﬁc risk.

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Example 11-5: FRM Exam 1997----Question 16/Regulatory 11-5. Which of the following quantitative standards is not required by the Amendment to the Capital Accord to Incorporate Market Risk? a) Minimum holding period of 10 days b) 99th percentile, one-tailed conﬁdence interval c) Minimum historical observation period of two years d) Update of data sets at least quarterly

11.4

Elements of VAR Systems

We now turn to the analysis of elements of a VAR system. As described in Figure 11-4,

AM FL Y

a VAR system combines the following steps: FIGURE 11-4 Elements of a VAR System

Risk factors

Model

TE

Historical data

Distribution of risk factors

Portfolio Portfolio positions

Mapping

VAR method

Exposures

VAR

1. From market data, choose the distribution of risk factors (e.g., normal, empirical, or other). 2. Collect the portfolio positions and map them onto the risk factors. 3. Choose a VAR method (delta-normal, historical, Monte Carlo) and compute the portfolio VAR. These methods will be explained in a subsequent chapter.

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Portfolio Positions

We start with portfolio positions. The assumption will be that the positions are constant over the horizon. This, of course, cannot be true in an environment where traders turn over their portfolio actively. Rather, it is a simpliﬁcation. The true risk can be greater or lower than the VAR measure. It can be greater if VAR is based on close-to-close positions that reﬂect lower trader limits. If traders take more risks during the day, the true risk will be greater than indicated by VAR. Conversely, the true risk can be lower if management enforces loss limits, in other words cuts down the risk that traders can take if losses develop. Example 11-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Regulatory 11-6. The standard VAR calculation for extension to multiple periods also assumes that positions are ﬁxed. If risk management enforces loss limits, the true VAR will be a) The same b) Greater than calculated c) Less than calculated d) Unable to be determined

11.4.2

Risk Factors

The risk factors represent a subset of all market variables that adequately span the risks of the current, or allowed, portfolio. There are literally tens of thousands of securities available, but a much more restricted set of useful risk factors. The key is to choose market factors that are adequate for the portfolio. For a simple ﬁxed-income portfolio, one bond market risk factor may be enough. In contrast, for a highly leveraged portfolio, multiple risk factors are needed. For an option portfolio, volatilities should be added as risk factors. In general, the more complex the portfolio, the greater the number of risk factors that should be used.

11.4.3

VAR Methods

Similarly, the choice of the method depends on the nature of the portfolio. For a ﬁxed-income portfolio, a linear method may be adequate. In contrast, if the portfolio contains options, we need to include nonlinear effects. For simple, plain vanilla options, we may be able to approximate their price behavior with a ﬁrst and second

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derivative (delta and gamma). For more complex options, such as digital or barrier options, this may not be sufﬁcient. This is why risk management is as much an art as a science. Risk managers need to make reasonable approximations to come up with a cost-efﬁcient measure of risk. They also need to be aware of the fact that traders could be induced to ﬁnd “holes” in the risk management system. A VAR system alone will not provide effective protection against market risk. It needs to be used in combination with limits on notionals and on exposures and, in addition, should be supplemented by stress tests. Example 11-7: FRM Exam 1997----Question 9/Regulatory 11-7. A trading desk has limits only in outright foreign exchange and outright interest rate risk. Which of the following products can not be traded within the current limit structure? a) Vanilla interest rate swaps, bonds, and interest rate futures b) Interest rate futures, vanilla interest rate swaps, and callable interest rate swaps c) Repos and bonds d) Foreign exchange swaps, and back-to-back exotic foreign exchange options

11.5

Stress-Testing

As shown in the yen example in Figure 11-2, VAR does not purport to measure the worst-ever loss that could happen. It should be complemented by stress-testing, which aims at identifying situations that could create extraordinary losses for the institution. Stress-testing is a key risk management process, which includes (i) scenario analysis, (ii) stressing models, volatilities and correlations, and (iii) developing policy responses. Scenario analysis submits the portfolio to large movements in ﬁnancial market variables. These scenarios can be created: Moving key variables one at a time, which is a simple and intuitive method. Unfortunately, it is difﬁcult to assess realistic comovements in ﬁnancial variables. It is unlikely that all variables will move in the worst possible direction at the same time.

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Using historical scenarios, for instance the 1987 stock market crash, the devaluation of the British pound in 1992, the bond market debacle of 1984, and so on. Creating prospective scenarios, for instance working through the effects, direct and indirect, of a U.S. stock market crash. Ideally, the scenario should be tailored to the portfolio at hand, assessing the worst thing that could happen to current positions. The goal of stress-testing is to identify areas of potential vulnerability. This is not to say that the institution should be totally protected against every possible contingency, as this would make it impossible to take any risk. Rather, the objective of stress-testing and management response should be to ensure that the institution can withstand likely scenarios without going bankrupt. Example 11-8: FRM Exam 1997----Question 4/Risk Measurement 11-8. The use of scenario analysis allows one to a) Assess the behavior of portfolios under large moves. b) Research market shocks which occurred in the past. c) Analyze the distribution of historical P/L in the portfolio. d) Perform effective backtesting. Example 11-9: FRM Exam 1998----Question 20/Regulatory 11-9. VAR measures should be supplemented by portfolio stress-testing because a) VAR measures indicate that the minimum loss will be the VAR; they don’t indicate how large the losses can be. b) Stress-testing provides a precise maximum loss level. c) VAR measures are correct only 95% of the time. d) Stress-testing scenarios incorporate reasonably probable events. Example 11-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 105/Market Risk 11-10. Value-at-risk (VAR) analysis should be complemented by stress-testing because stress testing a) Provides a maximum loss, expressed in dollars b) Summarizes the expected loss over a target horizon within a minimum conﬁdence interval c) Assesses the behavior of portfolio at a 99 percent conﬁdence level d) Identiﬁes losses that go beyond the normal losses measured by VAR

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Cash Flow at Risk

VAR methods have been developed to measure the mark-to-market risk of commercial bank portfolios. By now, these methods have spread to other ﬁnancial institutions (e.g., investment banks, savings and loans), and the investment management industry (e.g., pension funds). In each case, the objective function is the market value of the portfolio, assuming ﬁxed positions. VAR methods, however, are now also spreading to other sectors (e.g., corporations), where the emphasis is on periodic earnings. Cash ﬂow at risk (CFAR) measures the worst shortfall in cash ﬂows due to unfavorable movements in market risk factors. This involves quantities, Q, unit revenues, P , and unit costs, C . Simplifying, we can write CF ⳱ Q ⫻ (P ⫺ C )

(11.10)

Suppose we focus on the exchange rate, S , as the market risk factor. Each of these variables can be affected by S . Revenues and costs can be denominated in the foreign currency, partially or wholly. Quantities can also be affected by the exchange rate through foreign competition effects. Because quantities are random, this creates quantity uncertainty. The risk manager needs to model the relationship between quantities and risk factors. Once this is done, simulations can be used to project the cash-ﬂow distribution and identify the worst loss at some conﬁdence level. Next, the ﬁrm can decide whether to hedge and if so, the best instrument to use. A classic example is the value of a farmer’s harvest, say corn. At the beginning of the year, costs are ﬁxed and do not contribute to risk. The price of corn and the size of harvest in the fall, however, are unknown. Suppose price movements are primarily driven by supply shocks, such as the weather. If there is a drought during the summer, quantities will fall and prices will increase. Conversely if there is an exceptionally abundant harvest. Because of the negative correlation between Q and P , total revenues will ﬂuctuate less than if quantities were ﬁxed. Such relationships need to be factored into the risk measurement system because they will affect the hedging program.

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 11-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 89/Market Risk c) There will be a loss worse than VAR in, on average, n ⳱ 1% ⫻ 100 ⳱ 1 day out of 100. Example 11-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Capital Markets d) This is the correct answer given the “always” requirement and the fact that VAR is not always subadditive. Otherwise, (b) is not a bad answer, but it requires some additional distributional assumptions. Example 11-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 7/Risk Measurement b) Square root of 10 is 3.16. Example 11-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 114 a) We assume a normal distribution and i.i.d. returns, which lead to the square root of time rule and compute the daily standard deviation. For instance, for portfolio 1, T ⳱ 5, and σ ⳱ 10冫 ( 冪52.33) ⳱ 1.922. This gives, respectively, 1.922, 2.719, 1.359, 1.923, 1.110, 1.570. So, portfolio 5 has the lowest risk and so on. Example 11-5: FRM Exam 1997----Question 16/Regulatory c) The Capital Accord requires a minimum historical observation period of one year. Example 11-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Regulatory c) Less than calculated. Loss limits cut down the positions as losses accumulate. This is similar to a long position in an option, where the delta increases as the price increases, and vice versa. Long positions in options have shortened left tails, and hence involve less risk than an unprotected position. Example 11-7: FRM Exam 1997----Question 9/Regulatory b) Callable interest rate swaps involve options, for which there is no limit. Also note that back-to-back options are perfectly hedged and have no market risk. Example 11-8: FRM Exam 1997----Question 4/Risk Measurement a) Stress-testing evaluates the portfolio under large moves in ﬁnancial variables.

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Example 11-9: FRM Exam 1998----Question 20/Regulatory a) The goal of stress-testing is to identify losses that go beyond the “normal” losses measured by VAR. Example 11-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 105/Market Risk d) Stress testing identiﬁes low-probability losses beyond the usual VAR measures. It does not, however, provide a maximum loss.

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Appendix: Desirable Properties for Risk Measures The purpose of a risk measure is to summarize the entire distribution of dollar returns X by one number, ρ (X ). Artzner et al. (1999) list four desirable properties of risk measures for capital adequacy purposes.2 Monotonicity: if X1 ⱕ X2 , ρ (X1 ) ⱖ ρ (X2 ). In other words, if a portfolio has systematically lower values than another (in each state of the world), it must have greater risk. Translation Invariance: ρ (X Ⳮ k) ⳱ ρ (X ) ⫺ k. In other words, adding cash k to a portfolio should reduce its risk by k. This reduces the lowest portfolio value. As with X , k is measured in dollars. Homogeneity: ρ (bX ) ⳱ bρ (X ). In other words, increasing the size of a portfolio by a factor b should scale its risk measure by the same factor b. This property applies to the standard deviation.3 Subadditivity: ρ (X1 Ⳮ X2 ) ⱕ ρ (X1 ) Ⳮ ρ (X2 ). In other words, the risk of a portfolio must be less than the sum of separate risks. Merging portfolios cannot increase risk. The usefulness of these criteria is that they force us to think about ideal properties and, more importantly, potential problems with simpliﬁed risk measures. Indeed, Artzner et al. show that the quantile-based VAR measure fails to satisfy the last property. They give some pathological examples of positions that combine to create portfolios with larger VAR. They also show that the conditional VAR, E [⫺X 兩 X ⱕ ⫺VAR], satisﬁes all these desirable coherence properties. Assuming a normal distribution, however, the standard deviation-based VAR satisﬁes the subadditivity property. This is because the volatility of a portfolio is less than the sum of volatilities: σ (X1 Ⳮ X2 ) ⱕ σ (X1 ) Ⳮ σ (X2 ). We only have a strict equality when the correlation is perfect (positive for long positions). More generally, this property holds for elliptical distributions, for which contours of equal density are ellipsoids. 2

See Artzner, P., Delbaen F., Eber J.-M., and Heath D. (1999), Coherent Measures of Risk. Mathematical Finance, 9 (July), 203–228. 3 This assumption, however, may be questionable in the case of huge portfolios that could not be liquidated without substantial market impact. Thus, it ignores liquidity risk.

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Example: Why VAR is not necessarily subadditive Consider a trader with an investment in a corporate bond with face value of $100,000 and default probability of 0.5%. Over the next period, we can either have no default, with a return of zero, or default with a loss of $100,000. The payoffs are thus ⫺$100,000 with probability of 0.5% and +$0 with probability 99.5%. Since the probability of getting $0 is greater than 99%, the VAR at the 99 percent conﬁdence level is $0, without taking the mean into account. This is consistent with the deﬁnition that VAR is the smallest loss such that the right-tail probability is at least 99%. Now, consider a portfolio invested in three bonds (A,B,C) with the same characteristics and independent payoffs. The VAR numbers add up to 冱 i VARi ⳱ $0. To compute the portfolio VAR, we tabulate the payoffs and probabilities: State No default 1 default 2 defaults 3 defaults

Bonds A,B,C AB,AC,BC ABC

0.995 3 ⫻ 0.005 3 ⫻ 0.005 0.005

⫻ ⫻ ⫻ ⫻

Probability 0.995 ⫻ 0.995 ⳱ 0.9850749 0.995 ⫻ 0.995 ⳱ 0.0148504 0.005 ⫻ 0.995 ⳱ 0.0000746 0.005 ⫻ 0.005 ⳱ 0.0000001

Payoff $0 ⫺$100,000 ⫺$200,000 ⫺$300,000

Here, the probability of zero or one default is 0.9851Ⳮ0.0148 ⳱ 99.99%. The portfolio VAR is therefore $100,000, which is the lowest number such that the probability exceeds 99%. Thus the portfolio VAR is greater than the sum of individual VARs. In this example, VAR is not subadditive. This is an undesirable property because it creates disincentives to aggregate the portfolio, since it appears to have higher risk. Admittedly, this example is a bit contrived. Nevertheless, it illustrates the danger of focusing on VAR as a sole measure of risk. The portfolio may be structured to display a low VAR. When a loss occurs, however, this may be a huge loss. This is an issue with asymmetrical positions, such as short positions in options or undiversiﬁed portfolios exposed to credit risk.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 12 Identiﬁcation of Risk Factors The ﬁrst step in the measurement of market risk is the identiﬁcation of the key drivers of risk. These include ﬁxed income, equity, currency, and commodity risks. Later chapters will discuss in more detail the quantitative measurement of risk factors as well as the portfolio risk. Section 12.g1 presents a general overview of market risks. Downside risk can be viewed as resulting from two sources, exposure and the risk factor. This decomposition is essential because it separates risk into a component over which the risk manager has control (exposure) and another component that is exogenous (the risk factors). Section 12.g2 illustrates this decomposition in the context of a simple asset, a ﬁxed-coupon bond. An important issue is whether the exposure is constant. If so, the distribution of asset returns can be obtained from a simple transformation of the underlying risk-factor distribution. If not, the measurement of market risk becomes more complex. This section also discusses general and speciﬁc risk. Next, Section 12.g3 discusses discontinuities in returns and event risk. Macroeconomic events can be traced, for instance, to political and economic policies in emerging markets, but also in industrial countries. A related form of ﬁnancial risk that applies to all instruments is liquidity risk, which is covered in Section 4. This can take the form of asset liquidity risk or funding risk.

12.1

Market Risks

Market risk is the risk of ﬂuctuations in portfolio values because of movements in the level or volatility of market prices.

12.1.1

Absolute and Relative Risk

It is useful to distinguish between absolute and relative risks.

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Absolute risk is measured in terms of shortfall relative to the initial value of the investment, or perhaps an alternative investment in cash. It should be expressed in dollar terms (or in the relevant base currency). Let us use the standard deviation as the risk measure and deﬁne P as the initial portfolio value and RP as the rate of return. Absolute risk in dollar terms is σ (⌬P ) ⳱ σ (⌬P 冫 P ) ⫻ P ⳱ σ (RP ) ⫻ P

(12.1)

Relative risk is measured relative to a benchmark index and represents active management risk. Deﬁning B as the benchmark, the deviation is e ⳱ RP ⫺ RB . In dollar terms, this is e ⫻ P . The risk is σ ⳱ [σ (RP ⫺ RB )] ⫻ P ⳱ [σ (⌬P 冫 P ⫺ ⌬B 冫 B )] ⫻ P ⳱ ω ⫻ P

(12.2)

AM FL Y

where ω is called tracking error volatility (TEV).

For example, if a portfolio returns ⫺6% over the year but the benchmark dropped by ⫺10%, the excess return is positive e ⳱ ⫺6% ⫺ (⫺10%) ⳱ 4%, even though the absolute performance is negative. On the other hand, a portfolio could return 6%, which is good using absolute measures, but not so good if the benchmark went up by 10%.

TE

Using absolute or relative risk depends on how the trading or investment operation is judged. For bank trading portfolios or hedge funds, market risk is measured in absolute terms. These are sometimes called total return funds. For institutional portfolio managers that are given the task of beating a benchmark or peer group, market risk should be measured in relative terms. To evaluate the performance of portfolio managers, the investor should look not only at the average return, but also the risk. The Sharpe ratio (SR) measures the ratio of the average rate of return, µ (RP ), in excess of the risk-free rate RF , to the absolute risk SR ⳱ [µ (RP ) ⫺ RF ]冫 σ (RP )

(12.3)

The information ratio (IR) measures the ratio of the average rate of return in excess of the benchmark to the TEV IR ⳱ [µ (RP ) ⫺ µ (RB )]冫 ω

(12.4)

Table 12-1 gives some examples using annual data, which is the convention for performance measurement. Assume the interest rate is 3%. The Sharpe Ratio of the port-

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folio is SR ⳱ (⫺6% ⫺ 3%)冫 30% ⳱ ⫺0.30, which is bad because it is negative and large. In contrast, the Information Ratio is IR ⳱ (⫺6% ⫺ (⫺10%))冫 8% ⳱ 0.5, which is positive. It reﬂects the performance relative to the benchmark. This number is typical of the performance of the top 25th percentile of money managers and is considered “good.”1 TABLE 12-1 Absolute and Relative Performance Cash Portfolio P Benchmark B Deviation e

12.1.2

Average 3% -6% -10% 4%

Volatility 0% 30% 20% 8%

Performance SR ⳱ ⫺0.30 SR ⳱ ⫺0.65 IR ⳱ 0.5

Directional and Nondirectional Risk

Market risk can be further classiﬁed into directional and nondirectional risks. Directional risks involve exposures to the direction of movements in major ﬁnancial market variables. These directional exposures are measured by ﬁrst-order or linear approximations such as - Beta for exposure to general stock market movements - Duration for exposure to the level of interest rates - Delta for exposure of options to the price of the underlying asset Nondirectional risks involve other remaining exposures, such as nonlinear exposures, exposures to hedged positions or to volatilities. These nondirectional exposures are measured by exposures to differences in price movements, or quadratic exposures such as - Basis risk when dealing with differences in prices or in interest rates - Residual risk when dealing with equity portfolios - Convexity when dealing with second-order effects for interest rates - Gamma when dealing with second-order effects for options - Volatility risk when dealing with volatility effects This classiﬁcation is to some extent arbitrary. Generally, it is understood that directional risks are greater than nondirectional risks. Some strategies avoid ﬁrst-order, directional risks and instead take positions in nondirectional risks in the hope of controlling risks better. 1

See Grinold and Kahn (2000), Active Portfolio Management, McGraw-Hill, New York.

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Limiting risk also limits rewards, however. As a result, these strategies are often highly leveraged in order to multiply gains from taking nondirectional bets. Perversely, this creates other types of risks, such as liquidity risk and model risk. This strategy indeed failed for long-term capital management (LTCM), a highly leveraged hedge fund that purported to avoid directional risks. Instead, the fund took positions in relative value trades, such as duration-matched short Treasuries, long other ﬁxedincome assets, and in option volatilities. This strategy failed spectacularly.

12.1.3

Market vs. Credit Risk

Market risk is usually measured separately from another major source of ﬁnancial risk, which is credit risk. Credit risk originates from the fact that counterparties may be unwilling or unable to fulﬁll their contractual obligations. At the most basic level, it involves the risk of default on the asset, such as a loan, bond, or some other security or contract. When the asset is traded, however, market risk also reﬂects credit risk—take a corporate bond, for example. Some of the price movement may be due to movements in risk-free interest rates, which is pure market risk. The remainder will reﬂect the market’s changing perception of the likelihood of default. Thus, for traded assets, there is no clear-cut delineation of market and credit risk. Some arbitrary classiﬁcation must take place.

12.1.4

Risk Interaction

Although it is convenient to categorize risks into different, separately deﬁned, buckets, risk does not occur in isolation. Consider, for instance, a simple transaction whereby a trader purchases 1 million worth of British Pound (BP) spot from Bank A. The current rate is $1.5/BP, for settlement in two business days. So, our bank will have to deliver $1.5 million in two days in exchange for receiving BP 1 million. This simple transaction involves a series of risks. Market risk: During the day, the spot rate could change. Say that after a few hours the rate moves to $1.4/BP. The trader cuts the position and enters a spot sale with another bank, Bank B. The million pounds is now worth only $1.4 million, for a loss of $100,000 to be realized in two days. The loss is the change in the market value of the investment.

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Credit risk: The next day, Bank B goes bankrupt. The trader must now enter a new, replacement trade with Bank C. If the spot rate has dropped from $1.4/BP to $1.35/BP, the gain of $50,000 on the spot sale with Bank B is now at risk. The loss is the change in the market value of the investment, if positive. Thus there is interaction between market and credit risk. Settlement risk: Our bank wires the $1.5 million to Bank A in the morning, who defaults at noon and does not deliver the promised BP 1 million. This is also known as Herstatt risk because this German bank defaulted on such obligations in 1974, potentially destabilizing the whole ﬁnancial system. The loss is now the whole principal in dollars. Operational risk: Suppose that our bank wired the $1.5 million to a wrong bank, Bank D. After two days, our back ofﬁce gets the money back, which is then wired to Bank A plus compensatory interest. The loss is the interest on the amount due.

12.2

Sources of Loss: A Decomposition

12.2.1

Exposure and Uncertainty

The potential for loss for a plain ﬁxed-coupon bond can be decomposed into the effect of (modiﬁed) duration D ⴱ and the yield. Duration measures the sensitivity of the bond return to changes in the interest rate. ⌬P ⳱ ⫺(D ⴱ P ) ⫻ ⌬y

(12.5)

The dollar exposure is D ⴱ P , which is the dollar duration. Figure 12-1 shows how the nonlinear pricing relationship is approximated by the duration line, whose slope is ⫺(D ⴱ P ). This illustrates the general principle that losses can occur because of a combination of two factors: The exposure to the factor, or dollar duration (a choice variable) The movement in the factor itself (which is external to the portfolio) This linear characterization also applies to systematic risk and option delta. We can, for instance, decompose the return on stock i , Ri into a component due to the market RM and some residual risk, which we ignore for now because its effect washes out in a large portfolio: Ri ⳱ αi Ⳮ βi ⫻ RM Ⳮ i ⬇ βi ⫻ RM

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FIGURE 12-1 Duration as an Exposure Bond price Price 150 Slope = –(D*P) = ∆ P/ ∆ y

∆P 100

∆y

Duration approximation

50 0

2

4

6

8 10 Bond yield

12

14

16

We ignore the constant αi because it does not contribute to risk, as well as the residual i , which is diversiﬁed. Note that Ri is expressed here in terms of rate of return and, hence, has no dimension. To get a change in a dollar price, we write ⌬Pi ⳱ Ri Pi ⬇ (βPi ) ⫻ RM

(12.7)

Similarly, the change in the value of a derivative f can be expressed in terms of the change in the price of the underlying asset S , df ⳱ ⌬ ⫻ dS

(12.8)

To avoid confusion, we use the conventional notations of ⌬ for the ﬁrst partial derivative of the option. Changes are expressed in inﬁnitesimal amounts df and dS . Equations (12.5), (12.6), and (12.8) all reveal that the change in value is linked to an exposure coefﬁcient and a change in market variable: Market Loss ⳱ Exposure ⫻ Adverse Movement in FinancialVariable To have a loss, we need to have some exposure and an unfavorable move in the risk factor. Traditional risk management methods focus on the exposure term. The drawback is that one does not incorporate the probability of an adverse move, and there is no aggregation of risk across different sources of ﬁnancial risk.

12.2.2

Speciﬁc Risk

The previous section has shown how to explain the movement in individual bond, stock, or derivatives prices as a function of a general market factor. Consider, for

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instance, the driving factors behind changes in a stock’s price: ⌬Pi ⳱ (βPi ) ⫻ RM Ⳮ (i Pi )

(12.9)

The mapping procedure in risk management replaces the stock by its dollar exposure (βPi ) on the general, market risk factor. But this leaves out the speciﬁc risk, i . Speciﬁc risk can be deﬁned as risk that is due to issuer-speciﬁc price movements, after accounting for general market factors. Taking the variance of both sides of Equation (12.6), we have V [⌬Pi ] ⳱ (βi Pi )2 V [RM ] Ⳮ V [i Pi ]

(12.10)

The ﬁrst term represents general market risk, the second, speciﬁc risk. Increasing the amount of detail (or granularity) in the general risk factors should lead to smaller residual, speciﬁc risk. For instance, we could model general risk by taking a market index plus industry indices. As the number of market factors increases, speciﬁc risk should decrease. Hence, speciﬁc risk can only be understood relative to the deﬁnition of market risk. Example 12-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 16/Market Risk 12-1. The risk of a stock or bond that is not correlated with the market (and thus can be diversiﬁed) is known as a) Interest rate risk b) FX risk c) Model risk d) Speciﬁc risk

12.3

Discontinuity and Event Risk

12.3.1

Continuous Processes

As seen in the previous section, market risk can be ascribed to movements in the risk factor(s) and in the exposure, or payoff function. If movements in bond yields are smooth, bond prices will also move in a smooth fashion. These continuous movements can be captured well from historical data. This smoothness characteristic can be expressed in mathematical form as a Brownian motion. Formally, the variance of changes in prices over shrinking time intervals has to shrink at the same rate as the length of the time interval, giving lim⌬t y 0 V [⌬P 冫 P ] ⳱ σ 2 dt

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where σ is a ﬁnite volatility. Such process allows continuous hedging, or replication, of an option, which leads to the Black-Scholes model. In practice, movements are small enough that effective hedging can occur on a daily basis.

12.3.2

Jump Process

A much more dangerous process is a discontinuous jump process, where large movements occur over a small time interval. These discontinuities can create large losses. Furthermore, their probability is difﬁcult to establish because they occur rarely in historical data. Figure 12-2 depicts a notable discontinuity, which is the 20% drop in the S&P index on October 19, 1987. Prior to that, movements in the index were relatively smooth. Such discontinuities are inherently difﬁcult to capture. In theory, simulations could modify the usual continuous stochastic processes by adding a jump component occurring with a predeﬁned frequency and size. In practice, the process parameters are difﬁcult to estimate and there is not much point in trying to quantify what is essentially a stress-testing exercise. Discontinuities in the portfolio series can occur for another reason: The payoff itself can be discontinuous. Figure 12-3 gives the example of a binary option, which FIGURE 12-2 Jump in U.S. Stock Price Index S & P equity index 340 320 300 280 260 240 220

12/31/87

11/30/87

10/31/87

9/30/87

8/31/87

7/31/87

6/30/87

5/31/87

4/30/87

3/31/87

2/28/87

1/31/87

12/31/86

200

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FIGURE 12-3 Discontinuous Payoff: Binary Option Option payoff

1

0 50

100 Underlying asset price

150

pays $1 if the underlying price is above the strike price and pays zero otherwise. Such an option will create a discontinuous pattern in the portfolio, even if the underlying asset price is perfectly smooth. These options are difﬁcult to hedge because of the instability of the option delta around the strike price. In other words, they have very high gamma at that point.

12.3.3

Event Risk

Discontinuities can occur for a number of reasons. Most notably, there was no immediately observable explanation for the stock market crash of 1987. It was argued that the crash was caused by the “unsustainable” run-up in prices during the year, as well as sustained increases in interest rates. The problem is that all of this information was available to market observers well before the crash. Perhaps the crash was due to the unusual volume of trading, which overwhelmed trading mechanisms, creating further uncertainty as prices dropped. In many other cases, the discontinuity is due to an observable event. Event risk can be characterized as the risk of loss because of an observable political or economic event. These include Changes in governments leading to changes in economic policies Changes in economic policies, such as default, capital controls, inconvertibility, changes in tax laws, expropriations, and so on

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Coups, civil wars, invasions, or other signs of political instability Currency devaluations, which are usually accompanied by other drastic changes in market variables These risks often originate from emerging markets,2 although this is by no means universal. Developing countries have time and again displayed a disturbing tendency to interfere with capital ﬂows. There is no simple method to deal with event risk, since almost by deﬁnition they are unique events. To protect the institution against such risk, risk managers could consult with economists. Political risk insurance is also available for some markets, which should give some measure of the perceived risk. Setting up prospective events is an important part of stress testing. Even so, recent years have demonstrated that markets seem to be systematically taken by surprise. Precious few seem to have anticipated the Russian default, for instance.

Example: the Argentina Turmoil Argentina is a good example of political risk in emerging markets. Up to 2001, the Argentine peso was ﬁxed to the U.S. dollar at a one-to-one exchange rate. The government had promised it would defend the currency at all costs. Argentina, however, suffered from the worst economic crisis in decades, compounded by the cost of excessive borrowing. In December 2001, Argentina announced it would stop paying interest on its $135 billion foreign debt. This was the largest sovereign default recorded so far. Economy Minister Cavallo also announced sweeping restrictions on withdrawals from bank deposits to avoid capital ﬂight. On December 20, President Fernando de la Rua resigned after 25 people died in street protest and rioting. President Duhalde took ofﬁce on January 2 and devalued the currency on January 6. The exchange rate promptly moved from 1 peso/dollar to more than 3 pesos. Such moves could have been factored into risk management systems by scenario analysis. What was totally unexpected, however, was the government’s announcement 2

The term “emerging stock market” was coined by the International Finance Corporation (IFC), in 1981. IFC deﬁnes an emerging stock market as one located in a developing country. Using the World Bank’s deﬁnition, this includes all countries with a GNP per capita less than $8,625 in 1993.

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that it would treat differentially bank loans and deposits. Dollar-denominated bank deposits were converted into devalued pesos, but dollar-denominated bank loans were converted into pesos at a one-to-one rate. This mismatch rendered much of the banking system technically insolvent, because loans (bank assets) overnight became less valuable than deposits (bank liabilities). Whereas risk managers had contemplated the market risk effect of a devaluation, few had considered this possibility of such political actions.

Example 12-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 122 12-2. What is the most important consequence of an option having a discontinuous payoff function? a) An increase in operational risks, as the expiry price can be contested or manipulated if close to a point of discontinuity b) When the underlying is close to the points of discontinuity, a very high gamma c) Difﬁculties to assess the correct market price at expiry d) None of the above

12.4

Liquidity Risk

Liquidity risk is usually viewed as a component of market risk. Lack of liquidity can cause the failure of an institution, even when it is technically solvent. We will see in the chapters on regulation that commercial banks have an inherent liquidity imbalance between their assets (long-term loans) and their liabilities (bank deposits) that provides a rationale for deposit insurance. The problem with liquidity risk is that it is less amenable to formal analysis than traditional market risk. The industry is still struggling with the measurement of liquidity risk. Often, liquidity risk is loosely factored into VAR measures, for instance by selectively increasing volatilities. These adjustments, however, are mainly ad-hoc. Some useful lessons have been learned from the near failure of LTCM. These are discussed in a report by the Counterparty Risk Management Policy Group (CRMPG), which is described in Chapter 26. Liquidity risk consists of both asset liquidity risk and funding liquidity risk.

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Asset liquidity risk, also called market/product liquidity risk, arises when transactions cannot be conducted at quoted market prices due to the size of the required trade relative to normal trading lots. Funding liquidity risk, also called cash-ﬂow risk, arises when the institution cannot meet payment obligations. These two types of risk interact with each other if the portfolio contains illiquid assets that must be sold at distressed prices. Funding liquidity needs can be met from (i) sales of cash, (ii) sales of other assets, and (iii) borrowings. Asset liquidity risk can be managed by setting limits on certain markets or products and by means of diversiﬁcation. Funding liquidity risk can be managed by proper planning of cash-ﬂow needs, by setting limits on cash ﬂow gaps, and by having a ro-

AM FL Y

bust plan in place for raising fresh funds should the need arise. Asset liquidity can be measured by a price-quantity function, which describes how the price is affected by the quantity transacted. Highly liquid assets, such as major currencies or Treasury bonds, are characterized by

Tightness, which is a measure of the divergence between actual transaction prices

TE

and quoted mid-market prices

Depth, which is a measure of the volume of trades possible without affecting prices too much (e.g. at the bid/offer prices), and is in contrast to thinness Resiliency, which is a measure of the speed at which price ﬂuctuations from trades are dissipated In contrast, illiquid markets are those where transactions can quickly affect prices. This includes assets such as exotic OTC derivatives or emerging-market equities, which have low trading volumes. All else equal, illiquid assets are more affected by current demand and supply conditions and are usually more volatile than liquid assets. Illiquidity is both asset-speciﬁc and market-wide. Large-scale changes in market liquidity seem to occur on a regular basis, most recently during the bond market rout of 1994 and the credit crisis of 1998. Such crises are characterized by a ﬂight to quality, which occurs when there is a shift in demand away from low-grade securities toward high-grade securities. The low-grade market then becomes illiquid with depressed prices. This is reﬂected in an increase in the yield spread between corporate and government issues.

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Even government securities can be affected differentially. The yield spread can widen between off-the-run securities and corresponding on-the-run securities. Onthe-run securities are those that are issued most recently and hence are more active and liquid. Other securities are called off-the-run. Consider, for instance, the latest issued 30-year U.S. Treasury bond. This benchmark bond is called on-the-run, until another 30-year bond is issued, at which time it becomes off-the-run. Because these securities are very similar in terms of market and credit risk, this yield spread is a measure of the liquidity premium.

Example 12-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 54/Market Risk 12-3. “Illiquid” describes an instrument that a) Does not trade in an active market b) Does not trade on any exchange c) Can not be easily hedged d) Is an over-the-counter (OTC) product Example 12-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Credit Risk 12-4. (This requires some knowledge of markets.) Which of the following products has the least liquidity? a) U.S. on-the-run Treasuries b) U.S. off-the-run Treasuries c) Floating-rate notes d) High-grade corporate bonds Example 12-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Capital Markets 12-5. A ﬁnance company is interested in managing its balance sheet liquidity risk (funding risk). The most productive means of accomplishing this is by a) Purchasing marketable securities b) Hedging the exposure with Eurodollar futures c) Diversifying its sources of funding d) Setting up a reserve

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Example 12-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 74/Market Risk 12-6. In a market crash the following are usually true? I. Fixed-income portfolios hedged with short U.S. government bonds and futures lose less than those hedged with interest rate swaps given equivalent durations. II. Bid offer spreads widen because of lower liquidity. III. The spreads between off-the-run bonds and benchmark issues widen. a) I, II & III b) II & III c) I & III d) None of the above Example 12-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 83/Market Risk 12-7. Which one of the following statements about liquidity risk in derivatives instruments is not true? a) Liquidity risk is the risk that an institution may not be able to, or cannot easily, unwind or offset a particular position at or near the previous market price because of inadequate market depth or disruptions in the marketplace. b) Liquidity risk is the risk that the institution will be unable to meet its payment obligations on settlement dates or in the event of margin calls. c) Early termination agreements can adversely impact liquidity because an institution may be required to deliver collateral or settle a contract early, possibly at a time when the institution may face other funding and liquidity pressures. d) An institution that participates in the exchange-traded derivatives markets has potential liquidity risks associated with the early termination of derivatives contracts.

12.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 12-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 16/Market Risk d) Speciﬁc risk represents the risk that is not correlated with market-wide movements. Example 12-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 122 b) Answer (c) is not correct since the correct market price can be set at expiration as a function of the underlying spot price. The main problem is that the delta changes very quickly close to expiration when the spot price hovers around the strike price. This high gamma feature makes it very difﬁcult to implement dynamic hedging of options with discontinuous payoffs, such as binary options.

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Example 12-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 54/Market Risk a) Illiquid instruments are ones that do not trade actively. Answers (b) and (d) are not correct as OTC products, which do not trade on exchanges, such as Treasuries, can be quite liquid. The lack of easy hedging alternatives does not imply the instrument itself is illiquid. Example 12-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 7/Credit Risk c) (This requires some knowledge of markets.) Ranking these assets in decreasing order of asset liquidity, we have (a), (b), (d), and (c). Floating-rate notes are typically issued in smaller amounts and have customized payment schedules. As a result, they are typically less liquid than the other securities. Example 12-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Capital Markets c) Managing balance-sheet liquidity risk involves the ability to meet cash-ﬂow needs as required. This can be met by keeping liquid assets or being able to raise fresh funds easily. Answer (a) is not correct because it substitutes cash for marketable securities, which is not an improvement. Hedging with Eurodollar futures does not decrease potential cash-ﬂow needs. Setting up a reserve is simply an accounting entry. Example 12-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 74/Market Risk b) In a crash, bid offer spreads widen, as do liquidity spreads. Answer I is incorrect because Treasuries usually rally more than swaps, which leads to greater losses for a portfolio short Treasuries than swaps. Example 12-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 83/Market Risk d) Answer (a) refers to asset liquidity risk; answers (b) and (c) to funding liquidity risk. Answer (d) is incorrect since exchange-traded derivatives are marked-to-market daily and hence can be terminated at any time without additional cash-ﬂow needs.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 13 Sources of Risk We now turn to a systematic analysis of the major ﬁnancial market risk factors. Currency, ﬁxed-income, equity, and commodities risk are analyzed in Sections 13.1, 13.2, 13.3, and 13.4, respectively. Currency risk refers to the volatility of ﬂoating exchange rates and devaluation risk, for ﬁxed currencies. Fixed-income risk relates to termstructure risk, global interest rate risk, real yield risk, credit spread risk, and prepayment risk. Equity risk can be described in terms of country risk, industry risk, and stock-speciﬁc risk. Commodity risk includes volatility risk, convenience yield risk, delivery and liquidity risk. These ﬁrst four sections are mainly descriptive. Finally, Section 13.5 discusses simpliﬁcations in risk models. We explain how the multitude of risk factors can be summarized into a few essential drivers. Such factor models include the diagonal model, which decomposes returns into a market-wide factor and residual risk.

13.1

Currency Risk

Currency risk arises from potential movements in the value of foreign currencies. This includes currency-speciﬁc volatility, correlations across currencies, and devaluation risk. Currency risk arises in the following environments. In a pure currency ﬂoat, the external value of a currency is free to move, to depreciate or appreciate, as pushed by market forces. An example is the dollar/euro exchange rate. In a ﬁxed currency system, a currency’s external value is ﬁxed (or pegged) to another currency. An example is the Hong Kong dollar, which is ﬁxed against the U.S. dollar. This does not mean there is no risk, however, due to possible readjustments in the parity value, called devaluations or revaluations. In a change in currency regime, a currency that was previously ﬁxed becomes ﬂexible, or vice versa. For instance, the Argentinian peso was ﬁxed against the dollar

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until 2001, and ﬂoated thereafter. Changes in regime can also lower currency risk, as in the recent case of the euro.1

13.1.1

Currency Volatility

Table 13-1 compares the RiskMetrics volatility forecasts for a group of 21 currencies.2 Ten of these correspond to “industrial countries,” the others to “emerging” markets. These numbers are standard deviations, adapted from value-at-risk (VAR) forecasts by dividing by 1.645. The table reports daily, monthly, and annualized (from monthly) standard deviations at the end of 2002 and 1996. Across developed TABLE 13-1 Currency Volatility Against U.S. Dollar (Percent) Currency/ Country Argentina Australia Canada Switzerland Denmark Britain Hong Kong Indonesia Japan Korea Mexico Malaysia Norway New Zealand Philippines Sweden Singapore Thailand Taiwan South Africa Euro

Code ARS AUD CAD CHF DKK GBP HKD IDR JPY KRW MXN MYR NOK NZD PHP SEK SGD THB TWD ZAR EUR

Daily 0.663 0.405 0.403 0.495 0.421 0.398 0.004 0.356 0.613 0.434 0.511 0.000 0.477 0.631 0.303 0.431 0.230 0.286 0.166 1.050 0.422

End 1999 Monthly Annual 3.746 12.98 2.310 8.00 1.863 6.45 2.664 9.23 2.275 7.88 2.165 7.50 0.016 0.05 2.344 8.12 3.051 10.57 2.279 7.89 2.615 9.06 0.001 0.01 2.608 9.03 3.140 10.88 1.423 4.93 2.366 8.20 1.304 4.52 1.544 5.35 0.981 3.40 4.915 17.03 2.284 7.91

End 1996 Annual 0.42 8.50 3.60 10.16 7.78 9.14 0.26 1.61 6.63 4.49 6.94 1.60 7.60 7.89 0.57 6.38 1.79 1.23 0.94 8.37 8.26

1

As of 2003, the Eurozone includes a block of 12 countries, Austria, Belgium/Luxembourg, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Italy, Netherlands, Portugal, and Spain. Greece joined on January 1, 2001. Currency risk is not totally eliminated, however, as there is always a possibility that the currency union could dissolve. 2 For updates, see www.riskmetrics.com.

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markets, volatility typically ranges from 6 to 11 percent per annum. The Canadian dollar is notably lower at 4–5 percent volatility. Some currencies, such as the Hong Kong dollar have very low volatility, reﬂecting their pegging to the dollar. This does not mean that they have low risk, however. They are subject to devaluation risk, which is the risk that the currency peg could fail. This has happened to Thailand and Indonesia, which in 1996 had low volatility but converted to a ﬂoating exchange rate regime, which had higher volatility in 2002. Example 13-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Market Risk 13-1. Which currency pair would you expect to have the lowest volatility? a) USD/EUR b) USD/CAD c) USD/JPY d) USD/MXN

13.1.2

Correlations

Next, we brieﬂy describe the correlations between these currencies against the U.S. dollar. Generally, correlations are low, mostly in the range of -0.10 to 0.20. This indicates substantial beneﬁts from holding a well-diversiﬁed currency portfolio. There are, however, blocks of currencies with very high correlations. European currencies, such as the DKK, SEK, NOK, CHF, have high correlation with each other and the Euro, on the order of 0.90. The GBP also has high correlations with European currencies, around 0.60-0.70. As a result, investing across European currencies does little to diversify risk, from the viewpoint of a U.S. dollar-based investor.

13.1.3

Devaluation Risk

Next, we examine the typical impact of a currency devaluation, which is illustrated in Figure 13-1. Each currency has been scaled to a unit value at the end of the month just before the devaluation. In previous months, we observe only small variations in exchange rates. In contrast, the devaluation itself leads to a dramatic drop in value ranging from 20% to an extreme 80% in the case of the rupiah. Currency risk is also related to other ﬁnancial risks, in particular interest rate risk. Often, interest rates are raised in an effort to stem the depreciation of a currency, resulting in a positive correlation between the currency and the bond market. These interactions should be taken into account when designing scenarios for stress-tests.

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FIGURE 13-1 Effect of Currency Devaluation 1.2

Currency value index

1.1 1 0.9

Brazil: Jan-99

0.8 Thailand: July-97

0.7 0.6 0.5

Mexico: December-94

0.4 0.3

Indonesia: August-97

0.2 0.1 0

–12 –11–10–9 –8 –7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Month around devaluation

13.1.4

Cross-Rate Volatility

Exchange rates are expressed relative to a base currency, usually the dollar. The cross rate is the exchange rate between two currencies other than the reference currency. For instance, say that S1 represents the dollar/pound rate and that S2 represents the dollar/euro (EUR) rate. Then the euro/pound rate is given by the ratio S3 (EUR 冫 BP ) ⳱

S1 ($冫 BP ) S2 ($冫 EUR )

(13.1)

Using logs, we can write ln[S3 ] ⳱ ln[S1 ] ⫺ ln[S2 ]

(13.2)

The volatility of the cross rate is σ32 ⳱ σ12 Ⳮ σ22 ⫺ 2ρ12 σ1 σ2

(13.3)

Thus we could infer the correlation from the triplet of variances. Note that this assumes both the numerator and denominator are in the same currency. Otherwise, the log of the cross rate is the sum of the logs, and the negative sign in Equation (13.3) must be changed to a positive sign.

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Example 13-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 14/Market Risk 13-2. What is the implied correlation between JPY/EUR and EUR/USD when given the following volatilities for foreign exchange rates? JPY/USD at 8% JPY/EUR at 10% EUR/USD at 6%. a) 60% b) 30% c) ⫺30% d) ⫺60%

13.2

Fixed-Income Risk

Fixed-income risk arises from potential movements in the level and volatility of bond yields. Figure 13-2 plots U.S. Treasury yields on a typical range of maturities at monthly intervals since 1986. The graph shows that yield curves move in complicated fashion, which creates yield curve risk.

13.2.1

Factors Affecting Yields

Yield volatility reﬂects economic fundamentals. For a long time, the primary determinant of movements in interest rates was inﬂationary expectations. Any perceived FIGURE 13-2 Movements in the U.S. Yield Curve Yield 10 9 8 7 6 5

2 1 30Y

Dec-01

0 Dec-02 3mo 3Y

Dec-00

Date

3

Dec-99

Dec-86 Dec-87 Dec-88 Dec-89 Dec-90 Dec-91 Dec-92 Dec-93 Dec-94 Dec-95 Dec-96 Dec-97 Dec-98

4

Maturity

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FIGURE 13-3 Inﬂation and Interest Rates Rate (% pa) 20

15

10 3-month interest rate 5 Inflation 0 1960

1970

1980

1990

2000

AM FL Y

increase in the predicted rate of inﬂation will make bonds with ﬁxed nominal coupons less attractive, thereby increasing their yield.

Figure 13-3 compares the level of short-term U.S. interest rates with the concurrent level of inﬂation. The graphs show that most of the movements in nominal rates can be explained by inﬂation. In more recent years, however, inﬂation has been subdued.

TE

Figure 13-2 has shown complex movements in the term structure of interest rates. It would be convenient if these movements could be summarized by a small number of variables. In practice, market observers focus on a long-term rate (say the yield on the 10-year note) and a short-term rate (say the yield on a 3-month bill). These two rates usefully summarize movements in the term structure, which are displayed in Figure 13-4. Shaded areas indicate periods of U.S. economic recessions. FIGURE 13-4 Movements in the Term Structure Yield (% pa) 20 Shaded areas indicate recessions 15

Long-term T-bonds

10

5 3-month T-bills 0 1960

1970

1980

1990

2000

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FIGURE 13-5 Term Structure Spread 4

Term spread (% pa)

3 2 1 0 -1 Shaded areas indicate recessions

-2 -3 -4 1960

1970

1980

1990

2000

Generally, the two rates move in tandem, although the short-term rate displays more variability. The term spread is deﬁned as the difference between the long rate and the short rate. Figure 13-5 relates the term spread to economic activity. As the graph shows, periods of recessions usually witness an increase in the term spread. Slow economic activity decreases the demand for capital, which in turn decreases short-term rates and increases the term spread.

13.2.2

Bond Price and Yield Volatility

Table 13-2 compares the RiskMetrics volatility forecasts for U.S. bond prices. The data are recorded as of December 31, 2002 and December 31, 1996. The table includes Eurodeposits, ﬁxed swap rates, and zero-coupon Treasury rates, for maturities ranging from 30 day to 30 years. Volatilities are reported at a daily and monthly horizon. Monthly volatilities are also annualized by multiplying by the square root of twelve. Short-term deposits have very little price risk. Volatility increases with maturity. The price risk of 10-year bonds is around 10% annually, which is similar to that of ﬂoating currencies. The risk of 30-year bonds is higher, at 20-30%, which is similar to that of equities. Risk can be measured as either return volatility or yield volatility. Using the duration approximation, the volatility of the rate of return in the bond price is σ

⌬P

冢 P 冣 ⳱兩 D

ⴱ

兩 ⫻ σ (⌬y )

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PART III: MARKET RISK MANAGEMENT TABLE 13-2 U.S. Type/ Code Maturity Euro-30d R030 Euro-90d R090 Euro-180d R180 Euro-360d R360 Swap-2Y S02 Swap-3Y S03 Swap-4Y S04 Swap-5Y S05 Swap-7Y S07 Swap-10Y S10 Zero-2Y Z02 Zero-3Y Z03 Zero-4Y Z04 Zero-5Y Z05 Zero-7Y Z07 Zero-9Y Z09 Zero-10Y Z10 Zero-15Y Z15 Zero-20Y Z20 Zero-30Y Z30

Fixed-Income Yield Level Daily 1.360 0.002 1.353 0.005 1.348 0.009 1.429 0.030 1.895 0.110 2.428 0.184 2.865 0.257 3.224 0.329 3.815 0.454 4.434 0.643 1.593 0.107 1.980 0.172 2.372 0.248 2.773 0.339 3.238 0.458 3.752 0.576 3.989 0.637 4.247 0.894 4.565 1.132 5.450 1.692

Price Volatility (Percent) End 2002 End 1996 Mty Annual Annual 0.012 0.04 0.05 0.030 0.10 0.08 0.064 0.22 0.19 0.188 0.65 0.58 0.634 2.20 1.57 1.027 3.56 2.59 1.429 4.95 3.59 1.836 6.36 4.70 2.535 8.78 6.69 3.613 12.52 9.82 0.631 2.18 1.64 0.999 3.46 2.64 1.428 4.95 3.69 1.935 6.70 4.67 2.603 9.02 6.81 3.259 11.29 8.64 3.600 12.47 9.31 5.018 17.38 13.82 6.292 21.80 17.48 9.170 31.77 23.53

Here, we took the absolute value of duration since the volatility of returns and of yield changes must be positive. Price volatility nearly always increases with duration. Yield volatility, on the other hand, may be more intuitive because it corresponds to the usual representation of the term structure of interest rates. When changes in yields are normally distributed, the term σ (⌬y ) is constant: This is the normal model. Instead, RiskMetrics reports a volatility of relative changes in yields, where σ ( ⌬yy ) is constant: This is the lognormal model. The RiskMetrics forecast can be converted into the usual volatility of yield changes: σ (⌬y ) ⳱ y ⫻ σ (⌬y 冫 y )

(13.5)

Table 13-3 displays volatilities of relative and absolute yield changes. Yield volatility for swaps and zeros is much more constant across maturity, ranging from 0.9 to 1.2 percent per annum. It should be noted that the square root of time adjustment for the volatility is more questionable for bond prices than for most other assets because bond prices must converge to their face value as maturity nears (barring default). This effect is important for short-term bonds, whose return volatility pattern is distorted by the

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TABLE 13-3 Type/ Code Maturity Euro-30d R030 Euro-90d R090 Euro-180d R180 Euro-360d R360 Swap-2Y S02 Swap-3Y S03 Swap-4Y S04 Swap-5Y S05 Swap-7Y S07 Swap-10Y S10 Zero-2Y Z02 Zero-3Y Z03 Zero-4Y Z04 Zero-5Y Z05 Zero-7Y Z07 Zero-9Y Z09 Zero-10Y Z10 Zero-15Y Z15 Zero-20Y Z20 Zero-30Y Z30

U.S. Fixed-Income Yield Yield σ (dy 冫 y ) Level Daily Mty 1.360 1.580 9.584 1.353 1.240 7.866 1.348 1.267 8.321 1.429 1.883 11.177 1.895 2.546 13.993 2.428 2.264 12.247 2.865 2.061 11.158 3.224 1.901 10.370 3.815 1.619 8.883 4.434 1.409 7.827 1.593 2.916 16.576 1.980 2.583 14.681 2.372 2.384 13.541 2.773 2.263 12.847 3.238 1.913 10.825 3.752 1.650 9.309 3.989 1.556 8.766 4.247 1.376 7.694 4.565 1.223 6.776 5.450 1.037 5.603

289 Volatility, 2002 (Percent) σ (dy ) Annual Daily Mty Annual 33.20 0.021 0.130 0.45 27.25 0.017 0.106 0.37 28.83 0.017 0.112 0.39 38.72 0.027 0.160 0.55 48.47 0.048 0.265 0.92 42.42 0.055 0.297 1.03 38.65 0.059 0.320 1.11 35.92 0.061 0.334 1.16 30.77 0.062 0.339 1.17 27.11 0.062 0.347 1.20 57.42 0.046 0.264 0.91 50.86 0.051 0.291 1.01 46.91 0.057 0.321 1.11 44.50 0.063 0.356 1.23 37.50 0.062 0.351 1.21 32.25 0.062 0.349 1.21 30.37 0.062 0.350 1.21 26.65 0.058 0.327 1.13 23.47 0.056 0.309 1.07 19.41 0.057 0.305 1.06

convergence to face value. It is less of an issue, however, for long-term bonds, as long as the horizon is much shorter than the bond maturity. This explains why the volatility of short-term Eurodeposits appears to be out of line with the others. The concept of monthly risk of a 30-day deposit is indeed fuzzy, since by the end of the VAR horizon, the deposit will have matured, having therefore zero risk. Instead this can be interpreted as an investment in a 30-day deposit that is held for one day only and rolled over the next day into a fresh 30-day deposit. Example 13-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 86/Market Risk 13-3. For purposes of computing the market risk of a U.S. Treasury bond portfolio, it is easiest to measure a) Yield volatility because yields have positive skewness b) Price volatility because bond prices are positively correlated c) Yield volatility for bonds sold at a discount and price volatility for bonds sold at a premium to par d) Yield volatility because it remains more constant over time than price volatility, which must approach zero as the bond approaches maturity

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Example 13-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 80/Market Risk 13-4. BankEurope has a $20,000,000.00 position in the 6.375% AUG 2027 US Treasury Bond. The details on the bond are Market Price 98 8/32 Accrued 1.43% Yield 6.509% Duration 13.133 Modiﬁed duration 12.719 Yield volatility 12% What is the daily VAR of this position at the 95% conﬁdence level (assume there are 250 business days in a year)? a) $291,400 b) $203,080 c) $206,036 d) $206,698

13.2.3

Correlations

Table 13-4 displays correlation coefﬁcients for all maturity pairs at a 1-day horizon. First, it should be noted that the Eurodeposit block behaves somewhat differently from the zero-coupon Treasury block. Correlations between these two blocks are relatively lower than others. This is because Eurodeposit rates contain credit risk. Variations in the credit spread will create additional noise relative to movements among pure Treasury yield. Within each block, correlations are generally very high, suggesting that yields are affected by a common factor. If the yield curve were to move in strict parallel fashion, all correlations should be equal to one. In practice, the yield curve displays more comTABLE 13-4 U.S. Fixed-Income Price Correlations, 2002 (Daily) R030 R090 R180 R360 Z02 Z03 Z04 Z05 Z07 Z09 Z10 Z15 Z20 Z30

R030

R090

R180

R360

Z02

Z03

Z04

Z05

Z07

1.000 0.786 0.690 0.372 0.142 0.121 0.100 0.080 0.098 0.117 0.143 0.123 0.098 0.022

1.000 0.894 0.544 0.299 0.269 0.237 0.206 0.219 0.231 0.251 0.226 0.193 0.082

1.000 0.814 0.614 0.592 0.563 0.532 0.534 0.530 0.534 0.509 0.471 0.318

1.000 0.840 0.836 0.820 0.797 0.794 0.783 0.772 0.754 0.720 0.554

1.000 0.992 0.972 0.943 0.933 0.912 0.890 0.863 0.817 0.601

1.000 0.994 0.977 0.969 0.949 0.928 0.906 0.865 0.663

1.000 0.995 0.988 0.970 0.950 0.933 0.898 0.709

1.000 0.995 0.979 0.959 0.946 0.916 0.743

1.000 0.994 0.982 0.973 0.948 0.789

Z09

Z10

Z15

Z20

1.000 0.997 1.000 0.991 0.996 1.000 0.971 0.980 0.994 0.827 0.848 0.889

1.000 0.935

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plex patterns but remains relatively smooth. This implies that movements in adjoining maturities are highly correlated. For instance, the correlation between the 9-year zero and 10-year zero is 0.997, which is very high. zero is not very Correlations are the lowest for maturities further apart, for instance 0.601 between the 2-year and 30-year zero. These high correlations give risk managers an opportunity to simplify the number of risk factors they have to deal with. Suppose, for instance, that the portfolio consists of global bonds in 17 different currencies. Initially, the risk manager decides to keep 14 risk factors in each market. This leads to a very large number of correlations within, but also across all markets. With 17 currencies, and 14 maturities, for instance, the total number of assets is n ⳱ 17 ⫻ 14 ⳱ 238. The correlation matrix has n ⫻ (n ⫺ 1) ⳱ 238 ⫻ 237 ⳱ 56,406 elements off the diagonal. Surely some of this information is superﬂuous. The matrix in Table 13-4 can be simpliﬁed using principal components. Principal components is a statistical technique that extracts linear combinations of the original variables that explain the highest proportion of diagonal components of the matrix. For this matrix, the ﬁrst principal component explains 94% of the total variance and has similar weights on all maturities. Hence, it could be called a level risk factor. The second principal component explains 4% of the total variance. As it is associated with opposite positions on short and long maturities, it could be called a slope risk factor (or twist). Sometimes a third factor is found that represents curvature risk factor, or a bend risk factor (also called a butterﬂy). Previous research has indeed found that, in the United States and other ﬁxedincome markets, movements in yields could be usefully summarized by two to three factors that typically explain over 95 percent of the total variance. Example 13-5: FRM Exam 2000----Question 96/Market Risk 13-5. Which one of the following statements about historic U.S. Treasury yield curve changes is true? a) Changes in long-term yields tend to be larger than in short-term yields. b) Changes in long-term yields tend to be of approximately the same size as changes in short-term yields. c) The same size yield change in both long-term and short-term rates tends to produce a larger price change in short-term instruments when all securities are trading near par. d) The largest part of total return variability of spot rates is due to parallel changes with a smaller portion due to slope changes and the residual due to curvature changes.

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Global Interest Rate Risk

Different ﬁxed-income markets create their own sources of risk. Volatility patterns, however, are similar across the globe. To illustrate, Table 13-5 shows price and yield volatilities for 17 ﬁxed-income markets, focusing only on 10-year zeros. The level of yields falls within a remarkably narrow range, 4 to 6 percent. This reﬂects the fact that yields are primarily driven by inﬂationary expectations, which have become similar across all these markets. Indeed central banks across all these countries have proved their common determination to keep inﬂation in check. Two notable exceptions are South Africa, where yields are at 10.7% and Japan where yields are at 0.9%. These two countries are experiencing much higher and lower inﬂation, respectively, than the rest of the group. The table also shows that most countries have an annual volatility of yield changes around 0.6 to 1.2 percent. Again, Japan is an exception, which suggests that the volatility of yields is not independent of the level of yields. In fact, we would expect this volatility to decrease as yields drop toward zero and to be higher when yields are higher. The Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (1985) model TABLE 13-5 Global Fixed-Income Volatility, 2002 (Percent) Country

Code

Austrl. Belgium Canada Germany Denmark Spain France Britain Ireland Italy Japan Nether. New Zl. Sweden U.S. S.Afr. Euro

AUD BEF CAD DEM DKK ESP FRF GBP IEP ITL JPY NLG NZD SEK USD ZAR EUR

Yield Level 5.236 4.453 4.950 4.306 4.563 4.399 4.383 4.415 4.456 4.582 0.918 4.335 6.148 4.812 3.989 10.650 4.306

Daily 0.676 0.352 0.426 0.349 0.307 0.359 0.351 0.333 0.353 0.348 0.171 0.356 0.477 0.361 0.637 0.535 0.352

Price Vol. Mty Annual 3.660 12.68 1.995 6.91 2.438 8.45 1.967 6.81 1.765 6.12 2.024 7.01 1.952 6.76 1.848 6.40 1.950 6.75 1.999 6.93 1.153 3.99 1.985 6.88 2.741 9.49 2.055 7.12 3.600 12.47 3.358 11.63 1.978 6.85

Yield Vol. σ (dy ) Daily Mty Annual 0.066 0.353 1.22 0.035 0.196 0.68 0.042 0.237 0.82 0.035 0.194 0.67 0.031 0.174 0.60 0.036 0.198 0.69 0.035 0.192 0.67 0.033 0.181 0.63 0.035 0.191 0.66 0.034 0.194 0.67 0.015 0.096 0.33 0.035 0.194 0.67 0.047 0.272 0.94 0.036 0.204 0.71 0.062 0.350 1.21 0.055 0.337 1.17 0.035 0.195 0.68

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of the term structure (CIR), for instance, posits that movements in yields should be proportional to the square root of the yield level: σ

冢 冣

⌬y ⳱ constant 冪y

(13.6)

Thus neither the normal nor the lognormal model is totally appropriate. Finally, correlations are very high across continental European bond markets that are part of the euro. For example, the correlation between French and German bonds is above 0.975. These markets are now moving in synchronization, as monetary policy is dictated by the European Central Bank (ECB). Eurozone bonds only differ in terms of credit risk. Otherwise, correlations across other bond markets are in the range of 0.00 to 0.50. The correlation between US and yen bonds is very small; US and German bonds have a correlation close to 0.71.

13.2.5

Real Yield Risk

So far, the analysis has only considered nominal interest rate risk, as most bonds represent obligations in nominal terms, i.e. in dollars for the coupon and principal payment. Recently, however, many countries have issued inﬂation-protected bonds, which make payments that are ﬁxed in real terms but indexed to the rate of inﬂation. In this case, the source of risk is real interest rate risk. This real yield can be viewed as the internal rate of return that will make the discounted value of promised real bond payments equal to the current real price. This is a new source of risk, as movements in real interest rates may not correlate perfectly with movements in nominal yields.

Example: Real and Nominal Yields Consider for example the 10-year Treasury Inﬂation Protected (TIP) note paying a 3% coupon in real terms. coupons are paid semiannually. The actual coupon and principal payments are indexed to the increase in Consumer Price Index (CPI). The TIP is now trading at a clean real price of 108-23+. Discounting the coupon payments and the principal gives a real yield of r ⳱ 1.98%. Note that since the bond is trading at a premium, the real yield must be lower than the coupon. Projecting the rate of inﬂation at π ⳱ 2%, semiannually compounded, we infer the projected nominal yield as (1 Ⳮ y 冫 200) ⳱ (1 Ⳮ r 冫 200)(1 Ⳮ π 冫 200), which gives 4.00%. This is the same order of magnitude as the current nominal yield on the

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10-year Treasury note, which is 3.95%. The two bonds have a very different risk proﬁle, however. If the rate of inﬂation is 5% instead of 2%, the TIP will pay approximately 5% plus 2%, while the yield on the regular note is predetermined. Example 13-6: FRM Exam 1997----Question 42/Market Risk 13-6. What is the relationship between yield on the current inﬂation-proof bond issued by the U.S. Treasury and a standard Treasury bond with similar terms? a) The yields should be about the same. b) The yield of the inﬂation bond should be approximately the yield on the treasury minus the real interest. c) The yield of the inﬂation bond should be approximately the yield on the treasury plus the real interest. d) None of the above is correct.

13.2.6

Credit Spread Risk

Credit spread risk is the risk that yields on duration-matched credit-sensitive bond and Treasury bonds could move differently. The topic of credit risk will be analyzed in more detail in the “Credit Risk” section of this book. Sufﬁce to say that the credit spread represent a compensation for the loss due to default, plus perhaps a risk premium that reﬂects investor risk aversion. A position in a credit spread can be established by investing in credit-sensitive bonds, such as corporates, agencies, mortgage-backed securities (MBSs), and shorting Treasuries with the appropriate duration. This type of position beneﬁts from a stable or shrinking credit spread, but loses from a widening of spreads. Because credit spreads cannot turn negative, their distribution is asymmetric, however. When spreads are tight, large moves imply increases in spreads rather than decreases. Thus positions in credit spreads can be exposed to large losses. Figure 13-6 displays the time-series of credit spreads since 1960. The graph shows that credit spreads display cyclical patterns, increasing during a recession and decreasing during economic expansions. Greater spreads during recessions reﬂect the greater number of defaults during difﬁcult times. Because credit spreads cannot turn negative, their distribution is asymmetric. When spreads are tight, large moves are typically increases, rather than decreases.

13.2.7

Prepayment Risk

Prepayment risk arises in the context of home mortgages when there is uncertainty

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FIGURE 13-6 Credit Spreads Credit spread (% pa) 4

3

2

1 Shaded areas indicate recessions 0 1960

1970

1980

1990

2000

about whether the homeowner will reﬁnance his loan early. It is a prominent feature of mortgage-backed securities the investor has granted the borrower an option to repay the debt early. This option, however, is much more complex than an ordinary option, due to the multiplicity of factors involved. We have seen in Chapter 7 that it depends on the age of the loan (seasoning), the current level of interest rates, the previous path of interest rates (burnout), economic activity, and seasonal patterns. Assuming that the prepayment model adequately captures all these features, investors can evaluate the attractiveness of MBSs by calculating their option-adjusted spread (OAS). This represents the spread over the equivalent Treasury minus the cost of the option component. Example 13-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 71/Market Risk 13-7. An investor holds mortgage interest-only strips (IO) backed by Fannie Mae 7 percent coupon. She wants to hedge this position by shorting Treasury interest strips off the 10-year on-the-run. The curve steepens as the 1-month rate drops, while the 6-month to 10-year rates remain stable. What will be the effect on the value of this portfolio? a) Both the IO and the hedge will appreciate in value. b) The IO and the hedge value will be almost unchanged (a very small appreciation is possible). c) The change in value of both the IO and hedge cannot be determined without additional details. d) The IO will depreciate, but the hedge will appreciate.

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Example 13-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 73/Market Risk 13-8. A fund manager attempting to beat his LIBOR-based funding costs, holds pools of adjustable rate mortgages (ARMs) and is considering various strategies to lower the risk. Which of the following strategies will not lower the risk? a) Enter into a total rate of return swap swapping the ARMs for LIBOR plus a spread. b) Short U.S. government Treasuries. c) Sell caps based on the projected rate of mortgage paydown. d) All of the above.

13.3

Equity Risk

AM FL Y

Equity risk arises from potential movements in the value of stock prices. We will show that we can usefully decompose the total risk into a marketwide risk and stockspeciﬁc risk.

13.3.1

Stock Market Volatility

TE

Table 13-6 compares the RiskMetrics volatility forecasts for a group of 31 stock markets. The selected indices are those most recognized in each market, for example the S&P 500 in the US, Nikkei 225 in Japan, and FTSE-100 in Britain. Most of these have an associated futures contract, so positions can be taken in cash markets or, equivalently, in futures. Nearly all of these indices are weighted by market capitalization. We immediately note that risk is much greater than for currencies, typically ranging from 12 to 40 percent. Emerging markets have higher volatility. These markets are less diversiﬁed and are exposed to greater ﬂuctuations in economic fundamentals. Concentration refers to the proportion of the index due to the biggest stocks. In Finland, for instance, half of the index represents one ﬁrm only, Nokia. This lack of diversiﬁcation invariably creates more volatility.

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TABLE 13-6 Stock Market Code Country Argentina ARS Austria ATS Australia AUD Belgium BEF Canada CAD Switzerland CHF Germany DEM Denmark DKK Spain ESP Finland FIM France FRF Britain GBP Hong Kong HKD Indonesia IDR Ireland IEP Italy ITL Japan JPY Korea KRW Mexico MXN Malaysia MYR Netherlands NLG Norway NOK New Zealand NZD Philippines PHP Portugal PTE Sweden SEK Singapore SGD Thailand THB Taiwan TWD U.S. USD South Africa ZAR

Equity Volatility (Percent) End 2002 End 1996 Daily Monthly Annual Annual 1.921 10.06 34.8 22.1 0.771 4.17 14.4 11.7 0.662 3.58 12.4 13.4 1.453 8.41 29.1 9.3 0.841 5.09 17.6 13.8 1.401 8.34 28.9 11.1 2.576 13.89 48.1 18.6 1.062 6.77 23.5 12.5 1.497 8.81 30.5 15.0 1.790 10.65 36.9 14.5 1.691 10.59 36.7 16.1 1.498 8.41 29.1 11.1 1.007 5.57 19.3 17.3 1.218 7.45 25.8 14.4 1.081 6.53 22.6 10.0 1.575 9.07 31.4 17.0 1.299 7.18 24.9 19.9 1.861 9.40 32.6 25.5 0.925 5.87 20.3 17.5 0.709 3.81 13.2 12.7 1.911 11.55 40.0 14.8 1.160 6.80 23.5 13.3 0.480 2.79 9.7 10.1 0.807 4.49 15.6 16.2 0.879 5.82 20.2 6.9 1.612 9.91 34.3 16.9 0.817 4.72 16.4 11.9 0.680 4.39 15.2 29.7 1.317 7.72 26.7 15.3 1.214 7.42 25.7 12.9 0.023 0.72 2.5 11.9

Example 13-9: FRM Exam 1997----Question 43/Market Risk 13-9. Which of the following statements about the S&P 500 index is true? I. The index is calculated using market prices as weights. II. The implied volatilities of options of the same maturity on the index are different. III. The stocks used in calculating the index remain the same for each year. IV. The S&P 500 represents only the 500 largest U.S. corporations. a) II only b) I and II only c) II and III only d) III and IV only

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Forwards and Futures

The forward or futures price on a stock index or individual stock can be expressed as Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St e⫺yτ

(13.7)

where e⫺r τ is the present value factor in the base currency and e⫺yτ is the discounted value of dividends. For the stock index, this is usually approximated by the dividend yield y , which is taken to be paid continuously as there are many stocks in the index (even though dividend payments may be “lumpy” over the quarter). For an individual stock, we can write the right-hand side as St e⫺yτ ⳱ St ⫺ I , where I is the present value of dividend payments. Example 13-10: FRM Exam 1997----Question 44/Market Risk 13-10. A trader runs a cash and future arbitrage book on the S&P 500 index. Which of the following are the major risk factors? I. Interest rate II. Foreign exchange III. Equity price IV. Dividend assumption risk a) I and II only b) I and III only c) I, III, and IV only d) I, II, III, and IV

13.4

Commodity Risk

Commodity risk arises from potential movements in the value of commodity contracts, which include agricultural products, metals, and energy products.

13.4.1

Commodity Volatility Risk

Table 13-7 displays the volatility of the commodity contracts currently covered by the RiskMetrics system. These can be grouped into base metals (aluminum, copper, nickel, zinc), precious metals (gold, platinum, silver), and energy products (natural gas, heating oil, unleaded gasoline, crude oil–West Texas Intermediate). Among base metals, spot volatility ranged from 13 to 28 percent per annum in 2002, on the same order of magnitude as equity markets. Precious metals are in the

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TABLE 13-7 Commodity Volatility (Percent) Commodity Term Aluminium, spot 3-month 15-month 27-month Copper, spot 3-month 15-month 27-month Nickel, spot 3-month 15-month Zinc, spot 3-month 15-month 27-month Gold, spot Platinum, spot Silver, spot Natural gas, 1m 3-month 15-month 27-month Heating oil, 1m 3-month 6-month 12-month Unleaded gas, 1m 3-month 6-month Crude oil, 1m 3-month 5-month 12-month

Code ALU.C00 ALU.C03 ALU.C15 ALU.C27 COP.C00 COP.C03 COP.C15 COP.C27 NIC.C00 NIC.C03 NIC.C15 ZNC.C00 ZNC.C03 ZNC.C15 ZNC.C27 GLD.C00 PLA.C00 SLV.C00 GAS.C01 GAS.C03 GAS.C06 GAS.C12 HTO.C01 HTO.C03 HTO.C06 HTO.C12 UNL.C01 UNL.C03 UNL.C06 WTI.C01 WTI.C03 WTI.C06 WTI.C12

Daily 0.702 0.621 0.528 0.493 0.850 0.824 0.788 0.736 1.451 1.392 1.202 1.118 1.060 0.895 0.841 0.969 0.811 1.095 2.882 2.846 1.343 1.145 2.196 1.905 1.489 1.284 2.859 2.132 1.665 2.147 1.885 1.621 1.296

End 2002 Monthly Annual 3.85 13.3 3.46 12.0 2.99 10.3 2.72 9.4 4.45 15.4 4.30 14.9 4.04 14.0 3.84 13.3 8.11 28.1 7.78 27.0 7.07 24.5 5.56 19.3 5.22 18.1 4.41 15.3 4.11 14.2 4.41 15.3 4.54 15.7 5.12 17.7 15.66 54.3 13.56 47.0 7.62 26.4 6.48 22.5 10.39 36.0 9.24 32.0 7.46 25.9 6.07 21.0 14.08 48.8 9.85 34.1 8.01 27.7 10.11 35.0 8.87 30.7 7.54 26.1 6.02 20.8

End 1996 Annual 16.8 15.8 13.9 13.5 35.4 24.9 21.5 22.7 22.7 22.1 22.7 12.4 11.5 11.6 13.1 5.5 6.5 18.1 95.8 55.2 34.4 25.7 34.4 26.2 23.5 22.7 31.0 26.2 23.5 32.8 29.6 28.1 28.9

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same range. Energy products, in contrast, are much more volatile with numbers ranging from 35 to a high of 53 percent per annum in 2002. This is due to the fact that energy products are less storable than metals and, as a result, are much more affected by variations in demand and supply.

13.4.2

Forwards and Futures

The forward or futures price on a commodity can be expressed as Ft e⫺r τ ⳱ St e⫺yτ

(13.8)

where e⫺r τ is the present value factor in the base currency and e⫺yτ includes a convenience yield y (net of storage cost). This represents an implicit ﬂow beneﬁt from holding the commodity, as was explained in Chapter 6. While this convenience yield is conceptually similar to that of a dividend yield on a stock index, it cannot be measured as regular income. Rather, it should be viewed as a “plug-in” that, given F , S , and e⫺r τ , will make Equation (13.8) balance. Further, it can be quite volatile. As Table 13-7 shows, forward prices for all these commodities are less volatile for longer maturities. This decreasing term structure of volatility is more marked for energy products and less so for base metals. Forward prices are not reported for precious metals. Their low storage costs and no convenience yields implies stable volatilities across contract maturities, as for currency forwards. In terms of risk management, movements in futures prices are much less tightly related to spot prices than for ﬁnancial contracts. This is illustrated in Table 13-8, which displays correlations for copper contracts (spot, 3-, 15-, 27-month) as well as for natural gas and crude oil contracts (1-, 3-, 6-, 12-month). For copper, the cash/15month correlation is 0.995. For natural gas and oil, the 1-month/12-month correlation is 0.575 and 0.787, respectively. These are much lower numbers. Thus variations in the basis are much more important for energy products than for ﬁnancial products, or even metals. This is conﬁrmed by Figure 13-7, which compares the spot and futures prices for crude oil. Recall that the graph describing stock index futures in Chapter 5 showed the future to be systematically above, and converging to, the cash price. Here the picture is totally different. There is much more variation in the basis between the spot and futures prices for crude oil. The market switches from backwardation (S ⬎ F ) to contango (S ⬍ F ). As a result, the futures contract represents a separate risk factor.

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TABLE 13-8 Correlations across Maturities Copper COP.C00 COP.C03 COP.C15 COP.C27 Nat.Gas GAS.C01 GAS.C03 GAS.C06 GAS.C12 Crude Oil WTI.C01 WTI.C03 WTI.C06 WTI.C12

COP.C00 1 .999 .995 .992 GAS.C01 1 .860 .718 .575 WTI.C01 1 .960 .904 .787

COP.C03

COP.C15

COP.C27

1 .995 .993 GAS.C03

1 .998 GAS.C06

1 GAS.C12

1 .734 .445 WTI.C03

1 .852 WTI.C06

1 WTI.C12

1 .973 .871

1 .954

1

FIGURE 13-7 Futures and Spot for Crude Oil $35

Price ($/barrel)

$30 Cash $25 Futures $20

$15 –500

13.4.3

–400

–300 –200 Days to expiration

–100

0

Delivery and Liquidity Risk

In addition to traditional market sources of risk, positions in commodity futures are also exposed to delivery and liquidity risks. Asset liquidity risk is due to the relative low volume in some of these markets, relative to other ﬁnancial products. Also, taking delivery or having to deliver on a futures contract that is carried to expiration is costly. Transportation, storage and insurance costs can be quite high.

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Futures delivery also requires complying with the type and location of the commodity that is to be delivered. Example 13-11: FRM Exam 1997----Question 12/Market Risk 13-11. Which of the following products should have the highest expected volatility? a) Crude oil b) Gold c) Japanese Treasury Bills d) EUR/CHF Example 13-12: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Market Risk 13-12. Identify the major risks of being short $50 million of gold two weeks forward and being long $50 million of gold one year forward. I. Gold liquidity squeeze II. Spot risk III. Gold lease rate risk IV. USD interest rate risk a) II only b) I, II, and III only c) I, III, and IV only d) I, II, III, and IV

13.5

Risk Simpliﬁcation

The fundamental idea behind modern risk measurement methods is to aggregate the portfolio risk at the highest level. In practice, it would be too complex to model each of them individually. Instead, some simpliﬁcation is required, such as the diagonal model proposed by Professor William Sharpe. This was initially applied to stocks, but the methodology can be used in any market.

13.5.1

Diagonal Model

The diagonal model starts with a statistical decomposition of the return on stock i into a marketwide return and an idiosyncratic risk. The diagonal model adds the assumption that all speciﬁc risks are uncorrelated. Hence, any correlation across two stocks must come from the joint effect of the market.

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We decompose the return on stock i , Ri , into a constant; a component due to the market, RM , through a “beta” coefﬁcient; and some residual risk: Ri ⳱ αi Ⳮ βi ⫻ RM Ⳮ i

(13.9)

where βi is called systematic risk of stock i . It is also the regression slope ratio: βi ⳱

σ (Ri ) Cov[Ri , RM ] ⳱ ρiM V [RM ] σ (RM )

(13.10)

Note that the residual is uncorrelated with RM by assumption. The contribution of William Sharpe was to show that equilibrium in capital markets imposes restrictions on the αi . If we redeﬁne returns in excess of the risk-free rate, Rf , we have E (Ri ) ⫺ Rf ⳱ 0 Ⳮ βi [E (RM ) ⫺ Rf ]

(13.11)

This relationship is also known as the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). So, αs should be zero in equilibrium. The CAPM is based on equilibrium in capital markets, which requires that the demand for securities from risk-averse investors matches the available supply. It also assumes that asset returns have a normal distribution. When these conditions are satisﬁed, the CAPM predicts a relationship between αi and the factor exposure βi : αi ⳱ Rf (1 ⫺ βi ). A major problem with this theory is that it may not be testable unless the “market” is exactly identiﬁed. For risk managers, who primarily focus on risk instead of expected returns, however, this is of little importance. What matters is the simpliﬁcation bought by the diagonal model. Consider a portfolio that consists of positions wi on the various assets. We have N

Rp ⳱

冱 wi Ri

(13.12)

i ⳱1

Using Equation (13.9), the portfolio return is also N

Rp ⳱

冱

(wi αi Ⳮ wi βi RM Ⳮ wi i ) ⳱ αp Ⳮ βp RM Ⳮ

i ⳱1

N

冱(wi i )

(13.13)

i ⳱1

Such decomposition is useful for performance attribution. Suppose a stock portfolio returns 10% over the last year. How can we tell if the portfolio manager is doing a good job? We need to know the performance of the overall stock market, as well as

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the portfolio beta. Suppose the market went up by 8%, and the portfolio beta is 1.1. portfolio alpha. Taking expected values, we ﬁnd E (Rp ) ⳱ αp Ⳮ βp E (RM )

(13.14)

The portfolio “alpha” is αp ⳱ 10% ⫺ 1.1 ⫻ 8% ⳱ 1.2%. In this case, the active manager provided value added. More generally, we could have additional risk factors. Performance attribution is the process of decomposing the total return on various sources of risk, with the objective of identifying the value added of active management.3 We now turn to the use of the diagonal model for risk simpliﬁcation, and ignore the intercept in what follows. The portfolio variance is V [Rp ] ⳱ β2p V [RM ] Ⳮ

N

冱 冸wi2V [i ]冹

(13.15)

i ⳱1

since all the residual terms are uncorrelated. Suppose that, for simplicity, the portfolio is equally weighted and that the residual variances are all the same V [i ] ⳱ V . This implies wi ⳱ w ⳱ 1冫 N . As the number of assets, N , increases, the second term will tend to N

冱 冸wi2V [i ]冹 y N ⫻ [(1冫 N )2V ] ⳱ (V 冫 N )

(13.16)

i ⳱1

which should vanish as N increases. In this situation, the only remaining risk is the general market risk, consisting of the beta squared times the variance of the market. Next, we can derive the covariance between any two stocks 2 Cov[Ri , Rj ] ⳱ Cov[βi RM Ⳮ i , βj RM Ⳮ j ] ⳱ βi βj σM

(13.17)

using the assumption that the residual components are uncorrelated with each other and with the market. Also, the variance of a stock is 2 2 Cov[Ri , Ri ] ⳱ βi2 σM Ⳮ σ,i

(13.18)

The covariance matrix is then 2 Ⳮσ2 β21 σM ,1 .. ⌺⳱ . 2 βN β1 σM

2 β1 β2 σM

...

2 β1 βN σM

2 βN β2 σM

...

2 σ2 Ⳮσ2 βN M ,N

3

This process can also be used to detect timing ability, which consists of adding value by changing exposure on risk factors and security selection ability, which adds value beyond exposures on major risk factors.

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which can also be written as 2 σ, β1 1 2 . . . ⌺ ⳱ . [β1 . . . βN ]σM Ⳮ .. βN 0

... ...

0 .. .

2 σ,N

Using matrix notation, we have 2 ⌺ ⳱ ββ⬘σM Ⳮ D

(13.19)

This consists of N elements in the vector β, of N elements on the diagonal of the matrix D , plus the variance of the market itself. The diagonal model reduces the number of parameters from N ⫻ (N Ⳮ 1)冫 2 to 2N Ⳮ 1, a considerable improvement. For example, with 100 assets the number is reduced from 5,050 to 201. In summary, this diagonal model substantially simpliﬁes the risk structure of an equity portfolio. Risk managers can proceed in two steps: ﬁrst, managing the overall market risk of the portfolios, and second, managing the concentration risk of individual securities.

13.5.2

Factor Models

Still, this one-factor model could miss common effects among groups of stocks, such as industry effects. To account for these, Equation (13.9) can be generalized to K factors Ri ⳱ αi Ⳮ βi 1 y1 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ βiK yK Ⳮ i

(13.20)

where y1 , . . . , yK are the factors, which are assumed independent of each other for simpliﬁcation. The covariance matrix generalizes Equation (13.19) to ⌺ ⳱ β1 β1⬘ σ12 Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ βK βK ⬘ σK2 Ⳮ D

(13.21)

The number of parameters is now (N ⫻ K Ⳮ K Ⳮ N ). For example, with 100 assets and ﬁve factors, this number is 605, which is still much lower than 5,050 for the unrestricted model. As in the case of the CAPM, the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT), developed by Professor Stephen Ross, shows that there is a relationship between αi and the factor exposures. The theory does not rely on equilibrium but simply on the assumption that there should be no arbitrage opportunities in capital markets, a much weaker requirement. It does not even need the factor model to hold strictly; instead, it requires

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only that the residual risk is very small. This must be the case if a sufﬁcient number of common factors is identiﬁed and in a well-diversiﬁed portfolio. The APT model does not require the market to be identiﬁed, which is an advantage. Like the CAPM, however, tests of this model are ambiguous since the theory provides no guidance as to what the factors should be.

Fixed-Income Portfolio Risk

TE

13.5.3

AM FL Y

Example 13-13: FRM Exam 1998----Question 62/Capital Markets 13-13. In comparing CAPM and APT, which of the following advantages does APT have over CAPM: I. APT makes less restrictive assumptions about investor preferences toward risk and return. II. APT makes no assumption about the distribution of security returns. III. APT does not rely on the identiﬁcation of the true market portfolio, and so the theory is potentially testable. a) I only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) I, II, and III

As an example of portfolio simpliﬁcation, we turn to the analysis of a corporate bond portfolio with N individual bonds. Each “name” is potentially a source of risk. Instead of modelling all securities, the risk manager should attempt to simplify the risk proﬁle of the portfolio. Potential major risk factors are movements in a set of J Treasury zerocoupon rates, zj , and in K credit spreads, sk , sorted by credit rating. The goal is to provide a good approximation to the risk of the portfolio. In addition, it is not practical to model the risk of all bonds. The bonds may not have a sufﬁcient history. Even if they do, the history may not be relevant if it does not account for the probability of default. In all cases, risk is best modelled by focusing on yields instead of prices. We model the movement in each corporate bond yield yi by a movement in the Treasury factor zj at the closest maturity and in the credit rating sk class to which it belongs. The remaining component is i , which is assumed to be independent across i . We have yi ⳱ zj Ⳮ sk Ⳮ i . This decomposition is illustrated in Figure 13-8 for a corporate bond rated BBB with a 20-year maturity.

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FIGURE 13-8 Yield Decomposition Yields z+s + ε

Specific bond

z+s

BBB

z

Treasuries

3M 1Y

5

10Y

20Y

30Y

The movement in the bond price is ⌬Pi ⳱ ⫺DVBPi ⌬yi ⳱ ⫺DVBPi ⌬zj ⫺ DVBPi ⌬sk ⫺ DVBPi ⌬i where DVBP ⳱ DV01 is the total dollar value of a basis point for the associated risk factor. We hold ni units of this bond. Summing across the portfolio and collecting terms across the common risk factors, the portfolio price movement is J

N

⌬V ⳱ ⫺

冱 i ⳱1

ni DVBPi ⌬yi ⳱ ⫺

冱

j ⳱1

DVBPzj ⌬zj ⫺

K

冱

k⳱1

DVBPsk ⌬sk ⫺

N

冱 ni DVBPi ⌬i

(13.22)

i ⳱1

where DVBPzj results from the summation of ni DVBPi for all bonds that are exposed to the j th maturity. The total variance can be decomposed into N

V (⌬V ) ⳱ General Risk Ⳮ

冱 ni2 DVBPi2 V (⌬i )

(13.23)

i ⳱1

If the portfolio is well diversiﬁed, the general risk term should dominate. So, we could simply ignore the second term. Ignoring speciﬁc risk, a portfolio composed of thousands of securities can be characterized by its exposure to just a few government maturities and credit spreads. This is a considerable simpliﬁcation.

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 13-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Market Risk b) From the table. Among ﬂoating exchange rates, the USD/CAD has low volatility. Example 13-2: FRM Exam 1997–Question 14/Market Risk d) The logs of JPY/EUR and EUR/USD add up to that of JPY/USD: ln[JPY冫 USD] ⳱ ln[JPY冫 eur] Ⳮ ln[eur冫 USD]. So, σ 2 (JPY冫 USD) ⳱ σ 2 (JPY冫 EUR) Ⳮ σ 2 (EUR冫 USDD ) Ⳮ 2ρσ (JPY冫 EUR)σ (EUR冫 USDD ), or 82 ⳱ 102 Ⳮ 62 Ⳮ 2ρ 10 ⫻ 6, or 2ρ 10 ⫻ 6 ⳱ ⫺72, or ρ ⳱ ⫺0.60. Example 13-3: FRM Exam 1999–Question 86/Market Risk d) Historical yield volatility is more stable than price risk for a speciﬁc bond. Example 13-4: FRM Exam 1999–Question 80/Market Risk c) (Lengthy.) Assuming normally distributed returns, the 95% worst loss for the bond can be found from the yield volatility and Equation (13.4). First, we compute the gross market value of the position, which is P ⳱ $20, 000, 000 ⫻ (98 Ⳮ 8冫 32Ⳮ1.43)冫 100 ⳱ $19, 936, 000. Next, we compute the daily yield volatility, which is σ (⌬y ) ⳱ yσ ANNUAL (⌬y 冫 y )冫 冪250 ⳱ 0.06509 ⫻ 0.12冫 冪250 ⳱ 0.000494. The bond’s VAR is then VAR ⳱ D ⴱ ⫻ P ⫻ 1.64485 ⫻ σ (⌬y ), or VAR ⳱ 12.719 ⫻ $19, 936, 000 ⫻ 1.64485 ⫻ 0.000494 ⳱ $206, 036. Note that it is important to use an accurate value for the normal deviate. Using an approximation, such as α ⳱ 1.645, will give a wrong answer, (d) in this case. Example 13-5: FRM Exam 2000–Question 96/Market Risk d) Most of the movements in yields can be explained by a single-factor model, or parallel moves. Once this effect is taken into account, short-term yields move more than long-term yields, so that (a) and (b) are wrong. Example 13-6: FRM Exam 1997–Question 42/Market Risk d) The yield on the inﬂation-protected bond is a real yield, or nominal yield minus expected inﬂation.

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Example 13-7: FRM Exam 1999 – Question 71/Market Risk b) If most of the term structure is unaffected, the hedge will not change in value given that it is driven by 10-year yields. Also, there will be little change in reﬁnancing. For the IO, the slight decrease in the short-term discount rate will increase the present value of short-term cash ﬂows, but the effect is small. Example 13-8: FRM Exam 1999 – Question 73/Market Risk c) The TR swap will eliminate all market risk; shorting Treasuries protects against interest rate risk; since the ARM is already short options, the manager should be buying caps, not selling them. Example 13-9: FRM Exam 1997– Question 43/Market Risk a) The “smile” effect represents different implied vols for the same maturity, so that (II) is correct. Otherwise, the index is computed using market values, number of shares times price, so that (I) is wrong. The stocks are selected by Standard and Poor’s but are not always the largest ones. Finally, the stocks in the index are regularly changed. Example 13-10 FRM Exam 1997 – Question 44/Market Risk c) The futures price is a function of the spot price, interest rate, and dividend yield. Example 13-11: FRM Exam 1997 – Question 12/Market Risk a) From comparing Tables 13-1, 13-6, 13-7. The volatility of crude oil, at around 35% per annum, is the highest. Example 13-12: FRM Exam 1997 – Question 23/Market Risk c) There is no spot risk since the two contracts have offsetting exposure to the spot rate. There is, however, basis risk (lease rate and interest rate) and liquidity risk. Example 13-13: FRM Exam 1998 – Question 62/Capital Markets d) The CAPM assumes that returns are normally distributed and that markets are in equilibrium. In other words, the demand from mean-variance optimizers must be equal to the supply. In contrast, the APT simply assumes that returns are driven by a factor model with a small number of factors, whose risk can be eliminated through arbitrage. So, the APT is less restrictive, does not assume that returns are normally distributed, and does not rely on the identiﬁcation of the true market portfolio.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 14 Hedging Linear Risk Risk that has been measured can be managed. This chapter turns to the active management of market risks. The traditional approach to market risk management is hedging. Hedging consists of taking positions that lower the risk proﬁle of the portfolio. The techniques for hedging have been developed in the futures markets, where farmers, for instance, use ﬁnancial instruments to hedge the price risk of their products. This implementation of hedging is quite narrow, however. Its objective is to ﬁnd the optimal position in a futures contract that minimizes the variance of the total position. This is a special case of minimizing the VAR of a portfolio with two assets, an inventory and a “hedging” instrument. Here, the hedging position is ﬁxed and the value of the hedging instrument is linearly related to the underlying asset. More generally, we can distinguish between Static hedging, which consists of putting on, and leaving, a position until the hedging horizon. This is appropriate if the hedge instrument is linearly related to the underlying asset price. Dynamic hedging, which consists of continuously rebalancing the portfolio to the horizon. This can create a risk proﬁle similar to positions in options. Dynamic hedging is associated with options, which will be examined in the next chapter. Since options have nonlinear payoffs in the underlying asset, the hedge ratio, which can be viewed as the slope of the tangent to the payoff function, must be readjusted as the price moves. In general, hedging will create hedge slippage, or basis risk. This can be measured by unexpected changes in the value of the hedged portfolio. Basis risk arises when changes in payoffs on the hedging instrument do not perfectly offset changes in the value of the underlying position. Obviously, if the objective of hedging is to lower volatility, hedging will eliminate downside risk but also any upside in the position. the objective of hedging is to lower

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risk, not to make proﬁts. Whether hedging is beneﬁcial should be examined in the context of the trade-off between risk and return. This chapter discusses linear hedging. A particularly important application is hedging with futures. Section 14.1 presents an introduction to futures hedging with a unit hedge ratio. Section 14.2 then turns to a general method for ﬁnding the optimal hedge ratio. This method is applied in Section 14.3 for hedging bonds and equities.

14.1

Introduction to Futures Hedging

14.1.1

Unitary Hedging

Consider the situation of a U.S. exporter who has been promised a payment of 125 million Japanese yen in seven months. The perfect hedge would be to enter a 7-month forward contract over-the-counter (OTC). This OTC contract, however, may not be very liquid. Instead, the exporter decides to turn to an exchange-traded futures contract, which can be bought or sold more easily. The Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME) lists yen contracts with face amount of Y12,500,000 that expire in 9 months. The exporter places an order to sell 10 contracts, with the intention of reversing the position in 7 months, when the contract will still have 2 months to maturity.1 Because the amount sold is the same as the underlying, this is called a unitary hedge. Table 14-1 describes the initial and ﬁnal conditions for the contract. At each date, the futures price is determined by interest parity. Suppose that the yen depreciates sharply, leading to a loss on the anticipated cash position of Y125, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.006667 ⫺ 0.00800) ⳱ ⫺$166,667. This loss, however, is offset by a gain on the futures, which is (⫺10) ⫻ Y12.5, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.006711 ⫺ 0.00806) ⳱ $168,621. This creates a very small gain of $1,954. Overall, the exporter has been hedged. This example shows that futures hedging can be quite effective, removing the effect of ﬂuctuations in the risk factor. Deﬁne Q as the amount of yen transacted and 1

In practice, if the liquidity of long-dated contracts is not adequate, the exporter could use nearby contracts and roll them over prior to expiration into the next contracts. When there are multiple exposures, this practice is known as a stack hedge. Another type of hedge is the strip hedge, which involves hedging the exposures with a number of different contracts. While a stack hedge has superior liquidity, it also entails greater basis risk than a strip hedge. Hedgers must decide whether the greater liquidity of a stack hedge is worth the additional basis risk.

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TABLE 14-1 A Futures Hedge Item Market Data: Maturity (months) US interest rate Yen interest rate Spot (Y/$) Futures (Y/$) Contract Data: Spot ($/Y) Futures ($/Y) Basis ($/Y)

Initial Time

Exit Time

Gain or Loss

9 6% 5% Y125.00 Y124.07

2 6% 2% Y150.00 Y149.00

0.008000 0.008060

0.006667 0.006711

⫺$166,667 $168,621

⫺0.000060

⫺0.000045

$1,954

S and F as the spot and futures rates, indexed by 1 at the initial time and by 2 at the exit time. The P&L on the unhedged transaction is Q [S 2 ⫺ S 1 ]

(14.1)

Instead, the hedged proﬁt is Q[(S2 ⫺ S1 ) ⫺ (F2 ⫺ F1 )] ⳱ Q[(S2 ⫺ F2 ) ⫺ (S1 ⫺ F1 )] ⳱ Q[b2 ⫺ b1 ]

(14.2)

where b ⳱ S ⫺ F is the basis. The hedged proﬁt only depends on the movement in the basis. Hence the effect of hedging is to transform price risk into basis risk. A short hedge position is said to be long the basis, since it beneﬁts from an increase in the basis. In this case, the basis risk is minimal for a number of reasons. First, the cash and futures correspond to the same asset. Second, the cash-and-carry relationship holds very well for currencies. Third, the remaining maturity at exit is rather short.

14.1.2

Basis Risk

Basis risk arises when the characteristics of the futures contract differ from those of the underlying position. Futures contracts are standardized to a particular grade, say West Texas Intermediate (WTI) for oil futures traded on the NYMEX. This deﬁnes the grade of crude oil deliverable against the contract. A hedger, however, may have a position in a different grade, which may not be perfectly correlated with WTI.

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Thus basis risk is the uncertainty whether the cash-futures spread will widen or narrow during the hedging period. Hedging can be effective, however, if movements in the basis are dominated by movements in cash markets. For most commodities, basis risk is inevitable. Organized exchanges strive to create enough trading and liquidity in their listed contracts, which requires standardization. Speculators also help to increase trading volumes and provide market liquidity. Thus there is a trade-off between liquidity and basis risk. Basis risk is higher with cross-hedging, which involves using a futures on a totally different asset or commodity than the cash position. For instance, a U.S. exporter who is due to receive a payment in Norwegian Kroner (NK) could hedge using a futures contract on the $/euro exchange rate. Relative to the dollar, the euro and the NK should behave similarly, but there is still some basis risk. Basis risk is lowest when the underlying position and the futures correspond to the same asset. Even so, some basis risk remains because of differing maturities. As we have seen in the yen hedging example, the maturity of the futures contract is 9 instead of 7 months. As a result, the liquidation price of the futures is uncertain. Figure 14-1 describes the various time components for a hedge using T-bond futures. The ﬁrst component is the maturity of the underlying bond, say 20 years. The second component is the time to futures expiration, say 9 months. The third component is the hedge horizon, say 7 months. Basis risk occurs when the hedge horizon does not match the time to futures expiration.

FIGURE 14-1 Hedging Horizon and Contract Maturity

Now

Hedge horizon

Sell futures

Buy futures

Futures expiration

Maturity of underlying T-bond

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Example 14-1: FRM Exam 2000----Question 78/Market Risk 14-1. What feature of cash and futures prices tends to make hedging possible? a) They always move together in the same direction and by the same amount. b) They move in opposite directions by the same amount. c) They tend to move together generally in the same direction and by the same amount. d) They move in the same direction by different amounts. Example 14-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 17/Capital Markets 14-2. Which one of the following statements is most correct? a) When holding a portfolio of stocks, the portfolio’s value can be fully hedged by purchasing a stock index futures contract. b) Speculators play an important role in the futures market by providing the liquidity that makes hedging possible and assuming the risk that hedgers are trying to eliminate. c) Someone generally using futures contracts for hedging does not bear the basis risk. d) Cross hedging involves an additional source of basis risk because the asset being hedged is exactly the same as the asset underlying the futures. Example 14-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 79/Market Risk 14-3. Under which scenario is basis risk likely to exist? a) A hedge (which was initially matched to the maturity of the underlying) is lifted before expiration. b) The correlation of the underlying and the hedge vehicle is less than one and their volatilities are unequal. c) The underlying instrument and the hedge vehicle are dissimilar. d) All of the above are correct.

14.2

Optimal Hedging

The previous section gave an example of a unit hedge, where the amounts transacted are identical in the two markets. In general, this is not appropriate. We have to decide how much of the hedging instrument to transact. Consider a situation where a portfolio manager has an inventory of carefully selected corporate bonds that should do better than their benchmark. The manager wants to guard against interest rate increases, however, over the next three months. In this situation, it would be too costly to sell the entire portfolio only to buy it back

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later. Instead, the manager can implement a temporary hedge using derivative contracts, for instance T-Bond futures. Here, we note that the only risk is price risk, as the quantity of the inventory is known. This may not always be the case, however. Farmers, for instance, have uncertainty over both prices and the size of their crop. If so, the hedging problem is substantially more complex as it involves hedging revenues, which involves analyzing demand and supply conditions.

14.2.1

The Optimal Hedge Ratio

Deﬁne ⌬S as the change in the dollar value of the inventory and ⌬F as the change in the dollar value of the one futures contract. In other markets, other reference cur-

AM FL Y

rencies would be used. The inventory, or position to be hedged, can be existing or anticipatory, that is, to be received in the future with a great degree of certainty. The manager is worried about potential movements in the value of the inventory ⌬S . If the manager goes long N futures contracts, the total change in the value of the portfolio is

TE

⌬V ⳱ ⌬S Ⳮ N ⌬F

(14.3)

One should try to ﬁnd the hedge that reduces risk to the minimum level. The variance of proﬁts is equal to

σ⌬2V ⳱ σ⌬2S Ⳮ N 2 σ⌬2F Ⳮ 2Nσ⌬S,⌬F

(14.4)

Note that volatilities are initially expressed in dollars, not in rates of return, as we attempt to stabilize dollar values. Taking the derivative with respect to N ∂σ⌬2V ⳱ 2Nσ⌬2F Ⳮ 2σ⌬S,⌬F ∂N

(14.5)

For simplicity, drop the ⌬ in the subscripts. Setting Equation (14.5) equal to zero and solving for N , we get

Nⴱ ⳱ ⫺

⌬S,⌬F SF S ⳱ ⫺ 2 ⳱ ⫺ SF 2 ⌬F F F

(14.6)

where σSF is the covariance between futures and spot price changes. Here, N ⴱ is the minimum variance hedge ratio.

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We can do more than this, though. At the optimum, we can ﬁnd the variance of proﬁts by replacing N in Equation (14.4) by N ⴱ , which gives σVⴱ2

⳱

σS2 Ⳮ

2

冢 冣 σSF σF2

σF2 Ⳮ 2

冢

冣

2 2 2 σSF σSF ⫺σSF ⫺σSF 2 2 2 ⳱ Ⳮ Ⳮ ⳱ σ σ σ ⫺ SF S S σF2 σF2 σF2 σF2

(14.7)

In practice, there is often confusion about the deﬁnition of the portfolio value and unit prices. Here S consists of the number of units (shares, bonds, bushels, gallons) times the unit price (stock price, bond price, wheat price, fuel price). It is sometimes easier to deal with unit prices and to express volatilities in terms of rates of changes in unit prices, which are unitless. Deﬁning quantities Q and unit prices s , we have S ⳱ Qs . Similarly, the notional amount of one futures contract is F ⳱ Qf f . We can then write σ⌬S ⳱ Qσ (⌬s ) ⳱ Qsσ (⌬s 冫 s ) σ⌬F ⳱ Qf σ (⌬f ) ⳱ Qf f σ (⌬f 冫 f ) σ⌬S,⌬F ⳱ ρsf [Qsσ (⌬s 冫 s )][Qf f σ (⌬f 冫 f )] Using Equation (14.6), the optimal hedge ratio N ⴱ can also be expressed as N ⴱ ⳱ ⫺ρSF

Qsσ (⌬s 冫 s ) σ (⌬s 冫 s ) Qs Q⫻s ⳱ ⫺ρSF ⳱ ⫺βsf Qf f σ (⌬f 冫 f ) σ (⌬f 冫 f ) Qf f Qf ⫻ f

(14.8)

where βsf is the coefﬁcient in the regression of ⌬s 冫 s over ⌬f 冫 f . The second term represents an adjustment factor for the size of the cash position and of the futures contract.

14.2.2

The Hedge Ratio as Regression Coefﬁcient

The optimal amount N ⴱ can be derived from the slope coefﬁcient of a regression of ⌬s 冫 s on ⌬f 冫 f : ⌬s ⌬f ⳱ α Ⳮ βsf Ⳮ s f As seen in Chapter 3, standard regression theory shows that σsf σs βsf ⳱ 2 ⳱ ρsf σ σf f

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(14.10)

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Thus the best hedge is obtained from a regression of the (change in the) value of the inventory on the value of the hedge instrument.

Key concept: The optimal hedge is given by the negative of the beta coefﬁcient of a regression of changes in the cash value on changes in the payoff on the hedging instrument. Further, we can measure the quality of the optimal hedge ratio in terms of the amount by which we decreased the variance of the original portfolio: R2 ⳱

(σS2 ⫺ σVⴱ2 ) σS2

(14.11)

2 冫 σ 2 )冫 σ 2 ⳱ After substitution of Equation (14.7), we ﬁnd that R 2 ⳱ (σS2 ⫺ σS2 Ⳮ σSF F S 2 冫 (σ 2 σ 2 ) ⳱ ρ 2 . This unitless number is also the coefﬁcient of determination, or σSF F S SF

the percentage of variance in ⌬s 冫 s explained by the independent variable ⌬f 冫 f . Thus this regression also gives us the effectiveness of the hedge, which is measured by the proportion of variance eliminated. We can also express the volatility of the hedged position from Equation (14.7) using the R 2 as σVⴱ ⳱ σS 冪(1 ⫺ R 2 )

(14.12)

This shows that if R 2 ⳱ 1, the regression ﬁt is perfect, and the resulting portfolio has zero risk. In this situation, the portfolio has no basis risk. However, if the R 2 is very low, the hedge is not effective.

Example 14-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 86 14-4. If two securities have the same volatility and a correlation equal to -0.5, their minimum variance hedge ratio is a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 16:1

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Example 14-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 66/Market Risk 14-5. The hedge ratio is the ratio of the size of the position taken in the futures contract to the size of the exposure. Assuming the standard deviation of change of spot price is σ1 and the standard deviation of change of future price is σ2 , the correlation between the changes of spot price and future price is ρ . What is the optimal hedge ratio? a) 1冫 ρ ⫻ σ1 冫 σ2 b) 1冫 ρ ⫻ σ2 冫 σ1 c) ρ ⫻ σ1 冫 σ2 d) ρ ⫻ σ2 冫 σ1 Example 14-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 92/Market Risk 14-6. The hedge ratio is the ratio of derivatives to a spot position (or vice versa) that achieves an objective, such as minimizing or eliminating risk. Suppose that the standard deviation of quarterly changes in the price of a commodity is 0.57, the standard deviation of quarterly changes in the price of a futures contract on the commodity is 0.85, and the correlation between the two changes is 0.3876. What is the optimal hedge ratio for a three-month contract? a) 0.1893 b) 0.2135 c) 0.2381 d) 0.2599

14.2.3

Example

An airline knows that it will need to purchase 10,000 metric tons of jet fuel in three months. It wants some protection against an upturn in prices using futures contracts. The company can hedge using heating oil futures contracts traded on NYMEX. The notional for one contract is 42,000 gallons. As there is no futures contract on jet fuel, the risk manager wants to check if heating oil could provide an efﬁcient hedge instead. The current price of jet fuel is $277/metric ton. The futures price of heating oil is $0.6903/gallon. The standard deviation of the rate of change in jet fuel prices over three months is 21.17%, that of futures is 18.59%, and the correlation is 0.8243. Compute a) The notional and standard deviation of the unhedged fuel cost in dollars b) The optimal number of futures contract to buy/sell, rounded to the closest integer c) The standard deviation of the hedged fuel cost in dollars

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Answer a) The position notional is Qs = $2,770,000. The standard deviation in dollars is σ (⌬s 冫 s )sQ ⳱ 0.2117 ⫻ $277 ⫻ 10,000 ⳱ $586,409 For reference, that of one futures contract is σ (⌬f 冫 f )f Qf ⳱ 0.1859 ⫻ $0.6903 ⫻ 42,000 ⳱ $5,389.72 with a futures notional of f Qf ⳱ $0.6903 ⫻ 42,000 ⳱ $28,992.60. b) The cash position corresponds to a payment, or liability. Hence, the company will have to buy futures as protection. First, we compute beta, which is βsf ⳱ 0.8243(0.2117冫 0.1859) ⳱ 0.9387. The corresponding covariance term is σsf ⳱ 0.8243 ⫻ 0.2117 ⫻ 0.1859 ⳱ 0.03244. Adjusting for the notionals, this is σSF ⳱ 0.03244 ⫻ $2,770,000 ⫻ $28,993 ⳱ 2,605,268,452. The optimal hedge ratio is, using Equation (14.8) N ⴱ ⳱ βsf

Q⫻s 10, 000 ⫻ $277 ⳱ 0.9387 ⳱ 89.7 Qf ⫻ f 42, 000 ⫻ $0.69

or 90 contracts after rounding (which we ignore in what follows). c) To ﬁnd the risk of the hedged position, we use Equation (14.8). The volatility of the unhedged position is σS ⳱ $586, 409. The variance of the hedged position is σS2 ⳱ ($586,409)2 2 ⫺σSF 冫 σF2 ⳱ ⫺(2,605,268,452冫 5,390)2

V(hedged )

⳱ Ⳮ343,875,515,281 ⳱ ⫺233,653,264,867 ⳱ Ⳮ110,222,250,414

The volatility of the hedged position is σVⴱ ⳱ $331, 997. Thus the hedge has reduced the risk from $586,409 to $331,997. that one minus the ratio of the hedged and unhedged variances is (1 ⫺ 110,222,250,414冫 343,875,515,281) ⳱ 67.95%. This is exactly the square of the correlation coefﬁcient, 0.82432 ⳱ 0.6795. Thus the effectiveness of the hedge can be judged from the correlation coefﬁcient. Figure 14-2 displays the relationship between the risk of the hedged position and the number of contracts. As N increases, the risk decreases, reaching a minimum for N ⴱ ⳱ 90 contracts. The graph also shows that the quadratic relationship is relatively ﬂat for a range of values around the minimum. Choosing anywhere between 80 and 100 contracts will have little effect on the total risk.

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FIGURE 14-2 Risk of Hedged Position and Number of Contracts Volatility $700,000 $600,000 Optimal hedge $500,000 $400,000 $300,000 $200,000 $100,000 $0 0

14.2.4

20

40 60 80 Number of contracts

100

120

Liquidity Issues

Although futures hedging can be successful at mitigating market risk, it can create other risks. Futures contracts are marked to market daily. Hence they can involve large cash inﬂows or outﬂows. Cash outﬂows, in particular, can create liquidity problems, especially when they are not offset by cash inﬂows from the underlying position. Example 14-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 67/Market Risk 14-7. In the early 1990s, Metallgesellschaft, a German oil company, suffered a loss of $1.33 billion in their hedging program. They rolled over short-dated futures to hedge long term exposure created through their long-term ﬁxed-price contracts to sell heating oil and gasoline to their customers. After a time, they abandoned the hedge because of large negative cash ﬂow. The cash-ﬂow pressure was due to the fact that MG had to hedge its exposure by a) Short futures and there was a decline in oil price b) Long futures and there was a decline in oil price c) Short futures and there was an increase in oil price d) Long futures and there was an increase in oil price

14.3

Applications of Optimal Hedging

The linear framework presented here is completely general. We now specialize it to two important cases, duration and beta hedging. The ﬁrst applies to the bond market, the second to the stock market.

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14.3.1

Duration Hedging

Modiﬁed duration can be viewed as a measure of the exposure of relative changes in prices to movements in yields. Using the deﬁnitions in Chapter 1, we can write ⌬P ⳱ (⫺D ⴱ P )⌬y

(14.13)

where D ⴱ is the modiﬁed duration. The dollar duration is deﬁned as (D ⴱ P ). Assuming the duration model holds, which implies that the change in yield ⌬y does not depend on maturity, we can rewrite this expression for the cash and futures positions ⌬S ⳱ (⫺DSⴱ S )⌬y

⌬F ⳱ (⫺DFⴱ F )⌬y

where DSⴱ and DFⴱ are the modiﬁed durations of S and F , respectively. Note that these relationships are supposed to be perfect, without an error term. The variances and covariance are then σS2 ⳱ (DSⴱ S )2 σ 2 (⌬y )

σF2 ⳱ (DFⴱ F )2 σ 2 (⌬y )

σSF ⳱ (DFⴱ F )(DSⴱ S )σ 2 (⌬y )

We can replace these in Equation (14.6) Nⴱ ⳱ ⫺

(DFⴱ F )(DSⴱ S ) (DSⴱ S ) SF ⳱ ⫺ ⳱ ⫺ (DFⴱ F )2 (DFⴱ F ) F2

(14.14)

Alternatively, this can be derived as follows. Write the total portfolio payoff as ⌬V ⳱ ⌬S Ⳮ N ⌬F ⳱ (⫺DSⴱ S )⌬y Ⳮ N (⫺DFⴱ F )⌬y ⳱ ⫺[(DSⴱ S ) Ⳮ N (DFⴱ F )] ⫻ ⌬y which is zero when the net exposure, represented by the term between brackets, is zero. In other words, the optimal hedge ratio is simply minus the ratio of the dollar duration of cash relative to the dollar duration of the hedge. This ratio can also be expressed in dollar value of a basis point (DVBP). More generally, we can use N as a tool to modify the total duration of the portfolio. If we have a target duration of DV , this can be achieved by setting [(DSⴱ S ) Ⳮ N (DFⴱ F )] ⳱ DVⴱ V , or N⳱

(DVⴱ V ⫺ DSⴱ S ) (DFⴱ F )

of which Equation (14.14) is a special case.

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Key concept: The optimal duration hedge is given by the ratio of the dollar duration of the position to that of the hedging instrument.

Example 1 A portfolio manager holds a bond portfolio worth $10 million with a modiﬁed duration of 6.8 years, to be hedged for 3 months. The current futures price is 93-02, with a notional of $100,000. We assume that its duration can be measured by that of the cheapest-to-deliver, which is 9.2 years. Compute a) The notional of the futures contract b) The number of contracts to buy/sell for optimal protection Answer a) The notional is [93 Ⳮ (2冫 32)]冫 100 ⫻ $100,000 ⳱ $93,062.5. b) The optimal number to sell is from Equation (14.14) (D ⴱ S ) 6.8 ⫻ $10, 000, 000 N ⴱ ⳱ ⫺ Sⴱ ⳱⫺ ⳱ ⫺79.4 9.2 ⫻ $93, 062.5 (DF F ) or 79 contracts after rounding. Note that the DVBP of the futures is about 9.2 ⫻ $93,000 ⫻ 0.01% ⳱ $85.

Example 2 On February 2, a corporate Treasurer wants to hedge a July 17 issue of $5 million of commercial paper with a maturity of 180 days, leading to anticipated proceeds of $4.52 million. The September Eurodollar futures trades at 92, and has a notional amount of $1 million. Compute a) The current dollar value of the futures contract b) The number of contracts to buy/sell for optimal protection Answer a) The current dollar price is given by $10,000[100 ⫺ 0.25(100 ⫺ 92)] ⳱ $980,000. Note that the duration of the futures is always 3 months (90 days), since the contract refers to 3-month LIBOR. b) If rates increase, the cost of borrowing will be higher. We need to offset this by a gain, or a short position in the futures. The optimal number is from Equation (14.14)

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(DSⴱ S )

(DFⴱ F )

⳱⫺

180 ⫻ $4,520,000 ⳱ ⫺9.2 90 ⫻ $980,000

or 9 contracts after rounding. Note that the DVBP of the futures is about 0.25 ⫻ $1, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.01% ⳱ $25. Example 14-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 73/Market Risk 14-8. What assumptions does a duration-based hedging scheme make about the way in which interest rates move? a) All interest rates change by the same amount. b) A small parallel shift occurs in the yield curve. c) Any parallel shift occurs in the term structure. d) Interest rates movements are highly correlated. Example 14-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 61/Market Risk 14-9. If all spot interest rates are increased by one basis point, a value of a portfolio of swaps will increase by $1,100. How many Eurodollar futures contracts are needed to hedge the portfolio? a) 44 b) 22 c) 11 d) 1,100 Example 14-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 109/Market Risk 14-10. Roughly how many 3-month LIBOR Eurodollar futures contracts are needed to hedge a position in a $200 million, 5-year receive-ﬁxed swap? a) Short 250 b) Short 3,200 c) Short 40,000 d) Long 250

14.3.2

Beta Hedging

We now turn to equity hedging using stock index futures. Beta, or systematic risk can be viewed as a measure of the exposure of the rate of return on a portfolio i to movements in the “market” m Rit ⳱ αi Ⳮ βi Rmt Ⳮ it

(14.16)

where β represents the systematic risk, α the intercept (which is not a source of risk and therefore ignored for risk management purposes), and the residual component,

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which is uncorrelated with the market. We can also write, in line with the previous sections and ignoring the residual and intercept (⌬S 冫 S ) ⬇ β(⌬M 冫 M )

(14.17)

Now, assume that we have at our disposal a stock-index futures contract, which has a beta of unity (⌬F 冫 F ) ⳱ 1(⌬M 冫 M ). For options, the beta is replaced by the net delta, (⌬C ) ⳱ δ(⌬M ). As in the case of bond duration, we can write the total portfolio payoff as ⌬V ⳱ ⌬S Ⳮ N ⌬F ⳱ (βS )(⌬M 冫 M ) Ⳮ NF (⌬M 冫 M ) ⳱ [(βS ) Ⳮ NF ] ⫻ (⌬M 冫 M ) which is set to zero when the net exposure, represented by the term between brackets is zero. The optimal number of contracts to short is Nⴱ ⳱ ⫺

S F

(14.18)

Key concept: The optimal hedge with stock index futures is given by the the beta of the cash position times its value divided by the notional of the futures contract.

Example A portfolio manager holds a stock portfolio worth $10 million with a beta of 1.5 relative to the S&P 500. The current futures price is 1,400, with a multiplier of $250. Compute a) The notional of the futures contract b) The number of contracts to sell short for optimal protection Answer a) The notional amount of the futures contract is $250 ⫻ 1400 ⳱ $350,000. b) The optimal number of contract to short is, from Equation (14.18) Nⴱ ⳱ ⫺

βS 1.5 ⫻ $10,000,000 ⳱⫺ ⳱ ⫺42.9 F 1 ⫻ $350,000

or 43 contracts after rounding.

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The quality of the hedge will depend on the size of the residual risk in the market model of Equation (14.16). For large portfolios, the approximation may be good. In contrast, hedging an individual stock with stock index futures may give poor results. For instance, the correlation of a typical U.S. stock with the S&P 500 is 0.50. For an industry index, it is typically 0.75. Using the regression effectiveness in Equation (14.12), we ﬁnd that the volatility of the hedged portfolio is still about 冪1 ⫺ 0.52 ⳱ 87% of the unhedged volatility for a typical stock and about 66% of the unhedged volatility for a typical industry. The lower number shows that hedging with general stock index futures is more effective for large portfolios. To obtain ﬁner coverage of equity risks, hedgers could use futures contracts on industrial sectors, or even single stock futures.

TE

AM FL Y

Example 14-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 93/Market Risk 14-11. Assume Global Funds manages an equity portfolio worth $50,000,000 with a beta of 1.8. Further, assume that there exists an index call option contract with a delta of 0.623 and a value of $500,000. How many options contracts are needed to hedge the portfolio? a) 169 b) 289 c) 306 d) 321

14.4

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 14-1: FRM Exam 2000----Question 78/Market Risk c) Hedging is made possible by the fact that cash and futures prices usually move in the same direction and by the same amount. Example 14-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 17/Capital Markets b) Answer (a) is wrong because we need to hedge by selling futures. Answer (c) is wrong because futures hedging creates some basis risk. Answer (d) is wrong because crosshedging involves different assets. Speculators do serve some social function, which is to create liquidity for others. Example 14-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 79/Market Risk d) Basis risk occurs if movements in the value of the cash and hedged positions do not offset each other perfectly. This can happen if the instruments are dissimilar or if

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the correlation is not unity. Even with similar instruments, if the hedge is lifted before the maturity of the underlying, there is some basis risk. Example 14-4: FRM Exam 2001----Question 86 b) Set x as the amount to invest in the second security, relative to that in the ﬁrst (or the hedge ratio). The variance is then proportional to 1 Ⳮ x2 Ⳮ 2xρ . Taking the derivative and setting to zero, we have x ⳱ ⫺r ho ⳱ 0.5. Thus one security must have σS twice the amount in the other. Alternatively, the hedge ratio is given by N ⴱ ⳱ ⫺ρ σ , F

which gives 0.5. Answer (b) is the only one which is consistent with this number or its inverse. Example 14-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 66/Market Risk c) See Equation (14.6). Example 14-6: FRM Exam 2000----Question 92/Market Risk d) The hedge ratio is ρf s σs 冫 σf ⳱ 0.3876 ⫻ 0.57冫 0.85 ⳱ 0.2599. Example 14-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 67/Market Risk b) MG was long futures to offset the promised forward sales to clients. It lost money as oil futures prices fell. Example 14-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 73/Market Risk b) The assumption is that of (1) parallel and (2) small moves in the yield curve. Answers (a) and (c) are the same, and omit the size of the move. Answer (d) would require perfect, not high, correlation plus small moves. Example 14-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 61/Market Risk a) The DVBP of the portfolio is $1100. That of the futures is $25. Hence the ratio is 1100/25 = 44. Example 14-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 109/Market Risk b) The dollar duration of a 5-year 6% par bond is about 4.3 years. Hence the DVBP of the position is about $200, 000, 000 ⫻ 4.3 ⫻ 0.0001 ⳱ $86,000. That of the futures is $25. Hence the ratio is 86000/25 = 3,440. Example 14-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 93/Market Risk b) The hedging instrument has a market beta that is not unity, but instead 0.623. The optimal hedge ratio is N ⳱ ⫺(1.8 ⫻ $50,000,000)冫 (0.623 ⫻ $500,000) ⳱ 288.9.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 15 Nonlinear Risk: Options The previous chapter focused on “linear” hedging, using contracts such as forwards and futures whose values are linearly related to the underlying risk factors. Positions in these contracts are ﬁxed over the hedge horizon. Because linear combinations of normal random variables are also normally distributed, linear hedging maintains normal distributions, albeit with lower variances. Hedging nonlinear risks, however, is much more complex. Because options have nonlinear payoffs, the distribution of option values can be sharply asymmetrical. Since options are ubiquitous instruments, it is important to develop tools to evaluate the risk of positions with options. Since options can be replicated by dynamic trading of the underlying instruments, this also provides insights into the risks of active trading strategies. In Chapter 12, we have seen that market losses can be ascribed to the combination of two factors: exposure and adverse movements in the risk factor. Thus a large loss could occur because of the risk factor, which is bad luck. Too often, however, losses occur because the exposure proﬁle is similar to a short option position. This is less forgivable, because exposure is under the control of the risk manager. The challenge is to develop measures that provide an intuitive understanding of the exposure proﬁle. Section 15.1 introduces option pricing and the Taylor approximation.1 It also brieﬂy reviews the Black-Scholes formula that was presented in Chapter 6. Partial derivatives, also known as “Greeks,” are analyzed in Section 15.2. Section 15.3 then turns to the interpretation of dynamic hedging and discusses the distribution proﬁle of option positions.

1

The reader should be forewarned that this chapter is more technical than others. It presupposes some exposure to option pricing and hedging.

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15.1

Evaluating Options

15.1.1

Deﬁnitions

We consider a derivative instrument whose value depends on an underlying asset, which can be a price, an index, or a rate. As an example, consider a call option where the underlying asset is a foreign currency. We use these deﬁnitions: St ⳱current spot price of the asset in dollars Ft ⳱current forward price of the asset K ⳱exercise price of option contract ft ⳱current value of derivative instrument rt ⳱domestic risk-free rate rtⴱ ⳱foreign risk-free rate (also written as y ) σt ⳱annual volatility of the rate of change in S τ ⳱time to maturity. More generally, r ⴱ represents the income payment y on the asset, which represents the annual rate of dividend or coupon payments on a stock index or bond. For most options, we can write the value of the derivative as the function ft ⳱ f (St , rt , rtⴱ , σt , K, τ )

(15.1)

The contract speciﬁcations are represented by K and the time to maturity τ . The other factors are affected by market movements, creating volatility in the value of the derivative. For simplicity, we drop the time subscripts in what follows. Derivatives pricing is all about ﬁnding the value of f , given the characteristics of the option at expiration and some assumptions about the behavior of markets. For a forward contract, for instance, the expression is very simple. It reduces to f ⳱ Se⫺r

ⴱτ

⫺ Ke⫺r τ

(15.2)

More generally, we may not be able to derive an analytical expression for the functional form of the derivative, requiring numerical methods.

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Taylor Expansion

We are interested in describing the movements in f . The exposure proﬁle of the derivative can be described locally by taking a Taylor expansion, df ⳱

1 ∂2 f ∂f ∂f ∂f ∂f ∂f dS Ⳮ dS 2 Ⳮ dr Ⳮ ⴱ dr ⴱ Ⳮ dσ Ⳮ dτ Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ 2 ∂S 2 ∂S ∂r ∂σ ∂τ ∂r

(15.3)

Because the value depends on S in a nonlinear fashion, we added a quadratic term for S . The terms in Equation (15.3) approximate a nonlinear function by linear and quadratic polynomials. Option pricing is about ﬁnding f . Option hedging uses the partial derivatives. Risk management is about combining those with the movements in the risk factors. Figure 15-1 describes the relationship between the value of a European call an the underlying asset. The actual price is the solid line. The thin line is the linear (delta) estimate, which is the tangent at the initial point. The dotted line is the quadratic (delta plus gamma) estimates, which gives a much better ﬁt because it has more parameters. Note that, because we are dealing with sums of local price movements, we can aggregate the sensitivities at the portfolio level. This is similar to computing the portfolio duration from the sum of durations of individual securities, appropriately weighted. FIGURE 15-1 Delta-Gamma Approximation for a Long Call Current value of option

10

Actual price 5 Delta+gamma estimate Delta estimate 0 90

100 Current price of underlying asset

110

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Deﬁning ⌬ ⳱

∂f , ∂S

for example, we can summarize the portfolio, or “book” ⌬P in

terms of the total sensitivity, N

⌬P ⳱

冱 xi ⌬i

(15.4)

i ⳱1

where xi is the number of options of type i in the portfolio. To hedge against ﬁrstorder price risk, it is sufﬁcient to hedge the net portfolio delta. This is more efﬁcient than trying to hedge every single instrument individually. The Taylor approximation may fail for a number of reasons: Large movements in the underlying risk factor Highly nonlinear exposures, such as options near expiry or exotic options Cross-partials effect, such as σ changing in relation with S If this is the case, we need to turn to a full revaluation of the instrument. Using the subscripts 0 and 1 as the initial and ﬁnal values, the change in the option value is f1 ⫺ f0 ⳱ f (S1 , r1 , r1ⴱ , σ1 , K, τ1 ) ⫺ f (S0 , r0 , r0ⴱ , σ0 , K, τ0 )

15.1.3

(15.5)

Option Pricing

We now present the various partial derivatives for conventional European call and put options. As we have seen in Chapter 6, the Black-Scholes (BS) model provides a closed-form solution, from which these derivatives can be computed analytically. The key point of the BS derivation is that a position in the option can be replicated by a “delta” position in the underlying asset. Hence, a portfolio combining the asset and the option in appropriate proportions is risk-free “locally”, that is, for small movements in prices. To avoid arbitrage, this portfolio must return the risk-free rate. The option value is the discounted expected payoff, ft ⳱ ERN [e⫺r τ F (ST )]

(15.6)

where ERN represents the expectation of the future payoff in a “risk-neutral” world, that is, assuming the underlying asset grows at the risk-free rate and the discounting also employs the risk-free rate. In the case of a European call, the ﬁnal payoff is F (ST ) ⳱ Max(ST ⫺ K, 0), and the current value of the call is given by: ⴱ

c ⳱ Se⫺rt τ N (d1 ) ⫺ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 )

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where N (d ) is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution: N (d ) ⳱

冮

d

⫺⬁

⌽(x)dx ⳱

1

冮 冪 2π

d

⫺⬁

1 2

e⫺ 2 x dx

with ⌽ deﬁned as the standard normal distribution function. N (d ) is also the area to the left of a standard normal variable with value equal to d . The values of d1 and d2 are: ⴱ

d1 ⳱

ln(Se⫺rt τ 冫 Ke⫺r τ ) σ 冪τ

Ⳮ

σ 冪τ , 2

d2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ 冪τ

By put-call parity, the European put option value is: ⴱ

p ⳱ Se⫺rt τ [N (d1 ) ⫺ 1] ⫺ Ke⫺r τ [N (d2 ) ⫺ 1]

(15.8)

Example 15-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 65/Market Risk 15-1. It is often possible to estimate the value at risk of a vanilla European options portfolio by using a delta-gamma methodology rather than exact valuation formulas because a) Delta and gamma are the ﬁrst two terms in the Taylor series expansion of the change in an option price as a function of the change in the underlying and the remaining terms are often insigniﬁcant. b) It is only delta and gamma risk that can be hedged. c) Unlike the price, delta and gamma for a European option can be computed in closed form. d) Both a and c, but not b, are correct. Example 15-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 88/Market Risk 15-2. Why is the delta normal approach not suitable for measuring options portfolio risk? a) There is a lack of data to compute the variance/covariance matrix. b) Options are generally short-dated instruments. c) There are nonlinearities in option payoff. d) Black-Scholes pricing assumptions are violated in the real world.

15.2

Option “Greeks”

15.2.1

Option Sensitivities: Delta and Gamma

Given these closed-form solutions for European options, we can derive all partial derivatives. The most important sensitivity is the delta, which is the ﬁrst partial

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derivative with respect to the price. For a call option, this can be written explicitly as: ⌬c ⳱

ⴱ ∂c ⳱ e⫺rt τ N (d1 ) ∂S

(15.9)

which is always positive and below unity. Figure 15-2 relates delta to the current value of S , for various maturities. The essential feature of this ﬁgure is that ⌬ varies substantially with the spot price and with time. As the spot price increases, d1 and d2 become very large, and ⌬ tends toward ⴱ

e⫺rt τ , close to one. in this situation, the option behaves like an outright position in ⴱ

the asset. Indeed the limit of Equation (15.7) is c ⳱ Se⫺rt τ ⫺ Ke⫺r τ , which is exactly the value of our forward contract, Equation (15.2). FIGURE 15-2 Option Delta 1.0

Delta

0.9 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5 0.4 90-day

0.3 0.2

60-

0.1

3010-day

0 90

100 Spot price

110

At the other extreme, if S is very low, ⌬ is close to zero and the option is not very sensitive to S . When S is close to the strike price K , ⌬ is close to 0.5, and the option behaves like a position of 0.5 in the underlying asset. Key concept: The delta of an at-the-money call option is close to 0.5. Delta moves to one as the call goes deep in the money. It moves to zero as the call goes deep out of the money.

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The delta of a put option is: ⌬p ⳱

ⴱ ∂p ⳱ e⫺rt τ [N (d1 ) ⫺ 1] ∂S

(15.10)

which is always negative. It behaves similarly to the call ⌬, except for the sign. The delta of an at-the-money put is about ⫺0.5. Key concept: The delta of an at-the-money put option is close to -0.5. Delta moves to one as the put goes deep in the money. It moves to zero as the put goes deep out of the money. The ﬁgure also shows that, as the option nears maturity, the ⌬ function becomes more curved. The function converges to a step function, 0 when S ⬍ K , and 1 otherwise. Close-to-maturity options have unstable deltas. For a European call or put, gamma (⌫) is the second order term, ⴱ

∂2 c e⫺rt τ ⌽(d1 ) ⳱ ⌫⳱ ∂S 2 Sσ 冪τ

(15.11)

which is driven by the “bell shape” of the normal density function ⌽. This is also the derivative of ⌬ with respect to S . Thus ⌫ measures the “instability” in ⌬. Note that gamma is identical for a call and put with identical characteristics. Figure 15-3 plots the call option gamma. At-the-money options have the highest gamma, which indicates that ⌬ changes very fast as S changes. In contrast, both in-themoney options and out-of-the-money options have low gammas because their delta is constant, close to one or zero, respectively. The ﬁgure also shows that as the maturity nears, the option gamma increases. This leads to a useful rule: Key concept: For vanilla options, nonlinearities are most pronounced for short-term at-the-money options. Thus, gamma is similar to the concept of convexity developed for bonds. Fixedcoupon bonds, however, always have positive convexity, whereas options can create positive or negative convexity. Positive convexity or gamma is beneﬁcial, as it implies that the value of the asset drops more slowly and increases more quickly than

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FIGURE 15-3 Option Gamma 0.13 0.12

Gamma 10-day

0.11 0.10 0.09 0.08 0.07

30-day

0.06

60-day

0.05 0.04

90-day

0.03 0.02 0.01

AM FL Y

0 90

100 Spot price

110

otherwise. In contrast, negative convexity can be dangerous because it implies faster price falls and slower price increases.

TE

Figure 15-4 summarizes the delta and gamma exposures of positions in options. Long positions in options, whether calls or puts, create positive convexity. Short positions create negative convexity. In exchange for assuming the harmful effect of this negative convexity, option sellers receive the premium.

FIGURE 15-4 Delta and Gamma of Option Positions Positive gamma Long CALL

Long PUT ∆0

∆>0, Γ>0 Negative gamma ∆$200,000

$200,000

$175,000

$150,000

$125,000

$100,000

$50,000

$75,000

$25,000

$0

–$50,000

–$25,000

–$75,000

–$100,000

–$125,000

–$150,000

–$175,000

–$200,000

0

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PART III: MARKET RISK MANAGEMENT

Risk Budgeting

The revolution is risk management reﬂects the recognition that risk should be measured at the highest level, that is, ﬁrm wide or portfolio wide. This ability to measure total risk has led to a top-down allocation of risk, called risk budgeting. This concept is being implemented in pension plans as a follow-up to their asset allocation process. Asset allocation consists of ﬁnding the optimal allocation into major asset classes that provides the best risk/return trade-off for the investor. This deﬁnes the risk proﬁle of the portfolio. For instance, assume that the asset allocation led to a choice of annual volatility of 10.41%. With a portfolio of $100 million, this translates into a 95% annual VAR of $17.1 million, assuming normal distributions. More generally, VAR can be computed using any of the three methods presented in this chapter. This VAR budget can then be parcelled out to various asset classes and active managers within asset classes. Table 17-7 illustrates the risk budgeting process for three major asset classes, U.S. stocks, U.S. bonds, and non-U.S. bonds. Data are based on dollar returns over the period 1978 to 2002. TABLE 17-7 Risk Budgeting Asset U.S. stocks U.S. bonds Non-U.S. bonds Portfolio

1 2 3

Expected Return 13.27 8.60 9.28

Volatility 15.62 7.46 11.19 10.41

Correlations 1 2 3 1.000 0.207 1.000 0.036 0.385 1.000

Percentage Allocation 60.3 7.4 32.3 100.0

VAR (per $100) $15.5 $0.9 $6.0 $17.1

The table shows a portfolio allocation of 60.3%, 7.4%, and 32.3% to U.S. stocks, U.S. bonds, and non-U.S. bonds, respectively. Risk budgeting is the process by which these efﬁcient portfolio allocations are transformed into VAR assignments. This translates into individual VARs of $15.5, $0.9, and $6.0 million respectively. For instance, the VAR budget for U.S. stocks is 60.3% ⫻ ($100 ⫻ 1.645 ⫻ 15.62%) ⳱ $15.5 million. Note that the sum of individual VARs is $22.4 million, which is more than the portfolio VAR of $17.1 million due to diversiﬁcation effects. This risk budgeting approach is spreading rapidly to the management of pension plans. Such an approach has all the beneﬁts of VAR. It provides a consistent measure of risk across all subportfolios. It forces managers and investors to confront squarely the amount of risk they are willing to assume. It gives them tools to monitor their risk in real time.

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VAR METHODS

389

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 17-1: FRM Exam 1997----Question 13/Regulatory c) Delta-normal is appropriate for the ﬁxed-income desk, unless it contains many MBSs. For the option desk, at least the second derivatives should be considered; so, the delta-gamma method is adequate. Example 17-2: FRM Exam 2001----Question 92 b) Parametric VAR usually assumes a normal distribution. Given that actual distributions of ﬁnancial variables have fatter tails than the normal distribution, parametric VAR at high conﬁdence levels will generally underestimate VAR. Example 17-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 12/Risk Measurement c) In ﬁnite samples, the simulation methods will be in general different from the delta-normal method, and from each other. As the sample size increases, however, the Monte-Carlo VAR should converge to the delta-normal VAR when returns are normally distributed. Example 17-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Regulatory a) The variance/covariance approach does not take into account second-order curvature effects. Example 17-5: FRM Exam 1999----Questions 82/Market Risk d) VAR⳱ 冪402 Ⳮ 502 ⫺ 2 ⫻ 40 ⫻ 50 ⫻ 0.89 ⳱ 23.24. Example 17-6: FRM Exam 1999----Questions 15 and 90/Market Risk c) VAR⳱ 冪3002 Ⳮ 5002 Ⳮ 2 ⫻ 300 ⫻ 500 ⫻ 1冫 15 ⳱ $600.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

PART

four

Credit Risk Management

Chapter 18 Introduction to Credit Risk Credit risk is the risk of an economic loss from the failure of a counterparty to fulﬁll its contractual obligations. Its effect is measured by the cost of replacing cash ﬂows if the other party defaults. This chapter provides an introduction to the measurement of credit risk. Credit risk has undergone tremendous developments in the last few years. Fuelled by advances in the measurement of market risk, institutions are now, for the ﬁrst time, attempting to quantify credit risk on a portfolio basis. Credit risk, however, offers unique challenges. It requires constructing the distribution of default probabilities, of loss given default, and of credit exposures, all of which contribute to credit losses and should be measured in a portfolio context. In comparison, the measurement of market risk using value at risk (VAR) is a simple affair. For most institutions, however, market risk pales in signiﬁcance compared with credit risk. Indeed, the amount of risk-based capital for the banking system reserved for credit risk is vastly greater than that for market risk. The history of ﬁnancial institutions has also shown that the biggest banking failures were due to credit risk. Credit risk involves the possibility of non-payment, either on a future obligation or during a transaction. Section 18.1 introduces settlement risk, which arises from the exchange of principals in different currencies during a short window. We discuss exposure to settlement risk and methods to deal with it. Traditionally, however, credit risk is viewed as presettlement risk. Section 18.2 analyzes the components of a credit risk system and the evolution of credit risk measurement systems. Section 18.3 then shows how to construct the distribution of credit losses for a portfolio given default probabilities for the various credits in the portfolio. The key drivers of portfolio credit risk are the correlations between defaults. Section 18.4 takes a ﬁxed $100 million portfolio with an increasing number of obligors and shows how the distribution of losses is dramatically affected by correlations.

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18.1

Settlement Risk

18.1.1

Presettlement vs. Settlement Risk

Counterparty credit risk consists of both presettlement and settlement risk. Presettlement risk is the risk of loss due to the counterparty’s failure to perform on an obligation during the life of the transaction. This includes default on a loan or bond or failure to make the required payment on a derivative transaction. Presettlement risk can exist over long periods, often years, starting from the time it is contracted until settlement. In contrast, settlement risk is due to the exchange of cash ﬂows and is of a much shorter-term nature. This risk arises as soon as an institution makes the required payment until the offsetting payment is received. This risk is greatest when payments occur in different time zones, especially for foreign exchange transactions where notionals are exchanged in different currencies. Failure to perform on settlement can be caused by counterparty default, liquidity constraints, or operational problems. Most of the time, settlement failure due to operational problems leads to minor economic losses, such as additional interest payments. In some cases, however, the loss can be quite large, extending to the full amount of the transferred payment. An example of major settlement risk is the 1974 failure of Herstatt Bank. The day it went bankrupt, it had received payments from a number of counterparties but defaulted before payments were made on the other legs of the transactions.

18.1.2

Handling Settlement Risk

In March 1996, the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) issued a report warning that the private sector should ﬁnd ways to reduce settlement risk in the $1.2 trillion-aday global foreign exchange market.1 The report noted that central banks had “signiﬁcant concerns regarding the risk stemming from the current arrangements for settling FX trades.” It explained that “the amount at risk to even a single counterparty could exceed a bank’s capital,” which creates systemic risk. The threat of regulatory action led to a reexamination of settlement risk. 1

Committee on Payment and Settlement Systems (1996). Settlement Risk in Foreign Exchange Transactions, BIS [On-line]. Available: http://www.bis.org/publ/cpss17.pdf

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The status of a trade can be classiﬁed into ﬁve categories: Revocable: when the institution can still cancel the transfer without the consent of the counterparty Irrevocable: after the payment has been sent and before payment from the other party is due Uncertain: after the payment from the other party is due but before it is actually received Settled: after the counterparty payment has been received Failed: after it has been established that the counterparty has not made the payment Settlement risk occurs during the periods of irrevocable and uncertain status, which can take from one to three days. While this type of credit risk can lead to substantial economic losses, the short nature of settlement risk makes it fundamentally different from presettlement risk. Managing settlement risk requires unique tools, such as real-time gross settlement (RTGS) systems. These systems aim at reducing the time interval between the time an institution can no longer stop a payment and the receipt of the funds from the counterparty. Settlement risk can be further managed with netting agreements. One such form is bilateral netting, which involves two banks. Instead of making payments of gross amounts to each other, the banks would tot up the balance and settle only the net balance outstanding in each currency. At the level of instruments, netting also occurs with contracts for differences (CFD). Instead of exchanging principals in different currencies, the contracts are settled in dollars at the end of the contract term.2 The next step up is a multilateral netting system, also called continuous-linked settlements, where payments are netted for a group of banks that belong to the system. This idea became reality when the CLS Bank, established in 1998 with 60 bank participants, became operational on September 9, 2002. Every evening, CLS Bank provides a schedule of payments for the member banks to follow during the next day. Payments are not released until funds are received and all transaction conﬁrmed. 2

These are similar to nondeliverable forwards, which are used to trade emerging market currencies outside the jurisdiction of the emerging-market regime and are also settled in dollars.

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The risk now has been reduced to that of the netting institution. In addition to reducing settlement risk, the netting system has the advantage of reducing the number of trades between participants, by up to 90%, which lowers transaction costs. Example 18-1: FRM Exam 2000----Question 36/Credit Risk 18-1. Settlement risk in foreign exchange is generally due to a) Notionals being exchanged b) Net value being exchanged c) Multiple currencies and countries involved d) High volatility of exchange rates

TE

AM FL Y

Example 18-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 85/Market Risk 18-2. Which one of the following statements about multilateral netting systems is not accurate? a) Systemic risks can actually increase because they concentrate risks on the central counterparty, the failure of which exposes all participants to risk. b) The concentration of risks on the central counterparty eliminates risk because of the high quality of the central counterparty. c) By altering settlement costs and credit exposures, multilateral netting systems for foreign exchange contracts could alter the structure of credit relations and affect competition in the foreign exchange markets. d) In payment netting systems, participants with net-debit positions will be obligated to make a net settlement payment to the central counterparty that, in turn, is obligated to pay those participants with net credit positions.

18.2

Overview of Credit Risk

18.2.1

Drivers of Credit Risk

We now examine the drivers of credit risk, traditionally deﬁned as presettlement risk. Credit risk measurement systems attempts to quantify the risk of losses due to counterparty default. The distribution of credit risk can be viewed as a compound process driven by these variables Default, which is a discrete state for the counterparty—either the counterparty is in default or not. This occurs with some probability of default (PD). Credit exposure (CE), also known as exposure at default (EAD), which is the economic value of the claim on the counterparty at the time of default. Loss given default (LGD), which represents the fractional loss due to default. As an example, take a situation where default results in a fractional recovery rate of 30% only. LGD is then 70% of the exposure.

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Traditionally, credit risk has been measured in the context of loans or bonds for which the exposure, or economic value, of the asset is close to its notional, or face value. This is an acceptable approximation for bonds but certainly not for derivatives, which can have positive or negative value. Credit exposure is deﬁned as the positive value of the asset: Credit Exposuret ⳱ Max(Vt , 0)

(18.1)

This is so because if the counterparty defaults with money owed to it, the full amount has to be paid.3 In contrast, if it owes money, only a fraction may be recovered. Thus, presettlement risk only arises when the contract’s replacement cost has a positive value to the institution (i.e., is “in-the-money”).

18.2.2

Measurement of Credit Risk

The evolution of credit risk management tools has gone through these steps: Notional amounts Risk-weighted amounts External/internal credit ratings Internal portfolio credit models Initially, risk was measured by the total notional amount. A multiplier, say 8 percent, was applied to this amount to establish the amount of required capital to hold as a reserve against credit risk. The problem with this approach is that it ignores variations in the probability of default. In 1988, the Basel Committee instituted a very rough categorization of credit risk by risk-class, providing risk weights to scale each notional amount. This was the ﬁrst attempt to force banks to carry enough capital in relation to the risks they were taking. These risk weights proved to be too simplistic, however, creating incentives for banks to alter their portfolio in order to maximize their shareholder returns subject to the Basel capital requirements. This had the perverse effect of creating more risk into the balance sheets of commercial banks, which was certainly not the intended purpose of the 1988 rules. As an example, there was no differentiation between AAArated and C-rated corporate credits. Since loans to C-credits are more proﬁtable than 3

This is due to no walk-away clauses, explained in Chapter 28.

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those to AAA-credits, given the same amount of regulatory capital, the banking sector responded by shifting its loan mix toward lower-rated credits. This led to the 2001 proposal by the Basel Committee to allow banks to use their own internal or external credit ratings. These credit ratings provide a better representation of credit risk, where better is deﬁned as more in line with economic measures. The new proposals will be described in more detail in a following chapter. Even with these improvements, credit risk is still measured on a stand-alone basis. This harks back to the ages of ﬁnance before the beneﬁts of diversiﬁcation were formalized by Markowitz. One would have to hope that eventually the banking system will be given proper incentives to diversify its credit risk.

18.2.3

Credit Risk vs. Market Risk

The tools recently developed to measure market risk have proved invaluable to assess credit risk. Even so, there are a number of major differences between market and credit risks, which are listed in Table 18-1. TABLE 18-1 Comparison of Market Risk and Credit Risk Item Sources of risk

Distributions Time horizon

Market Risk Market risk only

Mainly symmetric, perhaps fat tails Short term (days)

Aggregation

Business/trading unit

Legal issues

Not applicable

Credit Risk Default risk, recovery risk, market risk Skewed to the left Long term (years) Whole ﬁrm vs. counterparty Very important

As mentioned previously, credit risk results from a compound process with three sources of risk. The nature of this risk creates a distribution that is strongly skewed to the left, unlike most market risk factors. This is because credit risk is akin to short positions in options. At best, the counterparty makes the required payment and there is no loss. At worst, the entire amount due is lost. The time horizon is also different. Whereas the time required for corrective action is relatively short in the case of market risk, it is much longer for credit risk. Positions

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also turn over much more slowly for credit risk than for market risk, although the advent of credit derivatives now makes it easier to hedge credit risk. Finally, the level of aggregation is different. Limits on market risk may apply at the level of a trading desk, business units, and eventually the whole ﬁrm. In contrast, limits on credit risk must be deﬁned at the counterparty level, for all positions taken by the institution. Credit risk can also mix with market risk. Movements in corporate bond prices indeed reﬂect changing expectations of credit losses. In this case, it is not so clear whether this volatility should be classiﬁed into market risk or credit risk.

18.3

Measuring Credit Risk

18.3.1

Credit Losses

To simplify, consider only credit risk due to the effect of defaults. This is what is called default mode. The distribution of losses due to credit risk from a portfolio of N instruments can be described as N

Credit Loss ⳱

冱 bi ⫻ CEi ⫻ (1 ⫺ fi )

(18.2)

i ⳱1

where: ● bi is a (Bernoulli) random variable that takes the value of 1 if default occurs and 0 otherwise, with probability pi , such that E [bi ] ⳱ pi ● CEi is the credit exposure at the time of default ● fi is the recovery rate, or (1 ⫺ f ) the loss given default In theory, all of these could be random variables. For what follows, we will assume that the only random variable is the event of default b.

18.3.2

Joint Events

Assuming that the only random variable is default, Equation (18.2) shows that the expected credit loss is N

E [CL] ⳱

冱 i ⳱1

N

E [bi ] ⫻ CEi ⫻ (1 ⫺ fi ) ⳱

冱 pi ⫻ CEi ⫻ (1 ⫺ fi )

(18.3)

i ⳱1

The dispersion in credit losses, however, critically depends on the correlations between the default events.

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It is often convenient, although not necessarily accurate, to assume that the events are statistically independent. This simpliﬁes the analysis considerably, as the probability of any joint event is then simply the product of the individual event probabilities p(A and B ) ⳱ p(A)p(B )

(18.4)

At the other extreme, if the two events are perfectly correlated, that is, if B always default when A defaults, we have p(A and B ) ⳱ p(B 兩 A) ⫻ p(A) ⳱ 1 ⫻ p(A) ⳱ p(A)

(18.5)

when the marginal probabilities are equal, p(A) ⳱ p(B ). Suppose for instance that the marginal probabilities are each p(A) ⳱ p(B ) ⳱ 1%. Then the probability of the joint event is 0.01% in the independence case and still 1% in the perfect correlation case. More generally, one can show that the probability of a joint default depends on the marginal probabilities and the correlations. As we have seen in Chapter 2, the expectation of the product is E [bA ⫻ bB ] ⳱ C[bA , bB ] Ⳮ E [bA ]E [bB ] ⳱ ρσA σB Ⳮ p(A)p(B )

(18.6)

Given that bA is a Bernoulli variable, its standard deviation is σA ⳱ 冪p(A)[1 ⫺ p(A)] and similarly for bB . We then have p(A and B ) ⳱ Corr(A, B ) 冪p(A)[1 ⫺ p(A)] 冪p(B )[1 ⫺ p(B )] Ⳮ p(A)p(B )

(18.7)

For example, if the correlation is unity and p(A) ⳱ p(B ) ⳱ p, we have p(A and B ) ⳱ 1 ⫻ [p(1 ⫺ p)]1冫 2 ⫻ [p(1 ⫺ p)]1冫 2 Ⳮ p2 ⳱ [p(1 ⫺ p)] Ⳮ p2 ⳱ p, as shown in Equation (18.5). If the correlation is 0.5 and p(A) ⳱ p(B ) ⳱ 0.01, however, we have p(A and B ) ⳱ 0.00505, which is only half of the marginal probabilities. This example is illustrated in Table 18-2, which lays out the full joint distribution. Note how the probabilities in each row and column sum to the marginal probability. From this information, we can infer all missing probabilities. TABLE 18-2 Joint Probabilities B

Default

No def.

Marginal

A Default No def. Marginal

0.00505 0.00495 0.01

0.00495 0.98505 0.99

0.01 0.99

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18.3.3

INTRODUCTION TO CREDIT RISK

401

An Example

Consider for instance a portfolio of $100 million with 3 bonds A, B, and C, with various probabilities of default. To simplify, we assume (1) that the exposures are constant, (2) that the recovery in case of default is zero, and (3) that default events are independent across issuers. Table 18-3 displays the exposures and default probabilities. The second panel lists all possible states. In state one, there is no default, which has a probability of (1 ⫺ p1 )(1 ⫺ p2 )(1 ⫺ p3 ) ⳱ (1 ⫺ 0.05)(1 ⫺ 0.10)(1 ⫺ 0.20) ⳱ 0.684, given independence. In state two, bond A defaults and the others do not, with probability p1 (1⫺ p2 )(1⫺ p3 ) ⳱ 0.05(1 ⫺ 0.10)(1 ⫺ 0.20) ⳱ 0.036. And so on for the other states. TABLE 18-3 Portfolio Exposures, Default Risk, and Credit Losses Issuer A B C Default i None A B C A,B A,C B,C A,B,C Sum

Loss Li $0 $25 $30 $45 $55 $70 $75 $100

Exposure $25 $30 $45

Probability p(Li ) 0.6840 0.0360 0.0760 0.1710 0.0040 0.0090 0.0190 0.0010

Probability 0.05 0.10 0.20

Cumulative Prob. 0.6840 0.7200 0.7960 0.9670 0.9710 0.9800 0.9990 1.0000

Expected Li p(Li ) 0.000 0.900 2.280 7.695 0.220 0.630 1.425 0.100 $13.25

Variance (Li ⫺ ELi )2 p(Li ) 120.08 4.97 21.32 172.38 6.97 28.99 72.45 7.53 434.7

Figure 18-1 graphs the frequency distribution of credit losses. From the table, we can compute an expected loss of $13.25 million, which is also E [CL] ⳱ 冱 pi ⫻ CEi ⳱ 0.05 ⫻ 25 Ⳮ 0.10 ⫻ 30 Ⳮ 0.20 ⫻ 45. This is the average credit loss over many repeated, hypothetical “samples.” The table also shows how to compute the variance as N

V [CL] ⳱

冱(Li ⫺ E [CLi ])2p(Li ), i ⳱1

which yields a standard deviation of σ (CL) ⳱ 冪434.7 ⳱ $20.9 million.

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FIGURE 18-1 Distribution of Credit Losses 1.0

Frequency Expected loss

0.9 0.8 0.7 0.6

Unexpected loss

0.5 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 0.0 -100

-75

-70

-55 Loss

-45

-30

-25

0

Alternatively, we can express the range of losses with a 95 percent quantile, which is the lowest number CLi such that P (CL ⱕ CLi ) ⱖ 95%

(18.8)

From Table 18-3, this is $45 million. Figure 18-2 plots the cumulative distribution function and shows that the 95% quantile is $45 million. In other words, a loss up to $45 million will not be exceeded in at least 95% of the time. In terms of deviations from the mean, this gives an unexpected loss of 45 ⫺ 13.2 ⳱ $32 million. This is a measure of credit VAR. This very simple 3-bond portfolio provides a useful example of the measurement of the distribution of credit risk. It shows that the distribution is skewed to the left. In addition, the distribution has irregular “bumps” that correspond to the default events. The chapter on managing credit risk will further elaborate this point.

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FIGURE 18-2 Cumulative Distribution of Credit Losses Cumulative frequency 1.0 0.9 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 0.0 -110

95% Level -90

-70

-50

-30

-10

Loss

Example 18-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 46/Credit Risk 18-3. An investor holds a portfolio of $50 million. This portfolio consists of A-rated bonds ($20 million) and BBB-rated bonds ($30 million). Assume that the one-year probabilities of default for A-rated and BBB-rated bonds are 2 and 4 percent, respectively, and that they are independent. If the recovery value for A-rated bonds in the event of default is 60 percent and the recovery value for BBB-rated bonds is 40 percent, what is the one-year expected credit loss from this portfolio? a) $672,000 b) $742,000 c) $880,000 d) $923,000 Example 18-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 38/Credit Risk 18-4. Calculate the probability of a subsidiary and parent company both defaulting over the next year. Assume that the subsidiary will default if the parent defaults, but the parent will not necessarily default if the subsidiary defaults. Also assume that the parent has a 1-year probability of default of 0.50% and the subsidiary has a 1-year probability of default of 0.90%. a) 0.450% b) 0.500% c) 0.545% d) 0.550%

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Example 18-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 16/Credit Risk 18-5. A portfolio manager has been asked to take the risk related to the default of two securities A and B. She has to make a large payment if, and only if, both A and B default. For taking this risk, she will be compensated by receiving a fee. What can be said about this fee? a) The fee will be larger if the default of A and of B are highly correlated. b) The fee will be smaller if the default of A and of B are highly correlated. c) The fee is independent of the correlation between the default of A and of B. d) None of the above are correct. Example 18-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 42/Credit Risk 18-6. A German Bank lends DEM 100 million to a Russian Bank for one year and receives DEM 120 million worth of Russian government securities as collateral. Assuming that the 1-year 99% VAR on the Russian government securities is DEM 20 million and the Russian bank’s 1-year probability of default is 5%, what is the German bank’s probability of losing money on this trade over the next year? a) Less than 0.05% b) Approximately 0.05% c) Between 0.05% – 5% d) Greater than 5% Example 18-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 51/Credit Risk 18-7. A portfolio consists of two (long) assets £100 million each. The probability of default over the next year is 10% for the ﬁrst asset, 20% for the second asset, and the joint probability of default is 3%. Estimate the expected loss on this portfolio due to credit defaults over the next year assuming 40% recovery rate for both assets. a) £18 million b) £22 million c) £30 million d) None of the above

18.4

Credit Risk Diversiﬁcation

Modern banking was built on the sensible notion that a portfolio of loans is less risky than single loans. As with market risk, the most important feature of credit risk management is the ability to diversify across defaults. To illustrate this point, Figure 18-3 presents the distribution of losses for a $100 million loan portfolio. The probability of default is ﬁxed at 1 percent. If default occurs, recovery is zero.

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In the ﬁrst panel, we have one loan only. We can either have no default, with probability 99%, or a loss of $100 million with probability 1%. The expected loss is EL ⳱ 0.01 ⫻ $100 Ⳮ 0.99 ⫻ 0 ⳱ $1 million. The problem, of course, is that, if default occurs, it will be a big hit to the bottom line, possibly bankrupting the lending bank. Basically, this is what happened to Peregrine Investments Holdings, one of Hong Kong’s leading investment banks that failed due to the Asian crisis of 1997. The bank failed in large part from a single loan to PT Steady Safe, an Indonesian taxi-cab operator, that amounted to $235 million, a quarter of the bank’s equity capital. In the case of our single loan, the spread of the distribution is quite large, with a variance of 99, which implies a standard deviation (SD) of about $10 million. Simply focusing on the standard deviation, however, is not fully informative given the severe skewness in the distribution. In the second panel, we consider ten loans, each for $10 million. The total notional is the same as before. We assume that defaults are independent. The expected loss is still $1 million, or 10 ⫻ 0.01 ⫻ $10 million. The SD, however, is now $3 million, much less than before. Next, the third panel considers a hundred loans of $1 million each. The expected loss is still $1 million, but the SD is now $1 million, even lower. Finally, the fourth panel considers a thousand loans of $100,000, which create a SD of $0.3 million. For comparability, all these graphs use the same vertical and horizontal scale. This, however, does not reveal the distributions fully. This is why the ﬁfth panel expands the distribution with 1000 counterparties, which looks similar to a normal distribution. This reﬂects the central limit theorem, which states that the distribution of the sum of independent variables tends to a normal distribution. Remarkably, even starting from a highly skewed distribution, we end up with a normal distribution due to diversiﬁcation effects. This explains why portfolios of consumer loans, which are spread over a large number of credits, are less risky than typical portfolios of corporate loans. With N events that occur with the same probability p, deﬁne the variable X ⳱

冱N i ⳱1 bi as the number of defaults (where bi ⳱ 1 when default occurs). The expected credit loss on our portfolio is then E [CL] ⳱ E [X ] ⫻ $100冫 N ⳱ pN ⫻ $100冫 N ⳱ p ⫻ $100

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which does not depend on N but rather on the average probability of default and total exposure, $100 million. When the events are independent, the variance of this variable is, using the results from a binomial distribution, V [CL] ⳱ V [X ] ⫻ ($100冫 N )2 ⳱ p(1 ⫺ p)N ⫻ ($100冫 N )2

(18.10)

which gives a standard deviation of SD[CL] ⳱ 冪p(1 ⫺ p) ⫻ $100冫 冪N

(18.11)

For a constant total notional, this shrinks to zero as N increases. We should note the crucial assumption that the credits are independent. When this is not the case, the distribution will lose its asymmetry more slowly. Even with a very large number of consumer loans, the dispersion may not tend to zero because the

AM FL Y

general state of the economy is a common factor behind consumer credits. Indeed, many more defaults occur in a recession than in an expansion. Institutions loosely attempt to achieve diversiﬁcation by concentration limits. In other words, they limit the extent of exposure, say loans, to a particular industrial or geographical sector. The rationale behind this is that defaults are more highly cor-

TE

related within sectors than across sectors. Conversely, concentration risk is the risk that too many defaults could occur at the same time. Example 18-8: FRM Exam 1997----Question 11/Credit Risk 18-8. A commercial loan department lends to two different BB-rated obligors for one year. Assume the one-year probability of default for a BB-rated obligor is 10% and there is zero correlation (independence) between the obligor’s probability of defaulting. What is the probability that both obligors will default in the same year? a) 1% b) 2% c) 10% d) 20%

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FIGURE 18-3 Distribution of Credit Losses 1 credit of $100 million N=1, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$99 million

100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$100 -$90 -$80 -$70 -$60 -$50 -$40 -$30 -$20 -$10 $0 10 independent credits of $10 million N=10, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$9.9 million

100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$100 -$90 -$80 -$70 -$60 -$50 -$40 -$30 -$20 -$10 $0

FIGURE 18-3 Distribution of Credit Losses (Continued) 100 independent credits of $1 million N=100, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$990,000

100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$100 -$90 -$80 -$70 -$60 -$50 -$40 -$30 -$20 -$10 $0 1000 independent credits of $100,000 N=1000, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$99,000

100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$100 -$90 -$80 -$70 -$60 -$50 -$40 -$30 -$20 -$10 $0

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FIGURE 18-3b Distribution of Credit Losses (Continued) 1000 independent credits of $100,000 N=1000, E(Loss)=$1 million, V(Loss)=$99,000 100% 90% 80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% -$10 -$9 -$8 -$7 -$6 -$5 -$4 -$3 -$2 -$1 $0

Example 18-9: FRM Exam 1997----Question 12/Credit Risk 18-9. What is the probability of no defaults over the next year from a portfolio of 10 BBB-rated obligors? Assume the one-year probability of default for a BBB-rated counterparty is 5% and assumes zero correlation (independence) between the obligor’s probability of default. a) 5.0% b) 50.0% c) 60.0% d) 95.0% Example 18-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 5 18-10. What is the approximate probability of one particular bond defaulting, and none of the others, over the next year from a portfolio of 20 BBB-rated obligors? Assume the 1-year probability of default for a BBB-rated counterparty to be 4% and obligor defaults to be independent from one another. a) 2% b) 4% c) 45% d) 96%

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 18-1: FRM Exam 2000----Question 36/Credit Risk a) Settlement risk is due to the exchange of notional principal in different currencies at different points in time, which exposes one counterparty to default after it has made payment. There would be less risk with netted payments. Example 18-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 85/Market Risk b) Answers (c) and (d) are both correct. Answers (a) and (b) are contradictory. A multilateral netting system concentrates the credit risk into one institution. This could potentially create much damage if this institution fails. Example 18-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 46/Credit Risk c) The expected loss is 冱 i pi ⫻ CEi ⫻ (1 ⫺ fi ) ⳱ $20,000,000 ⫻ 0.02(1 ⫺ 0.60) Ⳮ $30,000,000 ⫻ 0.04(1 ⫺ 0.40) ⳱ $880,000. Example 18-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 38/Credit Risk b) Since the subsidiary defaults when the parent defaults, the joint probability is simply that of the parent defaulting. Example 18-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 16/Credit Risk a) The fee must reﬂect the joint probability of default. As described in Equation (18.7), if defaults of A and B are highly correlated, the default of one implies a greater probability of a second default. Hence the fee must be higher. Example 18-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 42/Credit Risk c) The probability of losing money is driven by (i) a fall in the value of the collateral and (ii) default by the Russian bank. If the two events are independent, the joint probability is 5% ⫻ 1% ⳱ 0.05%. In contrast, if the value of securities always drops at the same time the Russian bank defaults, the probability is simply that of the Russian bank’s default, or 5%.

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Example 18-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 51/Credit Risk a) The three loss events are (i) Default by the ﬁrst alone, with probability 0.10 ⫺ 0.03 ⳱ 0.07 (ii) Default by the second, with probability 0.20 ⫺ 0.03 ⳱ 0.17 (iii) Default by both, with probability 0.03 The respective losses are £100 ⫻ (1⫺0.4) ⫻ 0.07 ⳱ 4.2, £100 ⫻ (1⫺0.4) ⫻ 0.17 ⳱ 10.2, £200 ⫻ (1 ⫺ 0.4) ⫻ 0.03 ⳱ 3.6, for a total expected loss of £18 million. Example 18-8: FRM Exam 1997----Question 11/Credit Risk a) With independence, this probability is 10% ⫻ 10% ⳱ 1%. Example 18-9: FRM Exam 1997----Question 12/Credit Risk c) Since the probability of one default is 5%, that on a bond no defaulting is 100 ⫺ 5 ⳱ 95%. With independence, the joint probability of 10 no defaults is (1 ⫺ 5%)10 ⳱ 60%. Example 18-10: FRM Exam 2001----Question 5 a) This question asks the probability that one particular bond will default and 19 others will not. Assuming independence, this is 0.04(1 ⫺ 0.04)19 ⳱ 1.84%. Note that the probability that any bond will default and none others is 20 times this, or 36.8%.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 19 Measuring Actuarial Default Risk Default risk is the primary component of credit risk. It represents the probability of default (PD), as well as the loss given default (LGD). When default occurs, the actual loss is the combination of exposure at default and loss given default. Default risk can be measured using two approaches: (1) Actuarial methods, which provide “objective” (as opposed to risk-neutral) measures of default rates, usually based on historical default data, and (2) Market-price methods, which infer from traded prices the market’s assessment of default risk, along with a possible risk premium. The market prices of debt, equity, or credit derivatives can be used to derive risk-neutral measures of default risk. Risk-neutral measures provide a useful shortcut to price assets, such as options. For risk management purposes, however, they are contaminated by the effect of risk premiums and therefore do not exactly measure default probabilities. In contrast, objective measures describe the “actual” or “natural” probability of default. On the other hand, since risk-neutral measures are derived directly from market data, they should incorporate all the news about a creditor’s prospects. Actuarial measures of default probabilities are provided by credit rating agencies, which classify borrowers by credit ratings that are supposed to quantify default risk. Such ratings are external to the ﬁrm. Similar techniques can be used to develop internal ratings. Such measures can also be derived from accounting variables models. These models relate the occurrence of default to a list of ﬁrm characteristics, such as accounting variables. Statistical techniques such as discriminant analysis then examine how these variables are related to the occurrence or nonoccurrence of default. Presumably, rating agencies use similar procedures, augmented by additional data. This chapter focuses on actuarial measures of default risk. Market-based measures of default risk will be examined in the next chapter. Section 19.1 examines ﬁrst the deﬁnition of a credit event. Section 19.2 then examines credit ratings, describing how historical default rates can be used to infer default probabilities. Recovery rates

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are discussed in Section 19.3. Section 19.4 then presents an application to the construction and rating of a collateralized bond obligation. Finally, Section 19.5 broadly discusses the evaluation of corporate and sovereign credit risk.

19.1

Credit Event

A credit event is a discrete state. Either it happens or not. The issue is the deﬁnition of the event, which must be framed in legal terms. One could say, for instance, that the deﬁnition of default for a bond obligation is quite narrow. Default on the bond occurs when payment on that same bond is missed. Default on a bond, however, reﬂects the creditor’s ﬁnancial distress and is almost always accompanied by default on other obligations. This is why rating agencies give a credit rating for the issuer.1 Likewise, the state of default is deﬁned by Standard & Poor’s (S&P), a credit rating agency, as The ﬁrst occurrence of a payment default on any ﬁnancial obligation, rated or unrated, other than a ﬁnancial obligation subject to a bona ﬁde commercial dispute; an exception occurs when an interest payment missed on the due date is made within the grace period. This deﬁnition, however, needs to be deﬁned more precisely for credit derivatives, whose payoffs are directly related to credit events. We will cover credit derivatives in Chapter 22. The deﬁnition of a credit event has been formalized by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA), an industry group, which lists these events: Bankruptcy, which is a situation involving (1) The dissolution of the obligor (other than merger) (2) The insolvency, or inability to pay its debt, (3) The assignment of claims (4) The institution of bankruptcy proceeding (5) The appointment of receivership (6) The attachment of substantially all assets by a third party Failure to pay, which means failure of the creditor to make due payment; this is usually triggered after an agreed-upon grace period and above a certain amount 1

Speciﬁc bonds can be as higher as or lower than this issuer rating, depending on their relative priority.

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Obligation/cross default, which means the occurrence of a default (other than failure to make a payment) on any other similar obligation Obligation/cross acceleration, which means the occurrence of a default (other than failure to make a payment) on any other similar obligation that results in that obligation becoming due immediately Repudiation/moratorium, which means that the counterparty is rejecting, or challenges, the validity of the obligation Restructuring, which means a waiver, deferral, or rescheduling of the obligation with the effect that the terms are less favorable than before. In addition, other events sometimes included are Downgrade, which means the credit rating is lower than previously, or withdrawn Currency inconvertibility, which means the imposition of exchange controls or other currency restrictions imposed by a governmental or associated authority Governmental action, which means either (1) declarations or actions by a government or regulatory authority that impair the validity of the obligation, or (2) the occurrence of war or other armed conﬂict that impairs the functioning of the government or banking activities The ISDA deﬁnitions are designed to minimize legal risks, by precisely wording the deﬁnition of credit event. Sometimes unforeseen situations develop. Even now, it is sometimes not clear whether a bank debt restructuring constitutes a credit event, as in the recent cases of Conseco, Xerox, and Marconi. Another notable default is that of Argentina, which represents the largest sovereign default recorded so far, in terms of external debt. Argentina announced in November 2001 a restructuring of its local debt that was more favorable to itself. Some holders of credit default swaps argued that this was a “credit event,” since the exchange was coerced, and that they were entitled to payment. Swap sellers disagreed. This became an unambiguous default, however, when Argentina announced in December it would stop paying interest on its $135 billion foreign debt. Nonetheless, the situation was unresolved for holders of credit swaps that expired just before the ofﬁcial default. In such situations, the ISDA tries to clarify the language of its agreement.

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Example 19-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 5/Credit Risk 19-1. Which of the following events is not a “credit event”? a) Bankruptcy b) Calling back a bond c) Downgrading d) Default on payments Example 19-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 128/Credit Risk 19-2. Which of the following losses can be considered as resulting from an “event risk”? I) Losses on a diversiﬁed portfolio of stocks during the stock market decline and hedge fund crisis in the Autumn/Fall of 1998. II) A U.S. investor bought a bond whose payments are in Japanese yen. The investor made a loss as Japanese Yen depreciated relative to the dollar. III) A holding in RJR Nabisco corporate bonds sustained a loss in 1988 when RJR Nabisco was taken over for $25 billion via a leveraged buyout which resulted in a reduction of its debt rating to noninvestment grade. IV) A municipal bond portfolio suffers a loss when municipal bonds are declared as no longer tax exempt by the tax authority, with no compensation being paid to investors. a) III only b) All the above c) I and IV d) III and IV

19.2

Default Rates

19.2.1

Credit Ratings

A credit rating is an “evaluation of creditworthiness” issued by a rating agency. More technically, it has been deﬁned by Moody’s, a ratings agency, as an “opinion of the future ability, legal obligation, and willingness of a bond issuer or other obligor to make full and timely payments on principal and interest due to investors.” Table 19-1 presents the interpretation of various credit ratings issued by the two major rating agencies, Moody’s and Standard and Poor’s. These ratings correspond to long-term debt; other ratings apply to short-term debt. Generally, the two agencies provide similar ratings for the same issuer.

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Table 19-1. Classiﬁcation by Credit Ratings Explanation

Standard & Poor’s

Moody’s Services

AAA AA A BBB

Aaa Aa A Baa

BB B CCC CC C D

Ba B Caa Ca C

Investment grade: Highest grade High grade Upper medium grade Medium grade Speculative grade: Lower medium grade Speculative Poor standing Highly speculative Lowest quality, no interest In default Modiﬁers: Example AⳭ, A, A⫺, A1, A2, A3

Ratings are broadly divided into Investment grade, that is, at and above BBB for S&P and Baa for Moody’s Speculative grade, or below investment grade, for the rest This classiﬁcation is sometimes used to deﬁne classes of investments allowable to some investors, such as pension funds. These ratings represent objective (or actuarial) probabilities of default.2 Indeed, the agencies have published studies that track the frequency of bond default in the United States, classiﬁed by initial ratings for different horizons. These frequencies can be used to convert ratings to default probabilities. The agencies use a number of criteria to decide on the credit rating, among other accounting ratios. Table 19-2 presents median value for selected accounting ratios for industrial corporations. The ﬁrst column (under “leverage”) shows that the ratio of total debt to total capital (debt plus book equity) varies systematically across ratings. Highly rated companies have low ratios, 23% for AAA ﬁrms. In contrast, BB-rated (just below investment grade) companies have a debt-to-capital ratio of 63%. This implies a capital-to-equity leverage ratio of 2.7 to 1.3 2

In fact, the ratings measure the probability of default (PD) for S&P and the joint effect of PD ⫻ LGD for Moody’s, where LGD is the proportional loss given default. 3 Deﬁning D , E as debt and equity, this is obtained as (DⳭE )冫 E ⳱ D 冫 E Ⳮ1 ⳱ 63%冫 (1 ⫺ 63%)Ⳮ 1 ⳱ 2.7

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The right-hand-side panel (under “cash ﬂow”) also shows systematic variations in a measure of free cash ﬂow divided by interest payments. This represents the number of times the cash ﬂow can cover interest payments. Focusing on earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT), AAA-rated companies have a safe cushion of 21.4, whereas BB-rated companies have coverage of 2.1 only. Table 19-2. S&P’s Financial Ratios Across Ratings

AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC

Leverage: (Percent) Total Debt LT Debt /Capital /Capital 23 13 38 28 43 34 48 43 63 57 75 70 88 69

Cash Flow Coverage: (Multiplier) EBITDA EBIT /Interest /Interest 26.5 21.4 12.9 10.1 9.1 6.1 5.8 3.7 3.4 2.1 1.8 0.8 1.3 0.1

AM FL Y

Rating

TE

Note: From S&P’s Corporate Ratings Criteria (2002), based on median ﬁnancial ratios over 1998 to 2000 for industrial corporations. EBITDA is deﬁned as earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization.

Example 19-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 8/Credit Risk 19-3. Which of the following is Moody’s lowest credit rating? a) Aaa2 b) Baa1 c) Baa3 d) Ba2 Example 19-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 37/Credit Risk 19-4. A credit-risk analyst has calculated two signiﬁcant ﬁnancial ﬁgures for Company X; a pretax interest coverage ratio of 3.75 and long-term debt/equity of 35%. Given this information, what is the most likely rating grade that the analyst will assign to Company X? a) Investment grade b) Speculative grade c) Noninvestment grade d) Junk grade

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Historical Default Rates

Tables 19-3 and 19-4 display historical default rates as reported by Moody’s and Stan¯, dard and Poor’s, respectively. These describe the proportion of ﬁrms that default, X which is a statistical estimate of the true default probability: ¯) ⳱ p E (X

(19.1)

For example, borrowers with an initial Moody’s rating of Baa experienced an average 0.34% default rate over the next year, and 7.99% over the following ten years. Similar rates are obtained for S&P’s BBB-rated credits, who experienced an average 0.36% default rate over the next year, and 7.60% over the following ten years. Thus, higher ratings are associated with lower default rates. As a result, this information could be used as estimates of default probability for an initial rating class. In addition, the tables show that the default rate increases with the horizon, for a given initial credit rating. Credit risk increases with the horizon.

TABLE 19-3: Moody’s Cumulative Default Rates (Percent), 1920–2002 Rating Aaa Aa A Baa Ba B Caa-C Inv. Spec. All Rating Aaa Aa A Baa Ba B Caa-C Inv. Spec. All

1 0.00 0.07 0.08 0.34 1.42 4.79 14.74 0.17 3.83 1.50

2 0.00 0.22 0.27 0.99 3.43 10.31 23.95 0.50 7.75 3.09

3 0.02 0.36 0.57 1.79 5.60 15.59 30.57 0.93 11.41 4.62

4 0.09 0.54 0.92 2.69 7.89 20.14 35.32 1.41 14.69 6.02

Year 5 6 0.19 0.29 0.85 1.21 1.28 1.67 3.59 4.51 10.16 12.28 23.99 27.12 38.83 41.94 1.93 2.48 17.58 20.09 7.28 8.41

7 0.41 1.60 2.09 5.39 14.14 30.00 44.23 3.03 22.28 9.43

8 0.59 2.01 2.48 6.25 15.99 32.36 46.44 3.57 24.30 10.38

9 0.78 2.37 2.93 7.16 17.63 34.37 48.42 4.14 26.05 11.27

10 1.02 2.78 3.42 7.99 19.42 36.10 50.19 4.71 27.80 12.14

11 1.24 3.24 3.95 8.81 21.06 37.79 52.30 5.30 29.47 13.01

12 1.40 3.77 4.47 9.62 22.65 39.37 54.4 5.90 31.08 13.85

13 1.61 4.29 4.94 10.41 24.23 40.85 56.24 6.46 32.64 14.66

14 1.70 4.82 5.40 11.12 25.61 42.33 58.22 7.00 34.07 15.40

Year 15 16 1.75 1.85 5.23 5.51 5.88 6.35 11.74 12.33 26.83 27.96 43.62 44.94 60.08 61.78 7.48 7.92 35.36 36.58 16.07 16.69

17 1.96 5.75 6.63 12.95 29.13 45.91 63.27 8.30 37.72 17.24

18 2.02 5.98 6.94 13.49 30.24 46.68 64.81 8.65 38.78 17.75

19 2.14 6.30 7.23 13.93 31.14 47.32 66.25 8.99 39.67 18.21

20 2.20 6.54 7.54 14.39 32.05 47.60 67.59 9.32 40.46 18.64

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Rating AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC Inv. Spec. All

1 2 3 4 0.00 0.00 0.03 0.07 0.01 0.03 0.08 0.17 0.05 0.15 0.30 0.48 0.36 0.96 1.61 2.58 1.47 4.49 8.18 11.69 6.72 14.99 22.19 27.83 30.95 40.35 46.43 51.25 0.13 0.34 0.59 0.93 5.56 11.39 16.86 21.43 1.73 3.51 5.12 6.48

5 0.11 0.28 0.71 3.53 14.77 31.99 56.77 1.29 25.12 7.57

6 0.20 0.42 0.94 4.49 17.99 35.37 58.74 1.65 28.35 8.52

7 0.30 0.61 1.19 5.33 20.43 38.56 59.46 1.99 31.02 9.33

Year 8 0.47 0.77 1.46 6.10 22.63 41.25 59.85 2.33 33.32 10.04

9 0.54 0.90 1.78 6.77 24.85 42.90 61.57 2.64 35.24 10.66

10 0.61 1.06 2.10 7.60 26.61 44.59 62.92 2.99 36.94 11.27

11 0.61 1.20 2.37 8.48 28.47 45.84 63.41 3.32 38.40 11.81

12 0.61 1.37 2.60 9.34 29.76 46.92 63.41 3.63 39.48 12.28

13 0.61 1.51 2.84 10.22 30.98 47.71 63.41 3.95 40.40 12.71

14 0.75 1.63 3.08 11.28 31.70 48.68 64.25 4.30 41.24 13.17

15 0.92 1.77 3.46 12.44 32.56 49.57 64.25 4.75 42.05 13.69

Note: Static pool average cumulative default rates (adjusted for “not rated” borrowers).

One problem with such historical information, however, is the relative paucity of data. There are simply not many instances of highly rated borrowers that default over long horizons. For instance, S&P reports default rates up to 15 years using data from 1981 to 2002. The one-year default rates represent 23 years of data, that is, 1981, 1982, and so on to 2002. There are, however, only eight years of data for the 15-year default rates, that is, 1981-1995 to 1988-2002. Thus the sample size is much shorter (and also overlapping and therefore not independent). If so, omitting or adding a few borrowers can drastically alter the reported default rates. This can lead to inconsistencies in the tables. For instance, the default rates for CCC-borrowers is the same, at 63.41 percent, from year 11 to 13. This would imply that there is no further risk of default after 11 years, which is unrealistic. Also, when the categories are further broken down into modiﬁers (e.g., Aaa1, Aaa2, Aaa3), default rates sometimes do not decrease monotonically with the ratings, which is a small sample effect. We can try to assess the accuracy of these default rates by computing their standard error. Consider for instance the default rate over the ﬁrst year for AA-rated ¯ ⳱ 0.01% in this S&P sample. This was taken out of credits, which averaged out to X a total of about N ⳱ 8, 000 observations, which we assume to be independent. The variance of the average is, from the distribution of a binomial process, ¯) ⳱ V (X

p(1 ⫺ p) N

(19.2)

which gives a standard error of about 0.011%. This is on the same order as the average of 0.01%, indicating that there is substantial imprecision in this average default rate. So, we could not really distinguish an AA credit from an AAA credit.

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The problem is made worse with lower sample sizes, which is the case in non-U.S. markets or when the true p is changing over time. For instance, if we observe a 5% default rate among 100 observations, the standard error becomes 2.2%, which is very large. Therefore, a major issue with credit risk is that estimation of default rates for low-probability events can be very imprecise. Example 19-5: FRM Exam 1997----Question 28/Credit Risk 19-5. Based on historical data from S&P, what is the approximate historical 1-year probability of default for a BB-rated obligor? a) 0.05% b) 0.20% c) 1.0% d) 5.0% Example 19-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 29/Credit Risk 19-6. Based on historical evidence, a B-rated counterparty is approximately 16 times more likely to default over a 1-year time period than a BBB-rated counterparty. Over a 10-year time period, a B-rated counterparty is how many more times likely to default than a BBB-rated counterparty? a) 5 b) 9 c) 16 d) 24

19.2.3

Cumulative and Marginal Default Rates

The default rates reported in Tables 19-3 and 19-4 are cumulative default rates for an initial credit rating, that is, measure the total frequency of default at any time between the starting date and year T . It is also informative to measure the marginal default rate, which is the frequency of default during year T . The default process is illustrated in Figure 19-1. Here, d1 is the marginal default rate during year 1. Next, d2 is the marginal default rate during year 2. In order to default during the second year, the ﬁrm must have survived the ﬁrst year and defaulted in the second. Thus, the probability of defaulting in year 2 is given by (1⫺d1 )d2 . The cumulative probability of defaulting up to year 2 is then C2 ⳱ d1Ⳮ(1 ⫺ d1 )d2 . Subtracting and adding one, this is also C2 ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ d1 )(1 ⫺ d2 ), which perhaps has a more intuitive interpretation, as this is one minus the probability of surviving the whole period.

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More formally, we deﬁne m[t Ⳮ N 兩 R (t )] as the number of issuers rated R at the end of year t that default in year T ⳱ t Ⳮ N n[t Ⳮ N 兩 R (t )] as the number of issuers rated R at the end of year t that have not defaulted by the beginning of year t Ⳮ N FIGURE 19-1 Sequential Default Process Default d1 Default d2 Default

1-d 1

d3

No default 1- d 2 Cumulative:

No default

C 1=d 1

1- d 3 No default

C 2=d 1+(1-d

1)d 2

C 3= d 1+(1-d

1) d 2+(1-d

1)(1-d

2) d 3

Marginal Default Rate during Year T This is the proportion of issuers initially rated R at initial time t that default in year T , relative to the remaining number at the beginning of the same year T : dN (R ) ⳱

m[t Ⳮ N 兩 R (t )] n[t Ⳮ N 兩 R (t )]

Survival Rate This is the proportion of issuers initially rated R that will not have defaulted by T : SN (R ) ⳱ ⌸iN⳱1 (1 ⫺ di (R ))

(19.3)

Marginal Default Rate from Start to Year T This is the proportion of issuers initially rated R that defaulted in year T , relative to the initial number in year t . For this to happen, the issuer will have survived until year t Ⳮ N ⫺ 1, then default the next year kN (R ) ⳱ SN ⫺1 (R )dN (R )

(19.4)

Cumulative Default Rate This is the proportion of issuers initially rated R that defaulted at any point until year T CN (R ) ⳱ k1 (R ) Ⳮ k2 (R ) Ⳮ ⭈⭈⭈ Ⳮ kN (R ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ SN (R )

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Average Default Rate We can express the total cumulative default rate into an average, per period default rate d , by setting CN ⳱ 1 ⫺ ⌸iN⳱1 (1 ⫺ di ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ d )N

(19.6)

As we move from annual to semiannual and ultimately continuous compounding, the average default rate becomes CN ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ d a )N ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ d s 冫 2)2N y 1 ⫺ e⫺d

cN

(19.7)

where da , ds , dc are default rates using annual, semiannual, and continuous compounding. This is exactly equivalent to various deﬁnitions for the compounding of interest.

Example: Computing marginal and cumulative default probabilities Consider a “B” rated ﬁrm that has default rates of d1 ⳱ 5%, d2 ⳱ 7%. - In the ﬁrst year, k1 ⳱ d1 ⳱ 5%. - After 1 year, the survival rate is S1 ⳱ 0.95. - The probability of defaulting in year 2 is then k2 ⳱ S1 ⫻ d2 ⳱ 0.95 ⫻ 0.07 ⫻ ⳱ 6.65%. - After 2 years, the survival rate is (1 ⫺ d1 )(1 ⫺ d2 ) ⳱ 0.95 ⫻ 0.93 ⳱ 0.8835. - The cumulative probability of defaulting in years 1 and 2 is 5%Ⳮ6.65% ⳱ 11.65%. Based on this information, we can map these “forward”, or marginal, default rates from cumulative default rates for various credit ratings. Figure 19-2, for instance, displays cumulative default rates reported by Moody’s in Table 19-3. The marginal default rates are derived from these and plotted in Figure 19-3. It is interesting to see that the marginal probability of default increases with maturity for initial high credit ratings, but decreases for initial low credit ratings. The increase is due to a mean reversion effect. The fortunes of an Aaa-rated ﬁrm can only stay the same, at best, and often will deteriorate over time. In contrast, a B-rated ﬁrm that has survived the ﬁrst few years must have a decreasing probability of defaulting as time goes by. This is a survival effect. The analysis of default probabilities is similar to that of mortality rates for mortgage-backed securities. If the annual default rate is d , the monthly default rate, assuming it is constant, is implicitly given by (1 ⫺ dM )12 ⳱ (1 ⫺ d )

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FIGURE 19-2 Moody’s Cumulative Default Rates, 1920–2002 Default rate 100% 90% B Rated Ba Rated Baa Rated A Rated Aa Rated Aaa Rated

80% 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0%

0

2

4

6

8 10 12 14 Maturity (years)

16

18

20

FIGURE 19-3 Moody’s Marginal Default Rates, 1920–2002 5%

Default rate

B Rated Ba Rated Baa Rated A Rated Aa Rated Aaa Rated

4% 3% 2% 1% 0%

0

2

4

6

8 10 12 14 Maturity (years)

16

18

20

which says that the ﬁrm must survive all 12 months sequentially to survive the year. But, as we have seen, the marginal probability of default increases with time for high credits.

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Example 19-7: FRM Exam 1997----Question 2/Credit Risk 19-7. The probability of an AA-rated counterparty defaulting over the next year is 0.06%. Therefore, one would expect the probability of it defaulting over the next 3 months to be a) Between 0% ⫺ 0.015% b) Exactly 0.015% c) Between 0.015% ⫺ 0.030% d) Greater than 0.030% Example 19-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 37/Credit Risk 19-8. A company has a constant 30% per year probability of default. What is the probability the company will be in default after three years? a) 34% b) 48% c) 66% d) 90% Example 19-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 31/Credit Risk 19-9. According to Standard and Poor’s, the 5-year cumulative probability default for BB-rated debt is 15%. If the marginal probability of default for BB debt from year 5 to year 6 (conditional on no prior default) is 10%, then what is the 6-year cumulative probability default for BB-rated debt? a) 25% b) 16.55% c) 15% d) 23.50% Example 19-10: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Credit Risk 19-10. The ratio of the default probability of an AA-rated issuer over the default probability of a B-rated issuer a) Generally increases with time to maturity b) Generally decreases with time to maturity c) Remains roughly the same with time to maturity d) Depends on the industry sector

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Example 19-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 43/Credit Risk 19-11. The marginal default rates (conditional on no previous default) for a BB-rated ﬁrm during the ﬁrst, second, and third years are 3, 4, and 5 percent, respectively. What is the cumulative probability of defaulting over the next three years? a) 10.78 percent b) 11.54 percent c) 12.00 percent d) 12.78 percent Example 19-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 34/Credit Risk 19-12. What is the difference between the marginal default probability and the cumulative default probability? a) Marginal default probability is the probability that a borrower will default in any given year, whereas the cumulative default probability is over a speciﬁed multi-year period. b) Marginal default probability is the probability that a borrower will default due to a particular credit event, whereas the cumulative default probability is for all possible credit events. c) Marginal default probability is the minimum probability that a borrower will default, whereas the cumulative default probability is the maximum probability. d) Both a and c are correct.

19.2.4

Transition Probabilities

As we have seen, the measurement of long-term default rates can be problematic with small sample sizes. The computation of these default rates can be simpliﬁed by assuming a Markov process for the ratings migration, described by a transition matrix. Migration is a discrete process that consists of credit ratings changing from one period to the next. The transition matrix gives the probability of moving to one rating conditional on the rating at the beginning of the period. The usual assumption is that these moves follow a Markov process, or that migrations across states are independent from one period to the next.4 This type of process exhibits no carry-over effect. More formally, a Markov chain describes a stochastic process in discrete time where the conditional distribution, given today’s value, is constant over time. Only present values are relevant. 4

There is some empirical evidence, however, that credit downgrades are not independent but instead display a momentum effect.

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Table 19-5 gives an example of a simpliﬁed transition matrix for 4 states, A, B, C, D, where the last represents default. Consider a company in year 0 in the B category. The company could default: - In year 1, with probability D [t1 兩 B (t0 )] ⳱ P (D1 兩 B0 ) ⳱ 3% - In year 2, after going from B to A in the ﬁrst year, then A to D in the second, or from B to B, then to D, or from B to C, then to D. The total probability is P (D2 兩 A1 )P (A1 ) Ⳮ P (D2 兩 B1 )P (B1 ) Ⳮ P (D2 兩 C1 )P (C1 ) ⳱ 0.00 ⫻ 0.02 Ⳮ 0.03 ⫻ 0.93 Ⳮ 0.23 ⫻ 0.02 ⳱ 3.25% Table 19-5 Credit Ratings Transition Probabilities State Starting A B C D

A 0.97 0.02 0.01 0

Ending B C 0.03 0.00 0.93 0.02 0.12 0.64 0 0

D 0.00 0.03 0.23 1.00

Total Prob. 1.00 1.00 1.00 1.00

The cumulative probability of default over the two years is then 3% + 3.25% = 6.25%. Figure 19-4 illustrates the various paths to default in years 1, 2, and 3. FIGURE 19-4 Paths to Default

Time 0

Time 1

Time 2

B

B

B

B

C

C

C

D

D

Paths to default: B →D

0.03=0.0300

Default prob: 0.0300 Cumulative: 0.0300

A

A

B →A→D 0.02*0.00=0.0000 B →B→D 0.93*0.03=0.0279 B →C→D 0.02*0.23=0.0046

B →A→A→D B →A→B→D B →A→C→D B →B→A→D B →B→B→D B →B→C→D B →C→A→D B →C→B→D B →C→C→D

Time 3 A

D

0.02*0.97*0.00=0.0000 0.02*0.03*0.03=0.0000 0.02*0.00*0.23=0.0000 0.93*0.02*0.00=0.0000 0.93*0.93*0.03=0.0259 0.93*0.02*0.23=0.0043 0.02*0.00*0.00=0.0000 0.02*0.12*0.03=0.0001 0.02*0.64*0.23=0.0029

0.0325

0.0333

0.0625

0.0958

The advantage of using this approach is that the resulting data are more robust and consistent. For instance, the 15-year cumulative default rate obtained this way will always be greater than the 14-year default rate. much greater precision.

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Example 19-13: FRM Exam 2000----Question 50/Credit Risk 19-13. The transition matrix in credit risk measurement generally represents a) Probabilities of migrating from one rating quality to another over the lifetime of the loan b) Correlations among the transitions for the various rating quality assets within one year c) Correlations of various market movements that impact rating quality for a 10-day holding period d) Probabilities of migrating from one rating quality to another within one year

19.2.5

Predicting Default Probabilities

Defaults are also correlated with economic activity. Moody’s, for example, has com-

AM FL Y

pared the annual default rate to the level of industrial production since 1920. Moody’s reports a marked increase in the default rate in the 1930s at the time of the great depression. Similarly, the slowdown in economic activity around the 1990 and 2001 recessions was associated with an increase in defaults.

These default rates, however, do not control for structural shifts in the credit

TE

quality. In recent years, many issuers came to the market with a lower initial credit rating than in the past. This should lead to more defaults even with a stable economic environment.

FIGURE 19-5 Time Variation in Defaults (from S&P) Default rate 14% 12%

Shaded areas indicate recessions

B-rated Speculative grade

10%

Investment grade

8% 6% 4% 2%

1980 1982 1984 1986 1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002

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To control for this effect, Figure 19-5 plots the default rate for B credits as well as for investment-grade and speculative credits over the years 1981 to 2002. As expected, the default rate of investment-grade bonds is very low. More interestingly, however, it displays minimal variation through time. We do observe, however, signiﬁcant variation in the default rate of B credits, which peaks during the recessions that started in 1981, 1990, and 2001. Thus, economic activity signiﬁcantly affects credit risk and the effect is most marked for speculative grade bonds.

19.3

Recovery Rates

Credit risk also depends on the loss given default (LGD). This can be measured as one minus the recovery rate, or fraction recovered after default.

19.3.1

The Bankruptcy Process

Normally, default is a state that affects all obligations of an issuer equally, especially when accompanied by a bankruptcy ﬁling. In most countries, a formal bankruptcy process provides a centralized forum for resolving all the claims against the corporation. The bankruptcy process creates a pecking order for a company’s creditors. This spells out the order in which creditors are paid, thereby creating differences in the recovery rate across creditors. Within each class, however, creditors should be treated equally. In the United States, ﬁrms that are unable to make required payments can ﬁle for either Chapter 7 bankruptcy, which leads to the liquidation of the ﬁrm’s assets, or Chapter 11 bankruptcy, which leads to a reorganization of the ﬁrm during which the ﬁrm continues to operate under court supervision. Under Chapter 7, the proceeds from liquidation should be divided according to the absolute priority rule, which states that payments should be made ﬁrst to claimants with the highest priority. Table 19-6 describes the pecking order in bankruptcy proceedings. At the top of the list come secured creditors, who because of their property right are paid to the fullest extent of the value of the collateral. Then come priority creditors, which consist mainly of post-bankruptcy creditors. Finally, general creditors can be paid if funds remain after distribution to others.

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Seniority Highest (paid ﬁrst)

Lowest (paid last)

Type of Creditor (1) Secured creditors (up to the extent of secured collateral) (2) Priority creditors: - Firms that lend money during bankruptcy period - Providers of goods and services during bankruptcy period (e.g., employees, laywers, vendors) - Taxes (3) General creditors: - Unsecured creditors before bankruptcy - Shareholders

Similar rules apply under Chapter 11. In this situation, the ﬁrm must submit a reorganization plan, which speciﬁes new ﬁnancial claims to the ﬁrm’s assets. The absolute priority rule, however, is often violated in Chapter 11 settlements. Junior debt holders and stockholders often receive some proceeds even though senior shareholders are not paid in full. This is allowed to facilitate timely resolution of the bankruptcy and to avoid future lawsuits. Even so, there remain sharp differences in the recovery across seniority.

19.3.2

Estimates of Recovery Rates

Credit rating agencies measure recovery rates using the value of the debt right after default. This is viewed as the market’s best estimate of the future recovery and takes into account the value of the ﬁrm’s assets, the estimated cost of the bankruptcy process, and various means of payment (e.g., using equity to pay bondholders), discounted into the present. The recovery rate has been shown to depend on a number of factors. The status or seniority of the debtor: claims with lower seniority have lower recovery rates. The state of the economy: recovery rates tend to be lower when the economy is in a recession. Ratings can also include the loss given default. The same borrower may have various classes of debt, which may have different credit ratings due to the different level of protection. If so, debt with lower seniority should carry a lower rating.

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Tables 19-7 and 19-8 display recovery rates for corporate debt. Moody’s, for instance, estimates the average recovery rate for senior unsecured debt at f ⳱ 49%. S&P estimates this number at around f ⳱ 47%, which is quite close. Generally, agencies conservatively estimate recovery rates to be in the range of 25 to 44 percent for senior unsecured bonds. Derivative instruments rank as senior unsecured creditors and would be expected to have the same recovery rates as senior unsecured debt. Bank loans are usually secured and therefore have higher recovery rates, typically assumed to be in the range of 50 to 60 percent. As expected, subordinated bonds and preferred stocks have the lowest recovery rates, typically assumed to be in the range of 15 to 28 percent. TABLE 19-7: Moody’s Recovery Rates for U.S. Corporate Debt Seniority/Security Senior/Secured bank loans Equipment trust bonds Senior/Secured bonds Senior/Unsecured bonds Senior/Subordinated bonds Subordinated bonds Junior/Subordinated bonds Preferred stocks All

Min. 15.00 8.00 7.50 0.50 0.50 1.00 3.63 0.05 0.05

1st Qu. 60.00 26.25 31.00 30.75 21.34 19.62 11.38 5.03 21.00

Median 75.00 70.63 53.00 48.00 35.50 30.00 16.25 9.13 38.00

Mean 69.91 59.96 52.31 48.84 39.46 33.17 19.69 11.06 42.11

3rd Qu. 88.00 85.00 65.25 67.00 53.47 42.94 24.00 12.91 61.22

Max. 98.00 103.00 125.00 122.60 123.00 99.13 50.00 49.50 125.00

Std.Dev. 23.47 31.08 25.15 25.01 24.59 20.78 13.85 9.09 26.53

TABLE 19-8: S&P’s Historical Recovery Rates for Corporate Debt Seniority ranking Senior secured Senior unsecured Subordinated Junior subordinated Total

Number of observations 91 237 177 144 649

Average issue size ($ million) 117.8 97.5 145.5 81.9 110.0

Simple average Price 54.28 46.57 35.20 34.98 41.98

Standard deviation of Price 24.25 25.24 24.67 22.32 25.23

Weighted average Price 49.32 47.09 32.46 35.51 40.23

Source: S&P, from 649 defaulted bond prices over 1981–1999.

There is, however, much variation around the average recovery rates, as Table 19-7 shows. The table reports not only the average value but also the standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and ﬁrst and third quartile. Recovery rates vary widely. In addition, recovery rates are negatively related to default rates. During years with more bond defaults, prices after default are more depressed than usual. This correlation creates bigger losses, which extends the left tail of the credit loss distribution.

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Another difﬁculty is that these recovery rates are mainly drawn from a sample of U.S. ﬁrms, which fall under the jurisdiction of U.S. bankruptcy laws. Differences across national jurisdictions will create additional differences among recovery rates. So, these numbers can only serve as a guide to non-U.S. recovery rates. Example 19-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 58/Credit Risk 19-14. When measuring credit risk, for the same counterparty a) A loan obligation is generally rated higher than a bond obligation. b) A bond obligation is generally rated higher than a loan obligation. c) A bond obligation is generally rated the same as a loan obligation. d) Loans are never rated so it’s impossible to compare.

19.4

Application to Portfolio Rating

Much of ﬁnancial engineering is about repackaging ﬁnancial instruments to make them more palatable to investors, creating value in the process. In the 1980s, collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) brought mortgage-backed securities to the masses by repackaging their cash ﬂows into tranches with different characteristics. The same magic is performed with collateralized debt obligations (CDOs), which are securities backed by a diversiﬁed pool of corporate bonds and loans. Collateralized bond obligations (CBOs) and collateralized loan obligations (CLOs) are backed by bonds and loans, respectively. Figure 19-6 illustrates a typical CDO structure. FIGURE 19-6 Collateralized Debt Obligation Structure Special Purpose Vehicle Tranche A/Aaa L+45bp

High-yield bonds Collateral: Pool of bond obligations

Percent of capital structure 69%

Tranche B/A3 L+130bp

10%

Tranche C/Baa2 L+225bp

5.5%

Tranche D/Ba3 L+625bp

5.5%

Equity/NR 22-27%

10%

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The ﬁrst step is to place a package of high-yield bonds in a special-purpose vehicle (SPV). The second step is to specify the waterfall, or priority of payments to the various tranches. Here, 69% of the capital structure is apportioned to tranche A, which has the highest credit rating of Aaa; it pays LIBOR Ⳮ 45bp. Other tranches have lower priority and rating; intermediate tranches are typically called mezzanine. At the bottom comes the equity tranche, which is not rated. After payment to the other tranches and costs, the excess spread can be around 2.5 to 3%, which with a 10-to-1 leverage gives a yield of 25 to 30% to equity investors. In exchange, the equity is exposed to the ﬁrst dollar loss in the portfolio. Thus, the rating enhancement for the senior classes is achieved through prioritizing the cash ﬂows. Rating agencies have developed internal models to rate the senior tranches based on the probability of shortfalls due to defaults. Whatever transformation is brought about, the resulting package must obey some basic laws of conservation. For the underlying and resulting securities, we must have the same cash ﬂows at each point in time. As a result, this implies (1) The same total market value (2) The same risk proﬁle, both for interest rate and default risk The weighted duration of the ﬁnal package must equal that of the underlying securities. The expected default rate, averaged by market values, must be the same. So, if some tranches are less risky, others must bear more risk. Like CMOs, CDOs are often structured so that most of the tranches have less risk. Inevitably, the remaining residual tranche is more risky. This is sometimes called “toxic waste.” If this residual is cheap enough, however, some investors should be willing to buy it. CDO transactions are typically classiﬁed as balance sheet or arbitrage. The primary goal of balance sheet CDOs is to move loans off the balance sheet of commercial banks to lower regulatory capital requirements. In contrast, arbitrage CDOs are designed to capture the spread between the portfolio of underlying securities and that of highly rated, overlying, tranches. Such CDOs exploit differences in the funding costs of assets and liabilities. The spreads on high-yield debt have historically more than compensated investors for their credit risk, which reﬂects a liquidity effect, or risk premium. Because CDO senior tranches create more liquid assets with automatic diversiﬁcation, investors require a lower risk premium for these. The arbitrage proﬁt then goes into the equity tranche (but also into management and investment banking fees.)

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The credit risk transfer can be achieved by cash ﬂow or synthetic structures. The example in Figure 19-6 is typical of traditional, or funded, cash-ﬂow CDOs. The physical assets are sold to a SPV and the underlying cash ﬂows used to back payments to the issued notes. In contrast, the credit risk exposure of synthetic CDOs is achieved with credit derivatives, which will be covered in a later chapter. Finally, CDOs differ in the management of the asset pool. In static CDOs, the asset pool is basically ﬁxed. In contrast, with managed CDOs, a portfolio manager is allowed to trade actively the underlying assets. This allows him or her to unwind assets with decreasing credit quality or to reinvest redeemed issues. Example 19-15: FRM Exam 2001----Question 12 19-15. A pool of high yield bonds is placed in a SPV and three tranches (including the equity tranche) of bonds are issued collateralized by the bonds to create a Collateralized Bond Obligation (CBO). Which of the following is true? a) At fair value the value of the issued bonds should be less than the collateral. b) At fair value the total default probability, weighted by size of issue, of the issued bonds should equal the default probability of the collateral pool. c) The equity tranche of the CBO has the least risk of default. d) The yield on the low risk tranche must be greater than the yield on the collateral pool. Example 19-16: FRM Exam 1998----Question 8/Credit Risk 19-16. In a typical collateralized bond obligation (CBO), a pool of high-yield bonds is posted as collateral and the cash ﬂows from the collateral are structured as several classes of securities (the offered securities) with different credit ratings and a residual piece (the equity), which absorbs most of the default risk. When comparing the market value weighted average rating of the collateral and that of the offered securities, which of the following is true? a) The market value weighted average rating of the collateral is about the same as the offered securities. b) The market value weighted average rating of the collateral is higher than the offered securities. c) The market value weighted average rating of the collateral is lower than the offered securities. d) The market value weighted average rating of the collateral may be lower or higher than the offered securities.

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19.5

Assessing Corporate and Sovereign Rating

19.5.1

Corporate Default

433

One issue is whether these ratings are the best forecasts of default probabilities based on public information. A substantial academic literature has examined this question and has generally concluded that ratings can be reasonably predicted from accounting information. provide important information about a ﬁrm’s viability. Analysts focus on the balance sheet leverage often deﬁned in terms of the debt-toequity ratio, and the debt coverage, deﬁned in terms of the ratio of income over debt payment. All else equal, companies with higher leverage and lower debt coverage are more likely to default. By nature, however, accounting information is backward-looking. The economic prospects of a company are even more important for assessing credit risk. These include growth potential, market competition, and exposure to ﬁnancial risk factors. Because they are forward-looking, market-based variables such as bond credit spreads and equity prices contain better forecasts of default probabilities than ratings. The data presented so far described default rates for U.S. industrial corporations. The next question is whether this historical experience applies to other countries. We would expect some difference in ratings transition because of a number of factors: Differences in ﬁnancial stability across countries: countries have different ﬁnancial market structures, such as the strength of the banking system, and different government policies. The mishandling of economic policy can turn, for instance, what should be a minor devaluation into a major problem leading to a recession. Differences in legal systems: the protection accorded to creditors can vary widely across countries, some of which have not yet established a bankruptcy process. Differences in industrial structure: there may be differences in default rates across countries simply due to different industrial structure. There is evidence that default rates vary across U.S. industries even with identical credit ratings.

19.5.2

Sovereign Default

Rating agencies have only recently started to rate sovereign bonds. In 1975, S&P only rated seven countries, all of which were investment grade. By 1990, the pool had expanded to thirty-one countries, of which only nine were from emerging markets.

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In now, S&P rates approximately 90 countries. The history of default is even more sparse, making it difﬁcult to generalize from a very small sample. Assessing sovereign credit risk is signiﬁcantly more difﬁcult than for corporates. When a corporate borrower defaults, legal action can be taken by the creditors. For instance, an unsecured creditor can ﬁle an action against a debtor and have the defendant’s assets seized under a “writ of attachment.” This creates a lien on its assets, or a claim on the assets as security for the payment of the debt. In contrast, it is impossible to attach the domestic assets of a sovereign nation. This implies that recovery rates on sovereign debt are usually lower than on corporate debt. Thus, sovereign credit evaluation involves not only economic risk (the ability to repay debts when due), but also political risk (the willingness to pay). Sovereign credit ratings also differ depending on whether the debt is local currency debt or foreign currency debt. Table 19-9 displays the factors entering local and foreign currency ratings. TABLE 19-9: Credit Ratings Factors Categories Political risk Price stability Income and economic structure Economic growth prospects Fiscal ﬂexibility Public debt burden Balance of payment ﬂexibility External debt and liquidity

Local Currency x x x x x x

Foreign Currency x x x x x x x x

Political risk factors (e.g., degree of political consensus, integration in global trade and ﬁnancial system, and internal or external security risk) play an important part in sovereign credit risk. Factors affecting local currency debt include economic, ﬁscal, and especially monetary risks. High rates of inﬂation typically reﬂect economic mismanagement and are associated with political instability. Countries rated AAA, for instance, have inﬂation rates from 0 to at most 10%; BB-rated countries have inﬂation rates ranging from 25% to 100%. Important factors affecting foreign currency debt include the international investment position of a country (that is, public and private external debt), the stock of foreign currency reserves, and patterns in the balance of payment. In particular, the ratio of external interest payments to exports is closely watched.

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In the case of the Asian crisis, agencies seem to have overlooked other important aspects of creditworthiness, such as the currency and maturity structure of national debt. Too many Asian creditors had borrowed short-term in dollars to invest in the local currency, which created a severe liquidity problem. Admittedly, the credit valuation process can be hindered by the reluctance of foreign nations to provide timely information. In the case of Argentina, on the other hand, most observers had anticipated a default. This was due to a combination of high external debt, slow economic growth, unwillingness to make the necessary spending adjustments, and ultimately was a political decision. Because local currency debt is backed by the taxation power of the government, local currency debt is considered to have less credit risk than foreign currency debt. Table 19-10 displays local and foreign currency debt ratings for a sample of countries. Ratings for foreign currency debt are the same, or one notch below, those of local currency debt. Similarly, sovereign debt is typically rated higher than corporate debt in the same country. Governments can repay foreign currency debt, for instance, by controlling capital ﬂows or seizing foreign currency reserves. TABLE 19-10: Standard & Poor’s Sovereign Long-Term Credit Ratings Selected Countries, March 2003 Issuer Argentina Australia Belgium Brazil Canada China France Germany Hong Kong Japan Korea Mexico Netherlands Russia South Africa Spain Switzerland Taiwan Thailand Turkey United Kingdom United States

Local Currency SD AAA AAⳭ BB AAA AAA AAA AA⫺ AA⫺ AⳭ A⫺ AAA BBⳭ A⫺ AAⳭ AAA AA⫺ A⫺ B⫺ AAA AAA

Foreign Currency SD AAA AAⳭ BⳭ AAA BBB AAA AAA AⳭ AA⫺ A⫺ BBB⫺ AAA BB BBB⫺ AAⳭ AAA AA⫺ BBB⫺ B⫺ AAA AAA

Note : Argentina is rated selective default (SD).

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Overall, sovereign debt ratings are considered less reliable than corporate ratings. Indeed, corporate bond spreads are greater for sovereigns than corporate issuers. In 1999, for example, the average spread on dollar-denominated sovereign bonds rated BB was about 160bp higher than for identically-rated corporates. There are also greater differences in sovereign ratings across agencies than for corporates. The evaluation of sovereign credit risk seems to be a much more subjective process than for corporates. Example 19-17: FRM Exam 1997----Question 27/Credit Risk 19-17. Which of the following credit events usually takes place ﬁrst? a) A bond is downgraded by a rating agency. b) A bond’s credit spread widens.

TE

AM FL Y

Example 19-18: FRM Exam 2001----Question 2 19-18. (Requires knowledge of markets) Which of the following is the best rated country according to the most important ratings agencies? a) Argentina b) Brazil c) Mexico d) Peru Example 19-19: FRM Exam 1999----Question 121/Credit Risk 19-19. In assessing the sovereign credit, a number of criteria are considered. Which of the following is the more critical one? a) Fiscal position of the government b) Prospect for domestic output and demand c) International asset position d) Structure of the government’s debt and debt service (external and internal) Example 19-20: FRM Exam 1998----Question 36/Credit Risk 19-20. What is the most signiﬁcant difference to consider when assessing the credit worthiness of a country rather than a company? a) The country’s willingness and its ability to pay must be analyzed. b) Financial data on a country is often available only with long lags. c) It is more costly to do due diligence on a country rather than on a company. d) A country is often unwilling to disclose sensitive ﬁnancial information.

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Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 19-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 5/Credit Risk b) Calling back a bond occurs when the borrower wants to reﬁnance its debt at a lower cost, which is not a credit event. Example 19-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 128/Credit Risk d) Losses I and II are due to market risk. Loss III is a credit event, due to restructuring. Loss IV is a tax event deriving from governmental action.. So, III and IV qualify as event risks. Example 19-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 8/Credit Risk d) Ba2 is the lowest rating among the list. Example 19-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 37/Credit Risk a) The cutoff point for pretax interest coverage ratio in Table 19-4 is 3.7 for BBB credits, which is similar to the ratio of 3.75 for company X. More importantly, the LT debt/equity ratio of 35% for company X translates into a LT debt/capital ratio of 26% (obtained as 35%/(1 + 35%) = 26%). Because this is well below the cutoff point of 43% for BBB-credits in Table 19-4, the category must be investment grade. Example 19-5: FRM Exam 1997----Question 28/Credit Risk c) This default rate is 1.47% from Table 19-4. Similarly, the Moody’s default rate for Ba credits is 1.42%. Example 19-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 29/Credit Risk a) From Table 19-4, the ratio of B to BBB defaults for a 1-year horizon is 6.72/0.36 ⳱ 19, which is slightly higher than the 16 ratio in the ﬁrst part of the question. The numbers are different because of variances in sample periods. The ratio at 10-year horizon is 44.59/7.60 ⳱ 6, which is close to 5. Intuitively, the default rate on B credits should increase at a lower rate than that on BBB credits. The cumulative default rate on B credits starts with a high value but cannot go above one. Example 19-7: FRM Exam 1997----Question 2/Credit Risk a) Using (1 ⫺ dM )4 ⳱ (1 ⫺ 0.06%), we ﬁnd an average rate of dM ⳱ 0.015%. For the next quarter, however, the marginal default rate will be lower because d increases with maturity for high credit ratings.

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Example 19-8: FRM Exam 2000----Question 37/Credit Risk c) The probability of surviving is (1 ⫺ d )3 ⳱ 0.343; hence the probability of default at any point during the next three years is 66%. Example 19-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 31/Credit Risk d) The cumulative 6-year default rate is given by C6 (R ) ⳱ C5 (R ) Ⳮ k6 ⳱ C5 (R ) Ⳮ S5 ⫻ d6 ⳱ 0.15 Ⳮ (1 ⫺ 0.15) ⫻ 0.10 ⳱ 0.235. Example 19-10: FRM Exam 1997----Question 10/Credit Risk a) The question could refer to the cumulative or marginal probabilities. Intuitively, the probability is low for AA credit for short maturities but increases more, relative to the starting value, than for lower credits. Using the cumulative probabilities for AA and B credits in Table 19-4, we have, for 1 year, a ratio of 0.01/6.72 = 0.001 and, for 10 years, a ratio of 2.10/44.59 = 0.05. This increases with maturity. Similarly, the marginal default probability increases with time for high credits and decreases for low credits. Example 19-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 43/Credit Risk b) This is one minus the survival rate over 3 years: S3 (R ) ⳱ (1 ⫺ d1 )(1 ⫺ d2 )(1 ⫺ d3 ) ⳱ (1 ⫺ 0.03)(1 ⫺ 0.04)(1 ⫺ 0.05) ⳱ 0.8856. Hence, the cumulative default rate is 0.1154. Example 19-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 34/Credit Risk a) The marginal default rate is the probability of defaulting over the next year, conditional on having survived to the beginning of the year. Example 19-13: FRM Exam 2000----Question 50/Credit Risk d) The transition matrix represents the conditional probability of moving from one rating to another over a ﬁxed period, typically a year. Example 19-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 58/Credit Risk a) The recovery rate on loans is typically higher than that on bonds. Hence the credit rating, if it involves both probability of default and recovery, should be higher for loans than for bonds.

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Example 19-15: FRM Exam 2001-15 b) The market values and weighted probability of default should be equal for the collateral and various tranches. So, (a) is wrong. The equity tranche has the highest risk of default, so (c) is wrong. The yield on the low risk tranche must be the lowest, so (d) is wrong. Example 19-16: FRM Exam 1998----Question 8/Credit Risk c) The rating of the collateral must be between that of the offered securities and the residual. Say that the collateral is rated B, with 5% probability of default (PD); the offered securities represent 80% of the total market value. These are more highly rated than the collateral because the equity absorbs the default risk. If the offered securities are rated BB (with 1% PD), the equity must be such that 80% ⫻ 0.01 Ⳮ 20% ⫻ x ⳱ 0.05, which yields an PD of 21% for the equity, close to a CCC rating. Example 19-17: FRM Exam 1997----Question 27/Credit Risk b) The empirical evidence is that bond prices lead changes in credit ratings, because they are forward-looking instead of ratings. Example 19-18: FRM Exam 2001----Question 2 c) Mexico is the most highly rated country of this group, according to the table of S&P ratings. Argentina is in Selective Default (SD) since 2001. As of early 2003, Mexico is rated BBB⫺, Peru is rated BB⫺, Brazil is rated BⳭ. Example 19-19: FRM Exam 1999----Question 121/Credit Risk d) Empirically, the ratio of debt to exports seems to be the most important factor driving sovereign ratings (see the Handbook of Emerging Markets, pp. 10–11). Example 19-20: FRM Exam 1998----Question 36/Credit Risk a) Countries cannot be forced into bankruptcy. There is no enforcement mechanism for payment to creditors such as for private companies. Recent history has shown that a country can simply decide to renege on its debt. So, willingness to pay is a major factor.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 20 Measuring Default Risk from Market Prices The previous chapter discussed how to quantify credit risk from categorization into credit risk ratings. Based on these external ratings, we can forecast credit losses from historical default rates and recovery rates. Credit risk can also be assessed from market prices of securities whose values are affected by default. This includes corporate bonds, equities, and credit derivatives. In principle, these should provide more up-to-date and accurate measures of credit risk because ﬁnancial markets have access to a large amount of information. This chapter shows how to infer default risk from market prices. Section 20.1 will show how to use information about the market prices of creditsensitive bonds to infer default risk. In this chapter, we will call defaultable debt interchangeably credit-sensitive, corporate, and risky debt. Here, risky refers to credit risk and not market risk. We show how to break down the yield on a corporate bond into a default probability, a recovery rate, and a risk-free yield. Section 20.2 then turns to equity prices. The advantage of using equity prices is that they are much more widely available and of much better quality than corporate bond prices. We show how equity can be viewed as a call option on the value of the ﬁrm and how a default probability can be inferred from the value of this option. This approach also explains why credit positions are akin to short positions in options and are characterized by distributions that are skewed to the left. Chapter 22 will discuss credit derivatives, which can also be used to infer default risk.

20.1

Corporate Bond Prices

To assess the credit risk of a transaction with a counterparty, consider creditsensitive bonds issued by the same counterparty. We assume that default is a state that affects all obligations equally.

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Spreads and Default Risk

Assume for simplicity that the bond makes only one payment of $100 in one period. We can compute a market-determined yield y ⴱ from the price P ⴱ as Pⴱ ⳱

$100 (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )

(20.1)

This can be compared with the risk-free yield over the same period y . The payoffs on the bond can be described by a simpliﬁed default process, which is illustrated in Figure 20-1. At maturity, the bond can be in default or not. Its value is $100 if there is no default and f ⫻ $100 if default occurs, where f is the fractional recovery. We deﬁne π as the default rate over the period. How can we value this bond? FIGURE 20-1 A Simpliﬁed Bond Default Process

Probability =p

Default Payoff = f × $100

Initial price P*

No default Payoff = $100

Probability =1–p

Using risk-neutral pricing, the current price must be the mathematical expectation of the values in the two states, discounting the payoffs at the risk-free rate. Hence, Pⴱ ⳱

冋

册

冋

册

$100 $100 f ⫻ $100 ⫻ (1 ⫺ π ) Ⳮ ⫻π ⳱ ⴱ (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y ) (1 Ⳮ y )

(20.2)

Note that the discounting uses the risk-free rate y because there is no risk premium with risk-neutral valuation. After rearranging terms, (1 Ⳮ y ) ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )[1 ⫺ π (1 ⫺ f )]

(20.3)

which implies a default probability of π⳱

冋

1 (1 Ⳮ y ) 1⫺ (1 ⫺ f ) (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )

册

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Dropping second-order terms, this simpliﬁes into y ⴱ ⬇ y Ⳮ π (1 ⫺ f )

(20.5)

This equation shows that the credit spread y ⴱ ⫺ y measures credit risk, more speciﬁcally the probability of default, π , times the loss given default, (1 ⫺ f ). Let us now consider multiple periods, which number T . We compound interest rates and default rates over each period. In other words, π is now the average annual default rate. Assuming one payment only, the present value is Pⴱ ⳱

冋

$100 $100 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )T (1 Ⳮ y )T

册

⫻ (1 ⫺ π )T Ⳮ

冋

册

f ⫻ $100 ⫻ [1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ π )T ] (1 Ⳮ y )T

(20.6)

which can be written as (1 Ⳮ y )T ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ )T 兵(1 ⫺ π )T Ⳮ f [1 ⫺ (1 ⫺ π )T ]其

(20.7)

Unfortunately, this does not simplify further. When we have risky bonds of various maturities, this can be used to compute default probabilities for different horizons. If we have two periods, for example, we could use Equation (20.3) to ﬁnd the probability of defaulting over the ﬁrst period π1 , and Equation (20.7) to ﬁnd the annualized, or average, probability of defaulting over the ﬁrst two periods, or π2 . As we have seen in the previous chapter, the marginal probability of defaulting d2 in the second period is given by solving (1 ⫺ π2 )2 ⳱ (1 ⫺ π1 )(1 ⫺ d2 )

(20.8)

This enables us to recover a term structure of forward default probabilities from a sequence of zero-coupon bonds. In practice, if we only have access to coupon-paying bonds, the computation becomes more complicated because we need to consider the payments in each period with and without default.

20.1.2

Risk Premium

It is worth emphasizing that this approach assumed risk-neutrality. As in the methodology for pricing options, we assumed both that the value of any asset grows at the risk-free rate and can be discounted at the same risk-free rate. Thus the probability measure π is a risk-neutral measure, which is not necessarily equal to the objective, physical, probability of default.

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Deﬁning this objective probability as π ⬘ and the discount rate as y ⬘, the current price can be also expressed in terms of the true expected value discounted at the risky rate y ⬘: Pⴱ ⳱

冋

册

冋

册

$100 $100 f ⫻ $100 ⫻ (1 ⫺ π ⬘) Ⳮ ⫻ π⬘ ⳱ (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ ) (1 Ⳮ y ⬘) (1 Ⳮ y ⬘)

(20.9)

Equation (20.4) allows us to recover a risk-neutral default probability only. More generally, if investors require some compensation for bearing credit risk, the credit spread will include a risk premium rp y ⴱ ⬇ y Ⳮ π ⬘(1 ⫺ f ) Ⳮ rp

(20.10)

To be meaningful, this risk premium must be tied to some measure of bond riskiness as well as investor risk aversion. In addition, this premium may incorporate a liquidity premium, because the corporate issue may not be as easily traded as the corresponding Treasury issue and tax effects.1 Key concept: The yield spread betwen a corporate bond and an otherwise identical bond with no credit risk reﬂects the expected actuarial loss, or annual default rate times the loss given default, plus a risk premium.

Example: Deriving default probabilities We wish to compare a 10-year U.S. Treasury strip and a 10-year zero issued by International Business Machines (IBM), which is rated A by S&P and Moody’s. The respective yields are 6% and 7%, using semiannual compounding. Assuming that the recovery rate is 45% of the face value, what does the credit spread imply for the probability of default? Using Equation (20.1), we ﬁnd that π (1 ⫺ f ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ (1 Ⳮ y 冫 200)20 冫 (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ 冫 200)20 ⳱ 0.0923. Hence, π ⳱ 9.23%冫 (1 ⫺ 45%) ⳱ 16.8%. Therefore, the cumulative (risk-neutral) probability of defaulting during next ten years is 16.8%. This number is rather high 1

For a decomposition of the yield spread into risk premium effects, see Elton, E., Gruber M., Agrawal D., & Mann C. (2001). Explaining the rate spread on corporate bonds. Journal of Finance, 56(1), 247–277. The authors ﬁnd a large risk premium, which they relate to common risk factors from the stock market. Part of the risk premium is also due to tax effects. Because Treasury coupon payments are no taxable at the state level, for example New York state, investors are willing to accept a lower yield on Treasury bonds, which artiﬁcially increases the corporate yield spread.

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compared with the historical record for this risk class. Table 19-3, Moody’s reports a historical 10-year default rate for A-credits of 3.4% only. If these historical default rates are used as the future probability of default, the implication is that a large part of the credit spread reﬂects a risk premium. For instance, assume that 80 basis points out of the 100 basis points credit spread reﬂects a risk premium. We change the 7% yield to 6.2% and ﬁnd a probability of default of 3.5%. This is more in line with the actual default experience of such issuers. Example 20-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 3/Credit Risk 20-1. When comparing the zero curve (semiannual compounding) of riskless bonds and risky bonds, one can estimate the implied default probabilities by examining the spread between the two. Assuming the 1-year riskless zero rate is 5%, the risky zero rate is 5.5%, and the recovery rate is zero, what is the implied 1-year default probability? a) 0.24% b) 0.48% c) 0.97% d) 1.92% Example 20-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Credit Risk 20-2. Assume the 3-month U.S. Treasury yield is 5.5% and the Eurodollar deposit rate is 6% (both on simple interest basis). What is the approximate probability of the Eurodollar deposit defaulting over its life (assuming a zero recovery rate)? a) 0.01% b) 0.1% c) 0.5% d) 1.0% Example 20-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 24/Credit Risk 20-3. Assume the 1-year U.S. Treasury yield is 5.5% (on simple interest basis) and a default probability of 1% for 1-year Commercial Paper. What should the yield of 1-year Commercial Paper be (on simple interest basis) assuming 50% recovery rate? a) 6.0% b) 6.5% c) 7.0% d) 7.5%

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The Cross-Section of Yield Spreads

We now turn to actual market data. Figure 20-2 illustrates a set of par yield curves for various credits as of December 1998. For reference, the spreads are listed in Table 20-1. The curves are sorted by credit rating, from AAA to B, using S&P’s ratings. cumulative default rates reported in the previous chapter. They increase with maturity and with lower credit quality. FIGURE 20-2 Yield Curves For Different Credits 10%

Yields B

9% BB

AM FL Y

8% BBB

7%

A AA AAA

6%

Treasuries

4%

TE

5%

1/4 1/2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

15 20 Maturity (years)

30

TABLE 20-1 Credit Spreads Maturity (Years) 3M 6M 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 15 20 30

AAA 46 40 45 51 47 50 61 53 45 45 51 59 55 52 60

Credit AA A 54 74 46 67 53 74 62 88 55 87 57 92 68 108 61 102 53 95 50 94 56 98 66 104 61 99 66 99 78 117

Rating BBB BB 116 172 106 177 112 191 133 220 130 225 138 241 157 266 154 270 150 274 152 282 161 291 169 306 161 285 156 278 179 278

B 275 275 289 321 328 358 387 397 407 420 435 450 445 455 447

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The lowest curve is the Treasury curve, which represents risk-free bonds. Spreads for AAA-credits are low, starting at 46bp at short maturities and increasing to 60bp at longer maturities Spreads for B-credits are much wider; they also increase faster, from 275 to 450. Finally, note how close together the AAA to AA spreads are, in spite of the fact that default probabilities approximately double from AAA to AA. The transition from Treasuries to AAA credits most likely reﬂects other factors, such as liquidity and tax effects, rather than credit risk. The previous sections have shown that we could use information in corporate bond yields to make inferences about credit risk. Indeed, bond prices represent the best assessment of traders, or real “bets,” on credit risk. As such, we would expect bond prices to be the best predictors of credit risk and to outperform credit ratings. To the extent that agencies use public information to form their credit rating, this information should be subsumed into market prices. Bond prices are also revised more frequently than credit ratings. As a result, movements in corporate bond prices tend to lead changes in credit ratings. Example 20-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 11/Credit Risk 20-4. What can be said about the spread (S1) between AAA and A credits, and the spread between BBB and B credits (S2) in general? a) S1 is equal to S2. b) S1 ⱖ S2. c) S1 ⱕ S2. d) S1 may be less or more than S2. Example 20-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 136/Credit Risk 20-5. Suppose XYZ Corp. has two bonds paying semiannually according to the table: Remaining Coupon T-bill rate maturity (sa 30/360) Price (bank discount) 6 months 8.0% 99 5.5% 1 year 9.0% 100 6.0% The recovery rate for each in the event of default is 50%. For simplicity, assume that each bond will default only at the end of a coupon period. The market-implied risk-neutral probability of default for XYZ Corp. is a) Greater in the ﬁrst six-month period than the second b) Equal for both coupon periods c) Greater in the second six-month period than the ﬁrst d) Cannot be determined from the information provided

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT

The Time-Series of Yield Spreads

Credit spreads reﬂect potential losses caused by default risk, and perhaps a risk premium. Some of this default risk is speciﬁc to the issuer and requires a detailed analysis of its prospective ﬁnancial condition. Part of this risk, however, can be attributed to common credit factors. These common factors are particularly important as they cannot be diversiﬁed away in a large portfolio of credit-sensitive bonds. First among these factors are general economic conditions. Economic growth is negatively correlated with credit spreads. When the economy slows down, more companies are likely to have cash-ﬂow problems and to default on their bonds. Indeed, Figure 13-6 shows that spreads widen during recessions. An inverting term structure, which indicates monetary tightening and lower expectations of growth, is similarly associated with a widening credit spread. Volatility is also a factor. In a more volatile environment, investors may require larger risk premiums, thus increasing credit spreads. When this happens, liquidity may also dry up. Investors may then require a greater credit spread in order to hold increasingly illiquid securities. In addition, volatility can have another effect. Corporate bond indices include many callable bonds, unlike Treasury indices. As a result, credit spreads also reﬂect this option component. The buyer of a callable bond requires a higher yield in exchange for granting the call option. Because the value of this option increases with volatility, greater volatility should also increase the credit spread.

20.2

Equity Prices

The credit spread approach, unfortunately, is only useful when there is good bond market data. The problem is that this is rarely the case, for a number of reasons. 1. Many countries do not have a well-developed corporate bond market. As Table 7-1 has shown, the United States has by far the largest corporate bond market. This means that other countries have much fewer outstanding bonds and a much less active market. 2. The counterparty may not have an outstanding publicly traded bond or if so, the bond may contain other features such as a call. 3. The bond may not trade actively and instead reported prices may simply be matrix prices, that is, interpolated from other, current yields.

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The Merton Model

An alternative is to turn to default risk models based on stock prices, because equity prices are available for a larger number of companies and are more actively traded than corporate bonds. The Merton (1974) model views equity as akin to a call option on the assets of the ﬁrm, with an exercise price given by the face value of debt. To simplify to the extreme, consider a ﬁrm with total value V that has one bond due in one period with face value K . If the value of the ﬁrm exceeds the promised payment, the bond is repaid in full and stockholders receive the remainder. However, if V is less than K , the ﬁrm is in default and the bondholders receive V only. The value of equity goes to zero. Throughout, we assume that there are no transaction costs. Hence, the value of the stock at expiration is ST ⳱ Max(VT ⫺ K, 0)

(20.11)

Because the bond and equity add up to the ﬁrm value, the value of the bond must be BT ⳱ VT ⫺ ST ⳱ VT ⫺ Max(VT ⫺ K, 0) ⳱ Min(VT , K )

(20.12)

The current stock price, therefore, embodies a forecast of default probability, in the same way that an option embodies a forecast of being exercised. Figures 20-3 and 20-4 describe how the value of the ﬁrm can be split up into the bond and stock values. FIGURE 20-3 Equity as an Option on the Value of the Firm Value of the firm

Equity Face value of debt

K

0

Debt

K

Value of the firm

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Note that the bond value can also be described as BT ⳱ K ⫺ Max(K ⫺ VT , 0)

(20.13)

In other words, a long position in a risky bond is equivalent to a long position in a risk-free bond plus a short put option, which is really a credit derivative. FIGURE 20-4 Components of the Value of the Firm Equity

0 Debt

K

K

0

Value of the firm

Key concept: Equity can be viewed as a call option on the ﬁrm value with strike price equal to the face value of debt. Corporate debt can be viewed as risk-free debt minus a put option on the ﬁrm value. This approach is particularly illuminating because it demonstrates that corporate debt has a payoff akin to a short position in an option, explaining the left skewness that is so characteristic of credit losses. In contrast, equity is equivalent to a long position in an option due to its limited liability feature, that is, investors can lose no more than their equity investment.

20.2.2

Pricing Equity and Debt

To illustrate, we proceed along the lines of the usual Black-Scholes (BS) framework, assuming the ﬁrm value follows the geometric Brownian motion process dV ⳱ µV dt Ⳮ σ V dz

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If we assume that markets are frictionless and that there are no bankruptcy costs, the value of the ﬁrms is simply the sum of the ﬁrm’s equity and debt: V ⳱ B Ⳮ S . To price a claim on the value of the ﬁrm, we need to solve a partial differential equation with appropriate boundary conditions. The corporate bond price is obtained as B ⳱ F (V , t ),

F (V , T ) ⳱ Min[V , BF ]

(20.15)

where BF ⳱ K is the face value of the bond to be repaid at expiration, or strike price. Similarly, the equity value is S ⳱ f (V , t ),

f (V , T ) ⳱ Max[V ⫺ BF , 0]

(20.16)

Stock Valuation The value of the stock is given by the BS formula S ⳱ Call ⳱ V N (d1 ) ⫺ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 )

(20.17)

where N (d ) is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution, and d1 ⳱

ln (V 冫 Ke⫺r τ ) σ 冪τ

Ⳮ

σ 冪τ , 2

d2 ⳱ d1 ⫺ σ 冪τ

where τ ⳱ T ⫺ t is the time to expiration. If we deﬁne x ⳱ Ke⫺r τ 冫 V as the debt/value ratio, this shows that the option value depends solely on x and σ 冪τ . Note that, in practice, this application is different from the BS model where we plug in the value of V , of its volatility σ ⳱ σV , and solve for the value of the call. Here, we observe the market value of the ﬁrm S and the equity volatility σS and must infer the values of V and its volatility so that Equation (20.17) is satisﬁed. This can only be done iteratively. Deﬁning ⌬ as the hedge ratio, we have dS ⳱

∂S dV ⳱ ⌬dV ∂V

(20.18)

Deﬁning σS as the volatility of (dS 冫 S ), we have (σS S ) ⳱ ⌬(σV V ) and σV ⳱ ⌬σS (S 冫 V )

(20.19)

Bond Valuation Next, the value of the bond is given by B ⳱ V ⫺ S , or B ⳱ Ke⫺r τ N (d2 ) Ⳮ V [1 ⫺ N (d1 )]

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(20.20)

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT B 冫 Ke⫺r τ ⳱ [N (d2 ) Ⳮ (V 冫 Ke⫺r τ )N (⫺d1 )]

(20.21)

Risk-Neutral Dynamics of Default In the Black-Scholes model, N (d2 ) is also the probability of exercising the call, or that the bond will not default. Conversely, 1 ⫺ N (d2 ) ⳱ N (⫺d2 ) is the risk-neutral probability of default. Pricing Credit Risk At maturity, the credit loss is the value of the risk-free bond minus the corporate bond, CL ⳱ BF ⫺ BT . At initiation, the expected credit loss (ECL) is BF e⫺r τ ⫺ B ⳱ Ke⫺r τ ⫺ 兵Ke⫺r τ N (d2 ) Ⳮ V [1 ⫺ N (d1 )]其 ⳱ Ke⫺r τ [1 ⫺ N (d2 )] ⫺ V [1 ⫺ N (d1 )] ⳱ Ke⫺r τ N (⫺d2 ) ⫺ V N (⫺d1 ) This decomposition is quite informative. Multiplying by the future value factor er τ , it shows that the ECL at maturity is ECLT ⳱ N (⫺d2 )[K ⫺ V er τ N (⫺d1 )冫 N (⫺d2 )] ⳱ p ⫻ [Exposure ⫻ LGD]

(20.22)

This involves two terms. The ﬁrst is the probability of default, N (⫺d2 ). The second is the loss when there is default. This is obtained as the face value of the bond K minus the recovery value of the loan when in default, V er τ N (⫺d1 )冫 N (⫺d2 ), which is also the expected value of the ﬁrm in the state of default. Note that the recovery rate is endogenous here, as it depends on the value of the ﬁrm, time, and debt ratio. Credit Option Valuation This approach can also be used to value the put option component of the credit-sensitive bond. This option pays K ⫺ BT in case of default. A portfolio with the bond plus the put is equivalent to a risk-free bond Ke⫺r τ ⳱ B ⳭPut. Hence, using Equation (20.20), the credit put should be worth Put ⳱ Ke⫺r τ ⫺ 兵Ke⫺r τ N (d2 ) Ⳮ V [1 ⫺ N (d1 )]其 ⳱ ⫺V [N (⫺d1 )] Ⳮ Ke⫺r τ [N (⫺d2 )] (20.23) This will be used later in the chapter on credit derivatives.

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Example 20-6: FRM Exam 2001----Question 14 20-6. To what sort of option on the counterparty’s assets can the current exposure of a credit-risky position better be compared? a) A short call b) A short put c) A short knock-in call d) A binary option

20.2.3

Applying the Merton Model

These valuation formulas can be used to recover, given the current value of equity and of nominal liabilities, the value of the ﬁrm and its probability of default. Figure 20-5 illustrates the evolution of the value of the ﬁrm. The ﬁrm defaults if this value falls below the liabilities at the horizon. We measure this risk-neutral probability by N (⫺d2 ). FIGURE 20-5 Default in the Merton Model Asset value

Equity

Liabilities

Default probability Now Time

T

In practice, default is much more complex than pictured here. We would have to collect information about all the nominal, ﬁxed liabilities of the company, as well as their maturities. Default can also happen at any intermediate point. also more complex than this one-period framework. So, instead of default on the target date, we could measure default probability as a function of the distance relative to a moving ﬂoor that represents liabilities. This was essentially the approach undertaken by

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KMV Corporation, which sells estimated default frequencies (EDF) for ﬁrms all over the world.2 The Merton approach has many advantages. First, it relies on equity prices rather than bond prices. There are many more ﬁrms with an actively traded stock price than with bonds. Second, correlations between equity prices can generate correlations between defaults, which would be otherwise difﬁcult to measure. Perhaps the most important advantage of this model is that it generates movements in EDFs that seem to lead changes in credit ratings. FIGURE 20-6 KMV’s EDF and Credit Rating WorldCom July 21, 2002 Bankruptcy

Probability of default

20 10 5 KMV’s EDF

KMV©s EDF

D CCC B

2 1.0 .50

Agency rating Agency rating

Agency rating

.20 .10

BB BBB A AA

.05 Dec Jul Feb Sep Apr Nov Mar Apr May Jul 98 99 00 00 01 01 02 02 02 02

.02

AAA

Figure 20-6 displays movements in EDFs and credit rating for Worldcom, using the same vertical scale. Worldcom went bankrupt on July 21, 2002. With $104 billion in assets, this was America’s largest bankruptcy ever. The agency rating was BBB until April 2002. It gives no warning of the impending default. In contrast, starting one year before the default, the EDF starts to move up. In April, it reached 20%, presaging bankruptcy. These models have disadvantages as well. The ﬁrst limitation of the model is that it cannot be used to price sovereign credit risk, as countries obviously do not have a stock price. This is a problem for credit derivatives, where a large share of the market consists of sovereign risks. 2

KMV is now part of Moody’s.

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A more fundamental drawback is that it relies on a static model of the ﬁrm’s capital and risk structure. The debt level is assumed to be constant over the horizon. Also, the model needs to be expanded to a more realistic setting where debt matures at various points in time, which is not an obvious extension. Another problem is that management could undertake new projects that increase not only the value of equity but also its volatility, thereby increasing the credit spread. This runs counter to the fundamental intuition of the Merton model, which is that, all else equal, a higher stock price reﬂects a lower probability of default and hence should be associated with a smaller credit spread. Finally, this class of models also fails to explain the magnitude of credit spreads we observe on credit-sensitive bonds. Recent work attempts to add other sources of risk such as interest rate risk, but it still falls short of explaining these spreads. Thus these models are most useful in tracking changes in EDFs over time.

20.2.4

Example

It is instructive to work through a simpliﬁed example. Consider a ﬁrm with assets worth V ⳱ $100, with volatility of σV ⳱ 20%. In practice, one would have to start from the observed stock price and volatility and iterate to ﬁnd σV . The horizon is τ ⳱ 1 year. The risk-free rate is r ⳱ 10% using continuous compounding. We assume a leverage x ⳱ 0.9, which implies a face value of K ⳱ $99.46 and a risk-free current value of Ke⫺r τ ⳱ $90. Working through the Merton analysis, one ﬁnds that the current stock price should be S ⳱ $13.59. Hence the current bond price is B ⳱ V ⫺ S ⳱ $100 ⫺ $13.59 ⳱ $86.41 which implies a yield of ln(K 冫 B )冫 τ ⳱ ln(99.46冫 86.41) ⳱ 14.07% or yield spread of 4.07%. The current value of the credit put is then P ⳱ Ke⫺r τ ⫺ B ⳱ $90 ⫺ $86.41 ⳱ $3.59 The analysis also generates values for N (d2 ) ⳱ 0.6653 and N (d1 ) ⳱ 0.7347. Thus the risk-neutral probability of default is EDF ⳱ N (⫺d2 ) ⳱ 1 ⫺ N (d2 ) ⳱ 33.47%. Note that this could differ from the actual, or objective probability of default since the stock could very well grow at a rate which is greater than the risk-free rate of 10%.

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Finally, let us decompose the expected loss at expiration from Equation (20.22), which gives N (⫺d2 )[K ⫺ V er τ N (⫺d1 )冫 N (⫺d2 )] ⳱ 0.3347 ⫻ [$99.46 ⫺ $110.56 ⫻ 0.2653冫 0.3347] ⳱ 0.3347 ⫻ [$11.85] ⳱ $3.96 This combines the probability of default with the expected loss upon default, which is $11.85. This future expected credit loss of $3.96 must also be the future value of the credit put, or $3.59er τ ⳱ $3.96. Note that the model needs very high leverage, here x ⳱ 90%, to generate a sizeable credit spread, here 4.07%. This implies a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.9/0.1 = 900%, which

AM FL Y

is unrealistically high. With lower leverage, say x ⳱ 0.7, the credit spread shrinks rapidly, to 0.36%. At x ⳱ 50% or below, the predicted spread goes to zero. As this leverage would be considered normal, the model fails to reproduce the size of observed credit spreads. Perhaps it is most useful for tracking time variation in estimated default frequencies.

TE

Example 20-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Credit Risk 20-7. Which of the following is used to estimate the probability of default in the KMV Model? a) Vector analysis b) Total return analysis c) Equity price volatility d) None of the above

Example 20-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 155/Credit Risk 20-8. Having equity in a ﬁrm’s capital structure adds to the creditworthiness of the ﬁrm. Which of the following statements support(s) this argument? I. Equity does not require payments that could lead to default. II. Equity capital does not mature, so it represents a permanent capital base. III. Equity provides a cushion for debt holders in case of bankruptcy. IV. The cost of equity is lower than the cost of debt. a) I, II, and III b) All of the above c) I, II, and IV d) III only

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MEASURING DEFAULT RISK FROM MARKET PRICES

457

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 20-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 3/Credit Risk b) Using Equation (20.3), we have (1 ⫺ π ) ⳱

(1 Ⳮ y 冫 200)2 (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ 冫 200)2

which gives π ⳱1⫺

(1 Ⳮ 5冫 200)2 ⳱ 0.49% (1 Ⳮ 5.5冫 200)2

Example 20-2: FRM Exam 1997----Question 23/Credit Risk 0.055) b) Using Equation (20.3), the annual probability of default is π ⳱ 1⫺ (1(1Ⳮ ⳱ 0.47%, Ⳮ 0.06)

which gives 0.1% quarterly. Example 20-3: FRM Exam 1997----Question 24/Credit Risk a) We add 50% of 1% to the risk-free rate, which gives 6.0%. Example 20-4: FRM Exam 1998----Question 11/Credit Risk c) Credit spreads widen considerably for lower rated credits. Example 20-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 136/Credit Risk a) First, we compute the current yield on the 6-month bond, which is selling at a discount. We solve for y ⴱ such that 99 ⳱ 104冫 (1 Ⳮ y ⴱ 冫 200) and ﬁnd y ⴱ ⳱ 10.10%. Thus the yield spread for the ﬁrst bond is 10.1 ⫺ 5.5 ⳱ 4.6%. The second bond is at par, so the yield is y ⴱ ⳱ 9%. The spread for the second bond is 9 ⫺ 6 ⳱ 3%. The default rate for the ﬁrst period must be greater. The recovery rate is the same for the two periods, so does not matter for this problem. Example 20-6: FRM Exam 2001----Question 14 b) The lender is short a put option, since exposure only exists if the value of assets falls below the amount lent. Example 20-7: FRM Exam 1998----Question 22/Credit Risk c) The KMV model is based on the value of the equity and liabilities, the risk-free rate, and equity price volatility.

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Example 20-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 155/Credit Risk a) The cost of equity is generally higher than that of debt because it is riskier. Otherwise, all of the other arguments (a), (b), (c) are true. Equity will not cause default. It does not mature and provides a cushion for debtholders, as stockholders should lose money before debtholders.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 21 Credit Exposure Credit exposure is the amount at risk when default occurs. It is also called exposure at default (EAD). When banking simply consisted of making loans, exposure was essentially the face value of the loan or other obligation. This value could be taken as being roughly constant. Since the development of the swap markets, however, the measurement of credit exposure has become much more sophisticated. This is because swaps, like most derivatives, have an up-front value that is much smaller than the notional amount. Indeed, the initial value of a swap is typically zero, which means that at the outset, there is no credit risk because there is nothing to lose. As the swap contract matures, however, it can turn into a positive or negative value. The asymmetry of bankruptcy treatment is such that a credit loss can only occur if the asset owed by the defaulted counterparty has positive value. Thus, the credit exposure is the value of the asset if positive, like an option. This chapter turns to the quantitative measurement of credit exposure. Section 21.1 describes the general features of credit exposure for various types of ﬁnancial instruments, including loans or bonds, guarantees, credit commitments, repos, and derivatives. Section 21.2 shows how to compute the distribution of credit exposure and gives detailed examples of exposures of interest rate and currency swaps. Section 21.3 discusses exposure modiﬁers, or techniques that have been developed to reduce credit exposure further. It shows how credit risk can be controlled by marking to market, margins, position limits, recouponing, and netting agreements. For completeness, Section 21.4 includes credit risk modiﬁers such as credit triggers and time puts, which also control default risk instead of exposure only.

459

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT

Credit Exposure by Instrument

The credit exposure is the positive part of the value of the asset. In particular, the current exposure is equal to the value of the asset at the current time Vt if positive: Exposuret ⳱ Max(Vt , 0).

(21.1)

The potential exposure represents the exposure on some future date, or sets of dates. Based on this deﬁnition, we can characterize the exposure of a variety of ﬁnancial instruments. The measurement of current and potential exposure also motivates regulatory capital charges for credit risk, which are explained in Chapter 31. Loans or Bonds Loans or bonds are balance-sheet assets whose current and potential exposure is the notional, which is the amount loaned or invested. In fact, this should be the market value of the asset given current interest rates, but, as we will show, this is not very far from the notional on a percentage basis. The exposure is also the notional for receivables, trade credits as the potential loss is the amount due. Guarantees These are off-balance-sheet contracts whereby the bank has underwritten, or agrees to assume, the obligations of a third party. The exposure is the notional amount, because this will be fully drawn when default occurs. By nature, guarantees are irrevocable, that is, unconditional and binding whatever happens. An example of a guarantee is a contract whereby Bank A makes a loan to Client C only if guaranteed by Bank B. Should C default, B is exposed to the full amount of the loan. Another example is an acceptance, whereby a bank agrees to pay the face value of the bill at maturity. Alternatively, standby facilities, or ﬁnancial letters of credit, provide a guarantee to a third party to make a payment should the obligor default. Commitments These are off-balance-sheet contracts whereby the bank commits to a future transaction that may result in creating a credit exposure at a future date. For instance, a bank may provide a note issuance facility whereby it promises a minimum price for notes regularly issued by a borrower. If the notes cannot be placed at the market at the minimum price, the bank commits to buy them at a ﬁxed price. Such

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commitments have less risk than a guarantee because it is not certain that the bank will have to provide backup support. It is also useful to distinguish between irrevocable commitments, which are unconditional and binding on the bank, and revocable commitments, where the bank has the option to revoke the contract should the counterparty’s credit quality deteriorate. This option substantially decreases the credit exposure. Swaps or Forwards These are off-balance-sheet items that can be viewed as irrevocable commitments to purchase or sell some asset on prearranged terms. The current and potential exposure will vary from zero to a large amount depending on the movement in the driving risk factors. Similar arrangements are sale-repurchase agreements (repos), whereby a bank sells an asset to another in exchange for a promise to buy it back later. Long Options Options are also off-balance-sheet items that may create credit exposure. The current and potential exposure also depends on movements in the driving risk factors. Here, there is no possibility of negative values Vt because options always have positive value, or zero at worst. Short Options Unlike long options, the current and potential exposure is zero because the bank writing the option can only incur a negative cash ﬂow, assuming the option premium has been fully paid. Exposure also depends on the features of any embedded option. With an American option, for instance, the holder of an in-the-money swap may want to exercise early if the credit rating of its counterparty starts to deteriorate. This decreases the exposure relative to an equivalent European option. Example 21-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question –-130/Credit Risk 21-1. By selling a call option on the S&P 500 futures contract, which is cash settled, an organization is subject to a) Market risk, but not credit risk b) Credit risk, but not market risk c) Both market risk and credit risk d) Neither market risk nor credit risk

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Example 21-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 151/Credit Risk 21-2. Trader A purchased an at-the-money 1-year OTC put option on the DAX index for a cost of EUR 10,000. What does trader A consider his maximum potential credit exposure to the counterparty over the term of the trade? a) 0 b) Less than EUR 8,000 c) Between EUR 8,000 and EUR 12,000 d) Greater than EUR 12,000 Example 21-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 84 21-3. If a counterparty defaults before maturity, which of the following situations will cause a credit loss? a) You are short EUR in a 1-year EUR/USD forward FX contract and the EUR has appreciated. b) You are short EUR in a 1-year EUR/USD forward FX contract and the EUR has depreciated. c) You sold a 1-year OTC EUR call option and the EUR has appreciated. d) You sold a 1-year OTC EUR call option and the EUR has depreciated. Example 21-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 35/Credit Risk 21-4. Contracts such as interest-rate swaps that are private arrangements between two parties entail credit risks. Consider a ﬁnancial institution that has entered into offsetting interest-rate swap contracts with two manufacturing companies, General Equipment and Universal Tools. In which one of the following situations is the ﬁnancial institution exposed to credit risk from the swap position? The most likely possibility is a) A default by General Equipment when the value of the swap to the ﬁnancial institution is positive b) A default by Universal Tools when the value of the swap to the ﬁnancial institution is negative c) That the interest rates will move so that the value of the swap to Universal Tools becomes negative d) That the interest rates will move so that the value of the swap to General Equipment becomes positive

21.2

Distribution of Credit Exposure

The credit exposure consists of the current exposure, which is readily observable, and the potential exposure, or future exposure, which is random. Deﬁne x as the potential value of the asset on the target date. We describe this variable by its probability density function f (x). This is where market risk mingles with credit risk.

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Expected and Worst Exposure

The expected credit exposure (ECE) is the expected value of the asset replacement value x, if positive, on a target date: Expected Credit Exposure ⳱

冮

Ⳮ⬁

⫺⬁

Max(x, 0)f (x)dx

(21.2)

The worst credit exposure (WCE) is the largest (worst) credit exposure at some level of conﬁdence. deﬁned as Credit at Risk (CAR). It is implicitly deﬁned as the value such that it is not exceeded at the given conﬁdence level p: 1⫺p ⳱

冮

⬁

f (x)dx

(21.3)

WCE

To model the potential credit exposure, we need to (i) model the distribution of risk factors, and (ii) evaluate the instrument given these risk factors. This process is identical to a market value-at-risk (VAR) computation except that the aggregation takes place ﬁrst at the counterparty level and second at the portfolio level. To simplify to the extreme, suppose that the payoff x is normally distributed with mean zero and volatility σ . The expected credit exposure is then ECE ⳱

1 1 E (x 兩 x ⬎ 0) ⳱ σ 2 2

冪 π2 ⳱ 冪σ2π

(21.4)

Note that we divided by 2 because there is a 50 percent probability that the value will be positive. The worst credit exposure at the 95 percent level is given by WCE ⳱ 1.645σ

(21.5)

Figure 21-1 illustrates the measurement of ECE and WCE for a normal distribution. Note that negative values of x are not considered.

21.2.2

Time Proﬁle

The distribution can be summarized by the expected and worst credit exposures at each point in time. To summarize even further, we can express the average credit exposure by taking a simple arithmetic average over the life of the instrument.

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FIGURE 21-1 Expected and Worst Credit Exposures–Normal Distribution Frequency Expected Credit Exposure

Worst Credit Exposure -3

-2

-1

0 1 Credit exposure

2

3

The average expected credit exposure (AECE) is the average of the expected credit exposure over time, from now to maturity T : AECE ⳱ (1冫 T )

冮

T

t ⳱0

ECEt dt

(21.6)

The average worst credit exposure (AWCE) is deﬁned similarly: AWCE ⳱ (1冫 T )

21.2.3

冮

T

t ⳱0

WCEt dt

(21.7)

Exposure Proﬁle for Interest-Rate Swaps

We now consider the computation of the exposure proﬁle for an interest-rate swap. In general, we need to deﬁne (1) The number of market factor variables (2) The function and parameters for the joint stochastic processes (3) The pricing model for the swap We start with a one-factor stochastic process for the interest rate, deﬁning the movement in the rate rt at time t as drt ⳱ κ (θ ⫺ rt )dt Ⳮ σ rt γ dzt

(21.8)

as seen in Chapter 4. The ﬁrst term imposes mean reversion. When the current value of rt is higher than the long-run value, the term between parentheses is negative, which creates a downward trend. More generally, the mean term could reﬂect the path implied in forward interest rates.

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The second term deﬁnes the innovation, which can be given a normal distribution. An important issue is whether the volatility of the innovation should be constant or proportional to some power γ of the current value of the interest rate rt . If the horizon is short, this issue is not so important because the current rate will be close to the initial rate anyway. When γ ⳱ 0, changes in yields are normally distributed, which is the Vasicek model (1977). As seen in Chapter 13, a typical volatility of absolute changes in yields is 1% per annum. A potential problem with this is that the volatility is the same whether the yields starts at 20% or 1%. As a result, the yield could turn negative, depending on the initial starting point and the strength of the mean reversion. Another class of models is the lognormal model, which takes γ ⳱ 1. The model can then be rewritten in terms of drt 冫 rt ⳱ d ln(rt ). This speciﬁcation ensures that the volatility shrinks as r gets close to zero, avoiding negative values. A typical volatility of relative changes in yields is 15% per annum, which is also the 1% for changes in the level of rates divided by an initial rate of 6.7%. For illustration purposes, we choose the normal process γ ⳱ 0 with mean reversion κ ⳱ 0.02 and volatility σ ⳱ 0.25% per month, which are realistic parameters based on recent U.S. data. The initial and long-run values of r are 6%. Typical simulation values are shown in Figure 21-2. Note how rates can deviate from their initial value but are pulled back to the long-term value of 6%. We need, however, the whole distribution of values at each point in time. FIGURE 21-2 Simulation Paths for the Interest Rate 12

Yield

10 8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

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FIGURE 21-3 Distribution Proﬁle for the Interest Rate Yield 12 10 8 6 4 Maximum Max Expected Average Minimum Min

2 0 12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

AM FL Y

0

This model is convenient because it leads to closed-form solutions. The distribution of future values for r is summarized in Figure 21-3 by its mean and two-tailed 90 percent conﬁdence band (called maximum and minimum values). The graph shows that the mean is 6%, which is also the long-run value. The conﬁdence bands initially reversion effect.

TE

widen due to the increasing horizon, then converge to a ﬁxed value due to the mean The next step is to value the swap. At each point in time, the current market value of the swap is the difference between the value of a ﬁxed-coupon bond and a ﬂoatingrate note

Vt ⳱ B ($100, t, T , c, rt ) ⫺ B ($100, FRN)

(21.9)

Here, c is the annualized coupon rate, and T is the maturity date. The risk to the swap comes from the fact that the ﬁxed leg has a coupon c that could differ from prevailing market rates. The principals are not exchanged. Figure 21-4 illustrates the changes in cash ﬂows that could arise from a drop in rates from 6% to 4% after 5 years. The receive-ﬁxed party would then be owed every six months, for a semiannual pay swap, $100 ⫻ (6 ⫺ 4)% ⫻ 0.5 ⳱ $1 million until the maturity of the swap. With 10 payments remaining, this adds up to a positive credit exposure of $10 million. Discounting over the life of the remaining payments gives $8.1 million as of the valuation date. In what follows, we assume that the swap receives ﬁxed payments that are paid at a continuous rate instead of semiannually, which simpliﬁes the example. Otherwise, there would be discontinuities in cash-ﬂow patterns and we would have to consider

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FIGURE 21-4 Net Cash Flows When Rates Fall to 4% after 5 Years 1.2

Cash flow ($ million)

1.0 0.8 0.6 0.4 0.2 0.0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

the risk of the ﬂoating leg as well. We also use continuous compounding. Deﬁning N as the number of remaining years, the coupon bond value is c B ($100, N, c, r ) ⳱ $100 [1 ⫺ e⫺r N ] Ⳮ $100e⫺r N r

(21.10)

as we have seen in the Appendix to Chapter 1. The ﬁrst term is the present value of the ﬁxed-coupon cash ﬂows discounted at the current rate r . The second term is the repayment of principal. For the special case where the coupon rate is equal to the current market rate, c ⳱ r , and the market value is indeed $100 for this par bond. If c ⬎ r , the market value must be above par. The ﬂoating-rate note can be priced in the same way, but with a coupon rate that is always equal to the current rate. Hence, its value is always at par. To understand the exposure proﬁle of the coupon bond, we need to consider two opposing effects. (1) The diffusion effect: As time goes by, the uncertainty in the interest rate increases. (2) The amortization effect: As maturity draws near, the bond’s duration decreases to zero. This second effect is described in Figure 21-5, which shows the bond’s duration converging to zero. This explains why the bond’s market value converges to the face value upon maturity whatever happens to the current interest rate. Because the bond is a strictly monotonous function of the current yield, we can compute the 90 percent conﬁdence bands by valuing the bond using the extreme interest rates range at each point in time. We use Equation (21.10) at each point in time in Figure 21-3. This exposure proﬁle is shown in Figure 21-6.

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FIGURE 21-5 Duration Proﬁle for a 10-Year Bond 8

Years

7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

Initially, the market value of the bond is $100. After two or three years, the range of values is the greatest, from $87 to $115. Thereafter, the range converges to the face value of $100. But overall, the ﬂuctuations as a proportion of the face value are relatively small. When considering other approximations in the measurement of credit risk, such as the imprecision in default probability and recovery rate, assuming a constant exposure for the bond is not a bad approximation.

FIGURE 21-6 Exposure Proﬁle for a 10-Year Bond Bond price 120 100 80 60 Maximum Max Expected Average Minimum Min

40 20 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

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CREDIT EXPOSURE

469

FIGURE 21-7 Exposure Proﬁle for a 10-Year Interest-Rate Swap Swap value 20 18 Maximum 16 Average of maximum

14

Expected

12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108

120

This is not the case, however, for the interest-rate swap. Its value can be found from subtracting $100 (the value of the ﬂoating-rate note) from that of the coupon bond. Initially, its value is zero. Thereafter, it can take on positive or negative values. Credit exposure is the positive value only. Figure 21-7 presents the proﬁle of the expected exposure and of the maximum (worst) exposure at the one-sided 95 percent level. It also shows the average maximum exposure over the whole life of the swap. Intuitively, the value of the swap is derived from the difference between the ﬁxed and ﬂoating cash ﬂows. Consider a swap with two remaining payments and a notional amount of $100. Its value is Vt ⳱$100

⳱$100

冋 冋

册

冋

c c 1 r r 1 Ⳮ Ⳮ ⫺ $100 Ⳮ Ⳮ 2 2 2 (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 r ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r )2 (c ⫺ r ) (c ⫺ r ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r )2

册

册

(21.11)

Note how the principal payments cancel out and we are left with the discounted net difference between the ﬁxed coupon and the prevailing rate (c ⫺ r ). This information can be used to assess the expected exposure and worst exposure on a target date. The peak exposure occurs around the second year into the swap, or about a fourth of the swap’s life. At that point, the expected exposure is about

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3 to 4 percent of the notional, which is much less than that of the bond. The worst exposure peaks at about 10 to 15 percent of notional. In practice, these values depend on the particular stochastic process used, but the exposure proﬁles will be qualitatively similar. To assess the potential variation in swap values, we can make some approximations based on duration. Consider ﬁrst the very short-term exposure, for which mean reversion and changes in durations are not important. The volatility of changes in rates then simply increases with the square root of time. Given a 0.25% per month volatility and 7.5-year initial duration, we can approximate the volatility of the swap value over the next year as σ (V ) ⳱ $100 ⫻ 7.5 ⫻ [0.25% 冪12] ⳱ $6.5 million Multiplying by 1.645, we get $10.7 million, which is close to the $9.4 million actual 95% worst exposure in a year reported in Figure 21-7. a ﬁxed duration and The trade-off between declining duration and increasing risk can be formalized with a slightly more realistic example. Assume that the bond’s (modiﬁed) duration is proportional to the remaining life, or D ⳱ k(T ⫺ t ) at any date t . The volatility from 0 to time t can be written as σ (rt ⫺ r0 ) ⳱ σ 冪t . Hence, the swap volatility is σ (V ) ⳱ [k(T ⫺ t )]σ 冪t

(21.12)

To see where it reaches a maximum, we differentiate with respect to t , and get dσ (V ) 1 ⳱ [k(⫺1)]σ 冪t Ⳮ [k(T ⫺ t )]σ dt 2 冪t Setting this to zero, we have 冪 t ⳱ (T ⫺ t )

1 2 冪t

or 2t ⳱ (T ⫺ t ) or tMAX ⳱ (1冫 3)T

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

(21.13)

CHAPTER 21.

CREDIT EXPOSURE

471

FIGURE 21-8 Exposure Proﬁle for a 5-Year Interest-Rate Swap Swap value 20 18

Maximum

16 Average of maximum

14

Expected

12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

The maximum exposure occurs at one-third of the life of the swap. This occurs later than the one-fourth reported previously because we assumed no mean reversion. At that point, the worst credit exposure will be 1.645 σ (VMAX ) ⳱ 1.645k(2冫 3)T σ 冪T 冫 3 ⳱ 1.645k(2冫 3)σ 冪1冫 3 T 3冫 2

(21.14)

which shows that the WCE increases as T 3冫 2 , which is faster than the maturity. Figure 21-8 shows the exposure proﬁle of a 5-year swap. Here again, the peak exposure occurs at a third of the swap’s life. As expected, the magnitude is lower, with The peak expected exposure is only about 1 percent of notional. Finally, Figure 21-9 displays the exposure proﬁle when the initial interest rate is at 5% with a coupon of 6%. As a result, the swap is already in-the-money, with a markto-market value of $7.9 million. If we assume a long-run rate of 6%, the total exposure proﬁle starts from a positive value, reaches a maximum after about two years, then converges to zero. Example 21-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 111/Credit Risk 21-5. What is the primary difference between the default implications of loans versus those of interest-rate swaps? a) The principal in a swap is not at risk. b) The cash ﬂows in the loans are determined by the level of rates, not the difference in rates. c) Default on a loan requires only that the ﬁrm be in ﬁnancial distress, a swap also requires that the remaining value be positive to the dealer. d) All of the above.

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FIGURE 21-9 Exposure Proﬁle for a 10-Year In-the-Money Swap Swap value 20 18

Maximum

16 Average of maximum

14

Expected

12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

Example 21-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 133/Credit Risk 21-6. Which criteria would result in the best measure of loan equivalent exposure for risk management and capital allocation purposes? a) Current mark-to-market value of a contract b) Current mark-to-market value of a contract plus an add-on factor for future potential exposure c) A factor of 3 percent multiplied by the notional amount multiplied by the number of years, or fraction thereof, until maturity, i.e. 3% ⫻ NT , where N is notional, and T is time to maturity in years d) Sum of the net notional amount of all transactions with the same counterparty Example 21-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 118/Credit Risk 21-7. Assume that swap rates are identical for all swap tenors. A swap dealer entered into a plain vanilla swap one year ago as the receive-ﬁxed party, when the price of the swap was 7%. Today, this swap dealer will face credit risk exposure from this swap only if the value of the swap for the dealer is a) Negative, which will occur if new swaps are being priced at 6% b) Negative, which will occur if new swaps are being priced at 8% c) Positive, which will occur if new swaps are being priced at 6% d) Positive, which will occur if new swaps are being priced at 8%

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Example 21-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 148/Credit Risk 21-8. Assume that the DV01 of an interest-rate swap is proportional to its time to maturity (which at the initiation of the swap is equal to T). Also, assume that the interest-rate curve moves are parallel, stochastic with constant volatility, normally distributed, and independent. At what time will the maximum potential exposure be reached? a) T/4 b) T/3 c) T/2 d) 3T/4 Example 21-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 29/Credit Risk 21-9. Determine at what point in the future a derivatives portfolio will reach its maximum potential exposure. All the derivatives are on one underlying, which is assumed to move in a stochastic fashion (variance in the underlying’s value increases linearly with time passage). The derivatives portfolio sensitivity to the underlying is expected to drop off as (T ⫺ t )2 (square of the time left to maturity), where T is the time from today the last contract in the portfolio rolls off, and t is the time from today. a) T/5 b) T/3 c) T/2 d) None of the above Example 21-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 149/Credit Risk 21-10. (Complex) Assume that the DV01 of an interest-rate swap is equal to 4,000 times its time left to maturity in years. At initiation, the swap tenor is three years and the swap is at par. Assume that the interest-rate curve moves are parallel, stochastic with constant volatility, and normally distributed and independent with 1 day standard deviation of 5 bp. Assume 250 business days per year. The swap’s maximum potential exposure at the 99% conﬁdence level is approximately a) 700,000 b) 1,000,000 c) 1,500,000 d) 2,000,000

21.2.4

Exposure Proﬁle for Currency Swaps

Exposure proﬁles are substantially different for other swaps. Consider, for instance, a currency swap where the notionals are $100 million against £50 million, set at an initial exchange rate of S ($冫 £) ⳱ 2.

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The market value of a currency swap that receives foreign currency is Vt ⳱ St ($冫 £)Bⴱ (£50, t, T, cⴱ , rⴱ ) ⫺ B($100, t, T, c, r)

(21.15)

Following usual conventions, asterisks refer to foreign currency values. In general, this swap is exposed to domestic as well as foreign interest-rate risk. When we just have two remaining coupons, the value of the swap evolves according to S £50

冤

冥

冋

册

cⴱ cⴱ c c 1 1 Ⳮ Ⳮ ⫺ $100 Ⳮ Ⳮ (21.16) ⴱ 2 2 2 ⴱ ⴱ (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r ) (1 Ⳮ r )2

Note that, relative to Equation (21.11), the principals do not cancel each other since they are paid in different currencies. In what follows, we will assume for simplicity that there is no interest-rate risk, or that the value of the swap is dominated by currency risk. Further, we assume that the coupons are the same in the two currencies, otherwise there would be an asymmetrical accumulation of payments. As before, we have to choose a stochastic process for the spot rate. Say this is a lognormal process with constant variance and no trend: dSt ⳱ σ St dzt

(21.17)

We choose σ ⳱ 12% annually, which is realistic as seen in Chapter 13. This process ensures that the rate never turns negative. Figure 21-10 presents the exposure proﬁle of a 10-year currency swap. Here, there is no amortization effect, and exposure increases continuously over time. The peak exposure occurs at the end of the life of the swap. At that point, the expected exposure is about 10 percent of the notional, which is much higher than for the interest-rate swap. The worst exposure is commensurately high, at about 45 percent of notional. Although these values depend on the particular stochastic process and parameters used, this example demonstrates that credit exposures for currency swaps is far greater than for interest-rate swaps, even with identical maturities.

21.2.5

Exposure Proﬁle for Different Coupons

So far, we have assumed a ﬂat term structure and equal coupon payments in different currencies, which create a symmetric situation for the exposure for the long and

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

CHAPTER 21.

CREDIT EXPOSURE

475

FIGURE 21-10 Exposure Proﬁle for a 10-Year Currency Swap 50

Swap value

40

30 Maximum 20

Expected

10

0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

short party. In reality, these conditions will not hold, creating asymmetric exposure patterns. Consider, for instance, the interest-rate swap in Equation (21.11). If the term structure slopes upward, the coupon rate is greater than the ﬂoating rate, c ⬎ r , and the ﬁxed receiver receives a net payment in the near term. The value of the swap can be analyzed projecting ﬂoating payments at the forward rate Vt ⳱

(c ⫺ s1 ) (c ⫺ f12 ) Ⳮ (1 Ⳮ s1 ) (1 Ⳮ s2 )2

where s1 , s2 are the 1- and 2-year spot rates, and f12 is the 1- to 2-year forward rate.

Example: Consider a $100 million interest-rate swap with two remaining payments. We have s1 ⳱ 5%, s2 ⳱ 6.03% and hence using (1 Ⳮ s2 )2 ⳱ (1 Ⳮ s1 )(1 Ⳮ f12 ), we have f12 ⳱ 7.07%. The coupon yield of c ⳱ 6% is such that the swap has zero initial value. The table below shows that the present value of the ﬁrst payment (to the party who receives ﬁxed) is positive and equal to $0.9524. The second payment then must be negative, and is equal to ⫺$0.9524. The two payments exactly offset each other because the swap has zero value.

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Expected Spot 5% 7.07%

Expected Payment 6.00 ⫺ 5.00 ⳱ Ⳮ1.00 6.00 ⫺ 7.07 ⳱ ⫺1.07

Discounted Ⳮ0.9524 ⫺0.9524 0.0000

This pattern of payments, however, creates more credit exposure to the ﬁxed payer because it involves a payment in the ﬁrst period offset by a receipt in the second. If the counterparty defaults shortly after the ﬁrst payment is made, there could be a credit loss even if interest rates have not changed.

AM FL Y

Key concept: With a positively sloped term structure, the receiver of ﬂoating rate (payer of the ﬁxed rate) has greater credit exposure than the counterparty. A similar issue arises with currency swaps when the two coupon rates differ. Low nominal interest rates imply a higher forward exchange rate. The party that receives payments in a low-coupon currency is expected to receive greater payments later during the exchange of principal. If the counterparty defaults, there could be a credit loss

TE

even if rates have not changed.

Table 21-1 gives the example of a ﬁxed-rate swap where one party receives 6% in dollars against paying 9% in pounds. We assume a ﬂat term structure in both currencies and an initial spot rate of $2/£. The ﬁrst panel describes the present-value factors as well as the forward rates. Because of the higher pound interest rate, the forward exchange value of the pound drops from $2.0000 to $1.5129 after 10 years. The two rightmost columns in the ﬁrst panel report the present value of the stream of payments, each discounted in its own currency. They sum to $100 million and ⫺£50 million respectively, which at the current spot rate of $2/£ adds up to zero. The initial value of the swap is zero. The second panel lays out the cash ﬂows in each currency. The three columns on the right describe the credit exposure. First, the pound cash ﬂow is translated into dollars at the forward rate. For instance, the ﬁrst payment of £4.50 is also 4.5 ⫻ 1.9449 ⳱ $8.75. The sum of the receipt of $6 million and payment of $8.75 million gives a net outﬂow of $2.75 million. The table shows that the ﬁrst 9 years involve an outﬂow, which is eventually offset by an inﬂow of $23.54 million in year 10. The last column converts these expected credit exposures at different point in time into a current

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CHAPTER 21.

CREDIT EXPOSURE

477

TABLE 21-1 Credit Exposure Proﬁle for a Currency Swap $100 million at 6% against £50 million at 9% Time

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Total Time 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Total

Market Data PV-$ PV-£ FX($/£) 2.0000 0.9434 0.9174 1.9449 0.8900 0.8417 1.8914 0.8396 0.7722 1.8394 0.7921 0.7084 1.7887 0.7473 0.6499 1.7395 0.7050 0.5963 1.6916 0.6651 0.5470 1.6451 0.6274 0.5019 1.5998 0.5919 0.4604 1.5558 0.5584 0.4224 1.5129

Cash Flows Receive Pay $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $6.00 ⫺£4.50 $106.00 ⫺£54.50

Pay in $ ⫺$8.75 ⫺$8.51 ⫺$8.28 ⫺$8.05 ⫺$7.83 ⫺$7.61 ⫺$7.40 ⫺$7.20 ⫺$7.00 ⫺$82.46

Swap Valuation NPV($) NPV(£) $5.66 $5.34 $5.04 $4.75 $4.48 $4.23 $3.99 $3.76 $3.55 $59.19 $100.00

⫺£4.13 ⫺£3.79 ⫺£3.47 ⫺£3.19 ⫺£2.92 ⫺£2.68 ⫺£2.46 ⫺£2.26 ⫺£2.07 ⫺£23.02 ⫺£50.00

Exposure Difference ⫺$2.75 ⫺$2.51 ⫺$2.28 ⫺$2.05 ⫺$1.83 ⫺$1.61 ⫺$1.40 ⫺$1.20 ⫺$1.00 $23.54

NPV(Diff.) ⫺$2.60 ⫺$2.24 ⫺$1.91 ⫺$1.62 ⫺$1.37 ⫺$1.14 ⫺$0.93 ⫺$0.75 ⫺$0.59 $13.15 $0.00

value, discounting at the 6% dollar rate. The net present values (NPVs) of the differences sum to zero, as required. The table, however, shows that if the counterparty defaults in year 9, the remaining credit exposure is quite high. Key concept: The receiver of a low-coupon currency has greater credit exposure than the counterparty.

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Example 21-11: FRM Exam 2001----Question 8 21-11. Which of the following 10-year swaps has the highest potential credit exposure? a) A cross-currency swap after 2 years b) A cross-currency swap after 9 years c) An interest rate swap after 2 years d) An interest rate swap after 9 years Example 21-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 47/Credit Risk 21-12. Which one of the following deals would have the largest credit exposure for a $1,000,000 deal size (assume the counterparty in each deal is a AAA-rated bank and has no settlement risk)? a) Pay ﬁxed in an AUD interest-rate swap for 1 year b) Sell USD against AUD in a 1-year forward foreign exchange contract c) Sell a 1-year AUD Cap d) Purchase a 1-year Certiﬁcate of Deposit Example 21-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 153/Credit Risk 21-13. The amount of potential exposure arising from being long an OTC USD/EUR forward contract will be a function of the I) Credit quality of the counterparty II) Tenor of the contract III) Volatility of the spot USD/EUR exchange rate IV) Volatility of the USD interest rate V) Volatility of the EUR interest rate VI) Nominal amount of the contract a) All of the above b) All except I c) I, II, III, and VI d) III, IV, and V Example 21-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 33/Credit Risk 21-14. The amount of potential exposure arising from being long an over-the-counter USD/DEM forward contract will be a function of the a) Credit quality of the counterparty b) Credit quality of the counterparty and the tenor of the contract c) Volatility of the USD/DEM exchange rate and the tenor of the contract d) Volatility of the USD/DEM exchange rate and the credit quality of the counterparty

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

CHAPTER 21.

21.3

CREDIT EXPOSURE

479

Exposure Modiﬁers

In a continual attempt to decrease credit exposures, the industry has developed a number for methods to limit exposures. This section analyzes marking-to-market, margins and collateral, recouponing, and netting arrangements.

21.3.1

Marking to Market

The ultimate form of reducing credit exposure is marking-to-market (MTM). Markingto-market involves settling the variation in the contract value on a regular basis, e.g. daily. For OTC contracts, counterparties can agree to longer periods, e.g. monthly or quarterly. If the MTM treatment is symmetrical across the two counterparties, it is called two-way marking-to-market. Otherwise if one party settles losses only, it is called one-way marking-to-market. Marking-to-market has long been used by organized exchanges to deal with credit risk. The reason is that exchanges are accessible to a wide variety of investors, including retail investors, unlike OTC markets where institutions interacting with each other typically will have an on-going relationship. As one observer put it, “Futures markets are designed to permit trading among strangers, as against other markets which permit only trading among friends.” With daily marking-to-market, the current exposure is reduced to zero. There is still, however, potential exposure because the value of the contract could change before the next settlement. Potential exposure arises from (i) the time interval between MTM periods and (ii) the time required for liquidating the contract when the counterparty defaults. In the case of a retail client, the broker can generally liquidate the position fairly quickly, within a day. When positions are very large, as in the case of brokers dealing with long-term capital management (LTCM), however, the liquidation period could be much longer. Indeed LTCM’s bailout was motivated by the potential disruption to ﬁnancial markets should all brokers attempt to liquidate their contracts with LTCM at the same time.

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Another issue with marking-to-market is that it introduces other types of risks, in particular ● Operational risk, which is due to the need to keep track of contract values and to make or receive payments daily, and ● Liquidity risk, because the institution now needs to keep enough cash to absorb variations in contract values. Margins Potential exposure is covered by margin requirements. Margins represent cash or securities that must be advanced in order to open a position. The purpose of these funds is to provide a buffer against potential exposure. Exchanges, for instance, require customers to post initial margin, whenever establishing a new position. This margin serves as a performance bond to offset possible future losses should the customer default. Contract gains and losses are then added to the posted margin in the equity account. Whenever the value of this equity account falls below a threshold, set at a maintenance margin, new funds must be provided. Margins are set in relation to price volatility and to the type of position, speculative or hedging. Margins increase for more volatile contracts. Margins are typically lower for hedgers because a loss on the futures position can be offset by a gain on the physical, assuming no basis risk. Some exchanges set margins at a level that covers the 99th percentile of worst daily price changes, which is a daily VAR system for credit risk. Collateral Over-the-counter markets may allow posting securities as collateral instead of cash. This collateral protects against current and potential exposure. Typically, the amount of the collateral will exceed the funds owed by an amount known as the haircut. This difference will be a function of market and credit risk. For instance, cash can have a haircut of zero, which means that there is full protection against current exposure. Government securities can require a haircut of 1%, 3%, and 8% for shortterm, medium-term, and longer-term maturities. With greater price volatility, there is an increasing chance of losses if the counterparty defaults and the collateral loses value, which explains the increasing haircuts.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

CHAPTER 21.

21.3.2

CREDIT EXPOSURE

481

Exposure Limits

Credit exposure can be managed by setting position limits on the exposure to a counterparty. Ideally, these should be evaluated in a portfolio context, taking into account all the contracts between an institution and a counterparty. To enforce limits, information on transactions must be centralized in middle-ofﬁce systems, which generate an exposure proﬁle for each counterparty. The exposure proﬁle is then used to manage credit line usage for several arbitrarily deﬁned maturity buckets. Each proposed additional trade with the same counterparty is then examined for incremental effect on total exposure. These limits can be also set at the instrument level. In the case of a swap, for instance, an exposure cap requires a payment to be made whenever the value of the contract exceeds some amount. Figure 21-11 shows the effect of a $5 million cap on our 10-year swap. If, after two years, say, the contract suddenly moves into a positive value of $11 million, the counterparty would be required to make a payment of $6 million to bring the swap’s outstanding value back to $5 million. This now limits the worst exposure to $5 million and also lowers the average exposure. FIGURE 21-11 Effect of Exposure Cap 20

Swap value

18 16 14 12 10 8

Maximum

6 4 2 0 0

21.3.3

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108 120

Recouponing

Another method to control exposure at the instrument level is recouponing. Recouponing is a clause in the contract requiring the contract to be marked-to-market

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT

FIGURE 21-12 Effect of Recouponing After 5 Years 20

Swap value

18 16 14 12

Maximum

10 Expected

8 6 4 2 0 0

12

24

36

48

60 72 Month

84

96

108

120

at some ﬁxed date. This involves (i) exchanging cash to bring the MTM value to zero and (ii) resetting the coupon or the exchange rate to prevailing market values. Figure 21-12 shows the effect of 5-year recouponing on our 100-year swap. The exposure is truncated to zero after 5 years. Thereafter, the exposure proﬁle is that of a swap with a remaining 5-year maturity.

21.3.4

Netting Arrangements

Perhaps the most powerful arrangement to control exposures are netting agreements. These are by now a common feature of standardized master swap agreements such as the one established in 1992 by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA). The purpose of these agreements is to provide for the netting of payments across a set of contracts. In case of default, a counterparty cannot stop payments on contracts that have negative value while demanding payment on positive value contracts. As a result, this system reduces the exposure to the net payment for all the contracts covered by the netting agreement. Table 21-2 gives an example with four contracts. Without a netting agreement, the exposure of the ﬁrst two contracts is the sum of the positive part of each, or $100 million. In contrast, if the ﬁrst two fall under a netting agreement, their value would offset each other, resulting in a net exposure of $100 ⫺ $60 ⳱ $40 million. If contracts

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TABLE 21-2 Comparison of Exposure with and without Netting Contract Value

Contract

1 2 Total, 1 & 2 3 4 Grand total, 1 to 4

Exposure No Netting

Exposure With Netting for 1 & 2 Under netting agreement Ⳮ$100 Ⳮ$100 ⫺$60 Ⳮ$0 Ⳮ$40 Ⳮ$100 Ⳮ$40 No netting agreement Ⳮ$25 Ⳮ$25 ⫺$15 Ⳮ$0 +$65 Ⳮ$50 Ⳮ$125

3 and 4 do not fall under the netting agreement, the exposure is then increased to $40 Ⳮ $25 ⳱ $65 million. To summarize, the net exposure with netting is N

冱 Vi , 0)

Net exposure ⳱ Max(V , 0) ⳱ Max(

(21.18)

i ⳱1

Without a netting agreement, the gross exposure is the sum of all positive-value contracts N

Gross exposure ⳱

冱 Max(Vi , 0)

(21.19)

i ⳱1

This is always greater than, or at best equal to, the exposure under the netting agreement. The beneﬁt from netting depends on the number of contracts N and the extent to which contract values covary with each other. The larger the value of N and the lower the correlation, the greater the beneﬁt from netting. It is easy to verify from Table 21-2 that if all contracts move into positive value at the same time, or have high correlation, there will be no beneﬁt from netting. Figures 21-13 and 21-14 illustrate the effect of netting on a portfolio of two swaps with the same counterparty. In each case, interest rates could increase or decrease with the same probability. In Figure 21-13, the bank is long both a 10-year and 5-year swap. The top panel describes the worst exposure when rates fall. In this case there is positive exposure for both contracts, which we add to get the total portfolio exposure. Whether there is

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PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT

FIGURE 21-13 Netting with Two Long Positions 10-year swap Netting r↓

No Netting

5-year swap

10-year swap

r↑

5-year swap

FIGURE 21-14 Netting with a Long and Short Position 10-year swap Netting r↓

No Netting

5-year swap

10-year swap

r↑

5-year swap

netting or not does not matter because the two positions are positive at the same time. The bottom panel describes the worst exposure when rates increase. Both positions as well as the portfolio have zero exposure. In Figure 21-14, the bank is long the 10-year and short the 5-year swap. When rates fall, the ﬁrst swap has positive value and the second has negative value. With netting,

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the worst exposure proﬁle is reduced. In contrast, with no netting the exposure is that of the 10-year swap. Conversely, when rates increase, the swap value is negative for the ﬁrst and positive for the second. With netting, the exposure proﬁle is zero, whereas without netting it is the same as that of the 5-year swap. Banks provide some information in their annual report about the beneﬁt of netting for their current exposure. Without netting agreements or collateral, the gross replacement value (GRV) is reported as the sum of the worst-case exposures if all counterparties K default at the same time: K

GRV ⳱

冱

K

Gross exposurek ⳱

Nk

冱 冱 Max(Vi , 0)

(21.20)

k⳱1 i ⳱1

k⳱1

With netting agreements and collateral, the resulting exposure is deﬁned as the net replacement value (NRV). This is the sum, over all counterparties, of the net positive exposure minus any collateral held: K

NRV ⳱

冱

k⳱1

冱

k⳱1

冢冱 冣 Nk

K

Net exposurek ⳱

Max

Vi , 0 ⫺ Collateralk

(21.21)

i ⳱1

Example 21-15: FRM Exam 1998----Question 34/Credit Risk 21-15. A diversiﬁed portfolio of OTC derivatives with a single counterparty currently has a net mark-to-market of $20 million. Assuming that there are no netting agreements in place with the counterparty, determine the current credit exposure to the counterparty. a) Less than $20 million b) Exactly $20 million c) Greater than $20 million d) Unable to be determined

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Example 21-16: FRM Exam 1999----Question 131/Credit Risk 21-16. To reduce credit risk, a company can a) Expose themselves to many different counterparties b) Take on a variety of positions c) Set up netting agreements with all of their approved trading partners d) All of the above

AM FL Y

Example 21-17: FRM Exam 1999----Question 154/Credit Risk 21-17. A diversiﬁed portfolio of OTC derivatives with a single counterparty currently has a net mark-to-market of USD 20,000,000 and a gross absolute mark-to-market (the sum of the value of all positive value positions minus the value of all negative value positions) of USD 80,000,000. Assuming there are no netting agreements in place with the counterparty, determine the current credit exposure to the counterparty. a) Less than or equal to USD 19,000,000 b) Greater than USD 19,000,000 but less than or equal to USD 40,000,000 c) Greater than USD 40,000,000 but less than USD 60,000,000 d) Greater than USD 60,000,000

TE

Example 21-18: FRM Exam 1999----Question 123/Credit Risk 21-18. An equity repo is a repo in which common stock is used as collateral in place of the more usual ﬁxed-income instrument. The mechanics of equity repos are effectively the same as ﬁxed-income repos, except that the haircut a) Is smaller because equities are more liquid than ﬁxed-income instruments b) Is larger because equity prices are more volatile than those of ﬁxed-income instruments c) About the same for both equity and ﬁxed-income deals because the counterparty credit risk is the same d) Cannot be determined in advance because equity prices, in contrast to ﬁxed-income instrument prices, are not martingales

21.4

Credit Risk Modiﬁers

Credit risk modiﬁers operate on credit exposure, default risk, or a combination of both. For completeness, this section discusses modiﬁers that affect default risk.

21.4.1

Credit Triggers

Credit triggers specify that if either counterparty credit rating falls below a speciﬁed level, the other party has the right to have the swap cash-settled. These are not

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exposure modiﬁers, but instead attempt to reduce the probability of default. For instance, if all outstanding swaps can be terminated when the counterparty rating falls below A, the probability of default is lowered to the probability that a counterparty will default while rated A or higher. These triggers are useful when the credit rating of a ﬁrm deteriorates slowly, because few ﬁrms directly jump from investment-grade into bankruptcy. The increased protection can be estimated by analyzing transition probabilities, as discussed in Chapter 19. For example, say a transaction with an AA-rated borrower has a cumulative probability of default of 0.81% over ten years. If the contract can be terminated whenever the rating falls to BB or below, this probability falls to 0.23% only.

21.4.2

Time Puts

Time puts, or mutual termination options, permit either counterparty to terminate unconditionally the transaction on one or more dates in the contract. This feature decreases both the default risk and the exposure. It allows one counterparty to terminate the contract if the exposure is large and the other party’s rating starts to slip. Triggers and puts, which are a type of contingent requirements, can cause serious trouble, however. They create calls on liquidity precisely in states of the world where the company is faring badly, putting further pressures on the company’s liquidity. Indeed triggers in some of Enron’s securities forced the company to make large cash payments and propelled it into bankruptcy. Rather than offering protection, these clauses can trigger bankruptcy, affecting all creditors adversely.

21.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 21-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 130/Credit Risk a) There is no credit risk from selling options if the premium is received up front. Example 21-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 151/Credit Risk d) The maximum exposure is potentially very large because this is a long position in an option, certainly larger than the initial premium. At a minimum, the exposure is the current exposure of EUR 10,000.

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Example 21-3: FRM Exam 2001----Question 84 b) Being short an option creates no credit exposure, so answers (c) and (d) are false. With the short forward contract, a gain will be realized if the EUR has depreciated. Example 21-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 35/Credit Risk a) To have a credit loss, we need a combination of positive exposure and default. The swaps with Universal Tools have negative exposure, so they do not create credit risk. Answer (a) is the best because it combines positive exposure and default risk. Example 21-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 111/Credit Risk d) For a loan, the principal is at risk, and the payments depend on the level of rates; the swap needs to be in-the-money for a credit loss to occur. Example 21-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 133/Credit Risk b) MTM and notionals alone do not measure the potential exposure. We need a combination of current MTM plus an add-on for potential exposure. Example 21-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 118/Credit Risk c) The value of the swap must be positive to the dealer to have some exposure. This will happen if current rates are less than the ﬁxed coupon. Example 21-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 148/Credit Risk b) See Equation (21.14). Example 21-9: FRM Exam 2000----Question 29/Credit Risk a) This question alters the variance proﬁle in Equation (21.12). Taking now the variance instead of the volatility, we have σ 2 ⳱ k(T ⫺ t )4 ⫻ t, where k is a constant. Differentiating with respect to t , dσ 2 ⳱ k[(⫺1)4(T ⫺ t )3 ]t Ⳮ k[(T ⫺ t )4 ] ⳱ k(T ⫺ t )3 [⫺4t Ⳮ T ⫺ t ] dt Setting this to zero, we have t ⳱ T 冫 5. Intuitively, because the exposure proﬁle drops off faster than in Equation (21.12), we must have earlier peak exposure than T 冫 3. Example 21-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 149/Credit Risk c) We know from the previous question that the maximum is at t ⳱ T 冫 3. We then plug into σMAX (V ) ⳱ [k(T ⫺t )]σ 冪t . This is also [kT (2冫 3)]σ 冪T 冫 3 ⳱ [4,000 ⫻ 2] ⫻ 5 ⫻ 冪250 ⳱ 632,456. Multiplying by 2.33, we get 1,473,621.

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Example 21-11: FRM Exam 2001----Question 8 a) The question asks about potential exposure for various swaps during their life. Interest rate swaps generally have lower exposure than currency swaps because there is no market risk on the principals. Currency swaps with longer remaining maturities have greater potential exposure. This is the case for the 10-year currency swap, which after 2 years has 8 years remaining to maturity. Example 21-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 47/Credit Risk d) The CD has the whole notional at risk. Otherwise, the next greatest exposure is for the forward currency contract and the interest rate swap. The short cap position has no exposure if the premium has been collected. Note that the question eliminates settlement risk for the forward contract. Example 21-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 153/Credit Risk b) All items have an effect on exposure except (I), which is default risk. Example 21-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 33/Credit Risk c) The credit quality is not involved in the calculation of the potential exposure. It is only taken into account for the computation of the Basel risk weights, or for the distribution of credit losses. Example 21-15: FRM Exam 1998----Question 34/Credit Risk d) Without additional information and no netting agreement, it is not possible to determine the exposure from the net amount only. The portfolio could have two swaps with value of $100 million and ⫺$80 million, which gives an exposure of $100 million without netting. Example 21-16: FRM Exam 1999----Question 131/Credit Risk d) Credit risk will be decreased with netting, more positions and counterparties. Example 21-17: FRM Exam 1999----Question 154/Credit Risk c) Deﬁne X and Y as the absolute values of the positive and negative positions. The net value is X ⫺ Y ⳱ 20 million. The absolute gross value is X Ⳮ Y ⳱ 80. Solving, we get X ⳱ 50 million. This is the positive part of the positions, or exposure. Example 21-18: FRM Exam 1999----Question 123/Credit Risk b) The haircut on equity repos is greater due to the greater price volatility of the collateral.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 22 Credit Derivatives Credit derivatives are the latest tool in the management of portfolio credit risk. From 1996 to 2002, the market is estimated to have grown from about $40 billion to more than $2,300 billion. The market has doubled in each of these years. Credit derivatives are contracts that pass credit risk from one counterparty to another. They allow credit risk to be stripped from loans and bonds and placed in a different market. Their performance is based on a credit spread, a credit rating, or default status. Like other derivatives, they can be traded on a stand-alone basis or embedded in some other instrument, such as a credit-linked note. Section 22.1 presents the rationale for credit derivatives. Section 22.2 describes credit default swaps, total return swaps, credit spread forward and option contracts, as well as credit-linked notes. Section 22.3 then provides a brief introduction to the pricing and hedging of credit derivatives. Finally, Section 22.4 discusses the pros and cons of credit derivatives.

22.1

Introduction

Credit derivatives have grown so quickly because they provide an efﬁcient mechanism to exchange credit risk. While modern banking is built on the sensible notion that a portfolio of loans is less risky than single ones, banks still tend to be too concentrated in geographic or industrial sectors. This is because their comparative advantage is “relationship banking,” which is usually limited to a clientele banks know best. So far, it has been difﬁcult to lay off this credit exposure, as there is only a limited market for secondary loans. In addition, borrowers may not like to see their bank selling their loans to another party, even for diversiﬁcation reasons. In fact, credit derivatives are not totally new. Bond insurance is a contract between a bond issuer and a guarantor (a bank or insurer) to provide additional payment should the issuer fail to make full and timely payment. A letter of credit is a

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guarantee by a bank to provide a payment to a third party should the primary credit fail on its obligations. The call feature in corporate bonds involves an option on the risk-free interest rate as well as the credit spread; this is generally not considered a credit derivative, however. Indeed the borrower can also call back the bond should its credit rating improve. What is new is the transparency and trading made possible by credit derivatives. Credit derivatives can also be found on organized exchanges. The value of Eurodollar futures is driven by short-term rates plus a credit spread. Hence a TreasuryEurodollar (TED) spread is solely exposed to credit risk. The credit risk component can be isolated by buying one type of futures contract and shorting the other. Example 22-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 44/Credit Risk 22-1. All of the following can be accomplished with the use of a credit derivative except a) Reducing credit concentration risk b) Allowing a fund to invest in corporate loans c) Preventing the bankruptcy of loan counterparty d) Leveraging credit risk

22.2

Types of Credit Derivatives

Credit derivatives are over-the-counter contracts that allow credit risk to be exchanged across counterparties. They can be classiﬁed in terms of ● The underlying credit, which can be either a single entity of a group of entities ● The exercise conditions, which can be a credit event (such as default or a rating downgrade, or an increase in credit spreads ● The payoff function, which can be a ﬁxed amount or a variable amount with a linear or nonlinear payoff Table 22-1 provides a breakdown of the credit derivatives market by instruments, which will be deﬁned later. The largest share of the market consists of plain-vanilla, credit default swaps, typically with 5-year maturities. The next segment consists of synthetic securitization, or collateralized debt obligations (CDOs), where the special purpose vehicle gains exposure to a speciﬁed portfolio of credit risk via credit derivatives and the payoffs are redistributed across different tranches. We now deﬁne each category in turn.

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TABLE 22-1 Credit Derivatives by Type Percentage of Total Notionals Type Credit default swaps Synthetic securitization Credit-linked notes Total return swaps Credit spread options Total

Percent 73% 22% 3% 1% 1% 100%

Source: Risk (February 2003).

22.2.1

Credit Default Swaps

In a credit default swap contract, a protection buyer (say A) pays a premium to the protection seller (say B), in exchange for payment if a credit event occurs. The premium payment can be a lump sum or periodic. The contingent payment is triggered by a credit event (CE) on the underlying credit. The structure of this swap is described in Figure 22-1. FIGURE 22-1 Credit Default Swap

COUNTERPARTY A: PROTECTION BUYER

Periodic payment Contingent payment

COUNTERPARTY B: PROTECTION SELLER

REFERENCE ASSET: BOND

These contracts represent the purest form of credit derivatives, as they are not affected by ﬂuctuations in market values as long as the credit event does not occur. In the next chapter, we will deﬁne this approach as “default mode” marking-to-market (MTM). Also, these contracts are really default options, not swaps. The main difference from a regular option is that the cost of the option is paid in installments instead of up front. When the premium is paid up front, these contracts are called default put options.1 1

Default swaps and default options are not identical instruments, however, because a default swap requires premium payments only until a triggering default event occurs.

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Example The protection buyer, call it A, enters a 1-year credit default swap on a notional of $100 million worth of 10-year bonds issued by XYZ. The swap entails an annual payment of 50bp. The bond is called the reference credit asset. At the beginning of the year, A pays $500,000 to the protection seller. Say that at the end of the year, Company XYZ defaults on this bond, which now trades at 40 cents on the dollar. The counterparty then has to pay $60 million to A. If A holds this bond in its portfolio, the credit default swap provides protection against credit loss due to default. Default swaps are embedded in many ﬁnancial products: Investing in a risky (credit-sensitive) bond is equivalent to investing in a risk-free bond plus selling a credit default swap. Say, for instance, that the risky bond sells at $90 and promises to pay $100 in one year. The risk-free bond sells at $95. Buying the risky bond is then equivalent to buying the risk-free bond at $95 and selling a credit default swap worth $5 now. The up-front cost is the same, $90. If the company defaults, the ﬁnal payoff will be the same. It is important to realize that entering a credit swap does not eliminate credit risk entirely. Instead, the protection buyer decreases exposure to the reference credit but assumes new credit exposure to seller. To be effective, there has to be a low correlation between the default risk of the underlying credit and of the counterparty. Table 22-2 illustrates the effect of the counterparty for the pricing of the CDS. If the counterparty is default free, the CDS spread on this BBB credit should be 194bp. The spread depends on the default risk for the counterparty as well as the correlation with the reference credit. In the worst case in the table, with a BBB rating for the counterparty and correlation of 0.8, protection is less effective, and the CDS is only worth 134 bp. Credit events must be subject to precise deﬁnitions. Chapter 19 provided such a list, drawn from the ISDA’s Master Netting Agreement. Ideally, there should be no uncertainty about the interpretation of a credit event. Otherwise, credit derivative transactions can create legal risks. The payment on default reﬂects the loss to the holders of the reference asset when the credit event occurs. Deﬁne Q as this payment per unit of notional. It can take a number of forms.

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TABLE 22-2 CDS Spreads for Different Counterparties Reference Obligation is 5-year Bond Rated BBB Correlation 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

Counterparty Credit Rating AAA AA A BBB 194 194 194 194 191 190 189 186 187 185 181 175 182 178 171 159 177 171 157 134

Source: Adapted from Hull J. and White A. (2001). Valuing credit default swaps II: Modeling default correlations. Journal of Derivatives, 8(3), 12–21.

Cash settlement, or a payment equal to the strike minus the prevailing market value of the underlying bond. Physical delivery of the defaulted obligation in exchange for a ﬁxed payment. A lump sum, or a ﬁxed amount based on some pre-agreed recovery rate. For instance, if the CE occurs, the recovery rate is set at 40%, leading to a payment of 60% of the notional. The payoff on a credit default swap is Payment ⳱ Notional ⫻ Q ⫻ I (CE)

(22.1)

where the indicator function I (CE) is one if the credit event has occurred and zero otherwise. These default swaps have several variants. For instance, the ﬁrst of basket to default swap gives the protection buyer the right to deliver one, and only one, defaulted security out of a basket of selected securities. Because the protection buyer has more choices, among a basket instead of just one reference credit, this type of protection will be more expensive than a single credit swap, keeping all else equal. The price of protection also depends on the correlation between credit events. The lower the correlation, the more expensive the swap. Example 22-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 122/Credit Risk 22-2. A portfolio manager holds a default swap to hedge an AA corporate bond position. If the counterparty of the default swap is acquired by the bond issuer, then the default swap: a) Increases in value b) Decreases in value c) Decreases in value only if the corporate bond is downgraded d) Is unchanged in value

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Example 22-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 39/Credit Risk 22-3. A portfolio consists of one (long) $100 million asset and a default protection contract on this asset. The probability of default over the next year is 10% for the asset and 20% for the counterparty that wrote the default protection. The joint probability of default for the asset and the contract counterparty is 3%. Estimate the expected loss on this portfolio due to credit defaults over the next year assuming 40% recovery rate on the asset and 0% recovery rate for the contract counterparty. a) $3.0 million b) $2.2 million c) $1.8 million d) None of the above

Total Return Swaps

AM FL Y

22.2.2

Total return swaps (TRS) are contracts where one party, called the protection buyer, makes a series of payments linked to the total return on a reference asset. They are also called asset swaps. exchange, the protection seller makes a series of payments tied to a reference rate, such as the yield on an equivalent Treasury issue (or LIBOR) plus a spread. If the price of the asset goes down, the protection buyer receives a

TE

payment from the counterparty; if the price goes up, a payment is due in the other direction. The structure of this swap is described in Figure 22-2. This type of swap is tied to changes in the market value of the underlying asset and provides protection against credit risk in an MTM framework. The TRS has the effect of removing all the economic risk of the underlying asset without selling it. Unlike a CDS, however, the swap has an element of market risk because one leg of the payment is a ﬁxed rate. FIGURE 22-2 Total Return Swap

COUNTERPARTY A: PROTECTION BUYER

Payment tied to reference asset COUNTERPARTY B: PROTECTION Payment tied to SELLER reference rate

REFERENCE ASSET: BOND

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Example Suppose that a bank, call it Bank A, has made a $100 million loan to company XYZ at a ﬁxed rate of 10 percent. The bank can hedge its exposure by entering a TRS with counterparty B, whereby it promises to pay the interest on the loan plus the change in the market value of the loan in exchange for LIBOR plus 50bp. If the market value of the loan increases, the bank has to make a greater payment. Otherwise, its payment will decrease, possibly becoming negative. Say that LIBOR is currently at 9 percent and that after one year, the value of the loan drops from $100 to $95 million. The net obligation from Bank A is the sum of ● Outﬂow of 10% ⫻ $100 ⳱ $10 million, for the loan’s interest payment ● Inﬂow of 9.5% ⫻ $100 ⳱ $9.5 million, for the reference payment ● Outﬂow of

(95⫺100) 100 %

⫻ $100 ⳱ ⫺$5 million, for the movement in the loan’s value

This sums to a net receipt of ⫺10 Ⳮ 9.5 ⫺ (⫺5) ⳱ $4.5 million. Bank A has been able to offset the change in the economic value of this loan by a gain on the TRS.

22.2.3

Credit Spread Forward and Options

These instruments are derivatives whose value is tied to an underlying credit spread between a risky and risk-free bond. In a credit spread forward contract, the buyer receives the difference between the credit spread at maturity and an agreed-upon spread, if positive. Conversely, a payment is made if the difference is negative. An example of the payment formula is Payment ⳱ (S ⫺ F ) ⫻ MD ⫻ Notional

(22.2)

where MD is the modiﬁed duration, S is the prevailing spread and F is the agreed-upon spread. Here, settlement is made in cash. Alternatively, this could be expressed in terms of prices: Payment ⳱ [P (y Ⳮ F , τ ) ⫺ P (y Ⳮ S, τ )] ⫻ Notional

(22.3)

where y is the yield-to-maturity of an equivalent Treasury and P (y ⳭS, τ ) is the present value of the security with τ years to expiration, discounted at y plus a spread. Note that if S ⬎ F , the payment will be positive as in the previous expression. In a credit spread option contract, the buyer pays a premium in exchange for the right to “put” any increase in the spread to the option seller at a predeﬁned maturity: Payment ⳱ Max(S ⫺ K, 0) ⫻ MD ⫻ Notional

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where K is the predeﬁned spread. The purchaser of the options buys credit protection, or the right to put the bond to the seller if it falls in value. The payout formula could also be expressed directly in terms of prices, as in Equation (22.3).

Example A credit spread option has a notional of $100 million with a maturity of one year. The underlying security is an 8% 10-year bond issued by the corporation XYZ. The current spread is 150bp against 10-year Treasuries. The option is European type with a strike of 160bp. Assume that, at expiration, Treasury yields have moved from 6.5% to 6% and the credit spread has widened to 180bp. The price of an 8% coupon, 9-year semiannual bond discounted at y Ⳮ S ⳱ 6 Ⳮ 1.8 ⳱ 7.8% is $101.276. The price of the same bond discounted at y Ⳮ K ⳱ 6 Ⳮ 1.6 ⳱ 7.6% is $102.574. Using the notional amount, the payout is (102.574 ⫺ 101.276)冫 100 ⫻ $100, 000, 000 ⳱ $1, 297, 237.

22.2.4

Credit-Linked Notes

Credit-linked notes are not stand-alone derivatives contracts but instead combine a regular coupon-paying note with some credit risk feature. The goal is generally to increase the yield paid to the investor in exchange for taking some credit risk. The simplest form is a corporate, or credit-sensitive, bond. A general example is provided in Figure 22-3. The investor makes an up-front payment that represents the par value of the credit-linked note. A trustee then invests the funds in a top-rated investment and takes a short position in a credit default swap. The investment could be an AAA-rated Fannie Mae agency note, for instance, that FIGURE 22-3 Credit-Linked Note

Xbp PROVIDER Contingent payment

CL Note: AAA Asset in trust + credit swap Par

Par Libor+X+Ybp INVESTOR Contingent payment

Libor +Ybp

AAA Asset

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TABLE 22-3 Types of Credit-Linked Notes Type Asset-backed Compound credit Principal protection Enhanced asset return

Maximum Loss Initial investment Amount from ﬁrst note’s default None on the principal Predetermined

pays LIBOR plus a spread of Y bp. The credit default swap is sold by a provider, for example a bank, for an additional annual receipt of X bp. The total regular payment to the investor is then LIBORⳭY Ⳮ X . In return for this higher yield, the investor must be willing to lose some of the principal should a default event occur. More generally, credit-linked notes can have exposure to one or more credit risks and increase the yield through leverage. The downside risk may be limited through the features described in Table 22-3. These structures offer various trade-offs between risk and return. “Asset-backed securities” could lose up to the whole initial investment. The payoffs on “compound credit” notes are linked to various credits and can only lose the amount corresponding to the ﬁrst credit’s default. “Principal protection” notes have their principal guaranteed. “Enhanced asset return” notes have a predetermined maximum loss. Example 22-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 33/Credit Risk 22-4. Which one of the following statements is most correct? a) Payment in a total return swap is contingent upon a future credit event. b) Investing in a risky (credit-sensitive) bond is similar to investing in. a risk-free bond plus selling a credit default swap. c) In the ﬁrst-to-default swap, the default event is a default on two or. more assets in the basket. d) Payment in a credit swap is contingent only upon the bankruptcy of the. counterparty. Example 22-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 113/Credit Risk 22-5. Which of the following statements is/are always true? a) Payment in a credit swap is contingent upon a future credit event. b) Payment in a total rate of return swap is not contingent upon a future credit event. c) Both (a) and (b) are true. d) None of the above are true.

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Example 22-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 114/Credit Risk 22-6. In the ﬁrst-to-default swap, the default event is a default on a) Any one of the assets in the basket b) All of the assets in the basket c) Two or more assets in the basket d) None of the above Example 22-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 144/Credit Risk 22-7. Which of the following is a type of credit derivative? I) A put option on a corporate bond II) A total return swap on a loan portfolio III) A note that pays an enhanced yield in the case of a bond downgrade IV) A put option on an off-the-run Treasury bond a) I, II, and III b) II and III only c) II only d) All of the above Example 22-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 26/Credit Risk 22-8. The BIS considers all of the following products to be credit derivatives except a) Credit-linked notes b) Total-return swaps c) Credit spread options d) Callable ﬂoating-rate notes Example 22-9: FRM Exam 1998----Question 46/Credit Risk 22-9. Company A and Company B enter into a trade agreement in which Company A will periodically pay all cash ﬂows and capital gains arising from Bond X to Company B. On the same dates Company B will pay Company A LIBOR + 50bp plus any decrease in the market value of Bond X. What type of trade is this? a) A total return swap b) A ﬁxed-income-linked swap c) An inverse ﬂoater d) An interest-rate swap

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Example 22-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 61/Credit Risk 22-10. (Complex–use the valuation formula with prices) A credit-spread option has a notional amount of $50 million with a maturity of one year. The underlying security is a 10-year, semiannual bond with a 7% coupon and a $1,000 face value. The current spread is 120 basis points against 10-year Treasuries. The option is a European option with a strike of 130 basis points. If at expiration, Treasury yields have moved from 6% to 6.3% and the credit-spread has widened to 150 basis points, what will be the payout to the buyer of this credit-spread option? a) $587,352 b) $611,893 c) $622,426 d) $639,023 Example 22-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 62/Credit Risk 22-11. Bank One has made a $200 million loan to a software company at a ﬁxed rate of 12 percent. The bank wants to hedge its exposure by entering into a total return swap with a counterparty, Interloan Co., in which Bank One promises to pay the interest on the loan plus the change in the market value of the loan in exchange for LIBOR plus 40 basis points. If after one year the market value of the loan has decreased by 3 percent and LIBOR is 11 percent, what will be the net obligation of Bank One? a) Net receipt of $4.8 million b) Net payment of $4.8 million c) Net receipt of $5.2 million d) Net payment of $5.2 million

22.3

Pricing and Hedging Credit Derivatives

By now, we have developed tools to price and hedge credit risk, which can be extended to credit derivatives. These credit derivatives, however, are complex instruments, as they combine market risk and the joint credit risk of the reference credit and of the counterparty. In general, we need a long list of variables to price these derivatives, including the term structure of risk-free rates, of the reference credit, of the counterparty credit, as well as the joint distribution of default and recoveries. Practitioners use shortcuts that typically ignore the default risk of the counterparty.

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Methods

The ﬁrst approach is the actuarial approach, which uses historical default rates to infer the objective expected loss on the credit derivative. For instance, we could use a transition matrix and estimates of recovery rates to assess the actuarial expected loss. This process, however, does not rely on a risk-neutral approach and will not lead to a fair price, which includes a risk premium. Neither does it provide a method to hedge the exposure. It only helps to build up a reserve that, in large samples, should be sufﬁcient to absorb the average loss. The second approach relies on bond credit spreads and requires a full yield curve of liquid bonds for the underlying credit. This approach allows us to derive a fair price for the credit derivative, as well as a hedging mechanism, which uses traded bonds for the underlying credit. The third approach relies on equity prices and requires a liquid market for the common stock for the underlying credit as well as information about the structure of liabilities. The Merton model, for instance, allows us to derive a fair price for the credit derivative, as well as a hedging mechanism, which uses the common stock of the underlying credit.

22.3.2

Example: Credit Default Swap

We are asked to value a credit default swap on a $10 million two-year agreement, whereby A (the protection buyer) agrees to pay B (the guarantor, or protection seller) a ﬁxed annual fee in exchange for protection against default of 2-year bonds XYZ. The payout will be the notional times (100 ⫺ B ), where B is the price of the bond at expiration, if the credit event occurs. Currently, XYZ bonds are rated A and trade at 6.60%. The 2-year T-note trades at 6.00%. Actuarial Method This method computes the credit exposure from the current credit rating and the probability that the company XYZ will default. We use a simpliﬁed transition matrix, shown in Table 22-4. Starting from an A rating, the company could default ● In year 1, with a probability of P (D1 兩 A0 ) ⳱ 1% ● In year 2, with a probability of P (D2 兩 A1 )P (A1 ) Ⳮ P (D2 兩 B1 )P (B1 ) Ⳮ P (D2 兩 C1 )P (C1 ) ⳱ 0.01 ⫻ 0.90 Ⳮ 0.02 ⫻ 0.07 Ⳮ 0.05 ⫻ 0.02 ⳱ 1.14%

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Table 22-4 Credit Ratings Transition Probabilities Starting State A B C D

A 0.90 0.05 0 0

Ending State B C 0.07 0.02 0.90 0.03 0.10 0.85 0 0

D 0.01 0.02 0.05 1.00

Total 1.00 1.00 1.00 1.00

If the recovery rate is 60%, the expected costs are, for the ﬁrst year, 1%[1 ⫺ 60%], and 1.14%[1 ⫺ 60%] in the second year. Ignoring discounting, the average annual cost is Annual Cost ⳱ $10, 000, 000 ⫻ (1% Ⳮ 1.14%)冫 2 ⫻ [1 ⫺ 60%] ⳱ $42,800 This approach assumes that the credit rating is appropriate and that the transition probabilities and recovery rates are accurately measured. Credit-Spread Method Here, we compare the yield on the XYZ bond with that on a default-free asset, such as the T-Note. If all bonds are treated equally, the bonds must have the same term as the maturity of the option. The annual cost of protection is then Annual Cost ⳱ $10, 000, 000 ⫻ (6.60% ⫺ 6.00%) ⳱ $60,000 This is higher than the cost from the actuarial approach. The difference can be ascribed to a risk premium, for instance because credit risk is correlated with the general level of economic activity. This approach also assumes that all of the yield spread difference is due to credit risk, when it could be also attributed to other factors, such as liquidity or tax effects. To hedge, the protection seller would go short the corporate bond and long the equivalent Treasury. Any loss on the default swap because of a credit event would be offset by a gain on the hedge. If the company defaults, the protection buyer could deliver the bond to the protection seller who could then in turn deliver the bond to close out the short sale. Equity Price Method This method is more involved. We require a measure of the stock market capitalization of XYZ, of the total value of liabilities, and of the volatility of equity prices. Using the notations of the chapter on the Merton model, the fair value of the put is Put ⳱ ⫺V [N (⫺d1 )] Ⳮ Ke⫺r τ [N (⫺d2 )]

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where d1 and d2 depend on V , K, r , σV , and the tenor of the put, τ . We could, for example, have a “fair” put option value of $120,000, which, again ignoring discounting, translates into an annual cost of $60,000. To hedge, the protection seller would go short the stock, in the amount of 1 1 1 ∂ Put ∂V ⫻ ⳱ ⫺[N (⫺d1 )] ⫻ ⳱ ⫺[1 ⫺ N (d1 )] ⫻ ⳱1⫺ ∂V ∂S N (d1 ) N (d1 ) N (d1 )

(22.6)

which indeed is negative, plus an appropriate position in the risk-free bond. Example 22-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 147/Credit Risk 22-12. Which of the following are needed to value a credit swap? I) Correlation structure for the default and recovery rates of the swap counterparty and reference credit II) The swap or treasury yield curve III) Reference credit spread curve over swap or treasury rates IV) Swap counterparty credit spread curve over swap or treasury rates a) II, III, and IV b) I, III, and IV c) II and III d) All of the above Example 22-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 135/Credit Risk 22-13. The Widget Company has outstanding debt of three different maturities as outlined in the table.

Maturity 1 year 5 years 10 years

Widget Company Bonds Corresponding U.S. Treasury Bonds Price Coupon (sa 30/360) Price Coupon (sa 30/360) 100 7.00% 100 6.00% 100 8.50% 100 6.50% 100 9.50% 100 7.00%

All Widget Co. debt ranks pari passu, all its debt contains cross default provisions, and the recovery value for each bond is 20. The correct price for a one-year credit default swap (sa 30/360) with the Widget Co., 9.5% 10-year bond as a reference asset is a) 1.0% per annum b) 2.0% per annum c) 2.5% per annum d) 3.5% per annum

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Pros and Cons of Credit Derivatives

The rapid growth of the credit derivatives market is the best testimony of their usefulness. These instruments are superior risk management tools, allowing the transfer of risks to those who can bear them best. Many observers, including bank regulators, have stated that credit risk diversiﬁcation using credit derivatives helped banks to weather the recession of 2001 and its accompanying increase in defaults, without apparent major problems. This period witnessed the largest-ever corporate bankruptcies (WorldCom and Enron) and sovereign default (Argentina) with barely a ripple in global ﬁnancial markets. The losses have been spread widely, saving the major U.S. banks from the catastrophic failures typical of previous downturns. In the case of Enron, for instance, exposures amounting to around $2.7 billion were transferred to credit derivatives. Credit derivatives have another useful function, which is price discovery. By creating or extending a market for credit risk, this new market gives market observers a better measure of the cost of credit risk. Credit derivatives also allow transactional efﬁciency, because they have lower transaction costs than in the cash markets. Counterparties can also take advantage of disparities in the pricing of loans and bonds, making both markets more efﬁcient. On the downside, this market may be relatively illiquid. This is because, unlike interest rate swaps, there is no standardization of the reference credit. By deﬁnition, credit risk is speciﬁc. Also, the market still uses various valuation methods. This is due to the short supply of data on essential parameters, such as default probabilities and recovery rates. As a result, there is less agreement on the fair valuation of credit derivatives than for other derivatives instruments. Credit derivatives also introduce a new element of risk, which is legal risk. Indeed parties can sometimes squabble over the deﬁnition of a credit event. Such disagreement occurred during the Russian default as well as notable debt restructurings and demergers. No doubt this explains why bank regulators are watching the growth of this market with some concern. The question is whether these contracts will be fully effective with widespread defaults. This is especially so because this market has evolved from regulatory arbitrage, that is, attempts to defeat onerous capital requirements mandated by bank

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regulators. Commercial banks have systematically lowered their capital requirements by laying off loan credit risk through credit derivatives. This can be advantageous if an economically equivalent credit exposure has lower capital requirements (we will discuss regulatory capital requirements in a later chapter). Whether this is a beneﬁt or drawback depends on one’s perspective.

22.5

AM FL Y

Example 22-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 30/Credit Risk 22-14. Which one of the following statements is not an application of credit derivatives for banks? a) Reduction in economic and regulatory capital usage b) Reduction in counterparty concentrations c) Management of the risk proﬁle of the loan portfolio d) Credit protection of private banking deposits

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 22-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 44/Credit Risk

TE

c) Credit derivatives certainly do not prevent the credit events from happening. Example 22-2: FRM Exam 1999----Question 122/Credit Risk b) This is an interesting question that demonstrates that the credit risk of the underlying asset is exchange for that of the swap counterparty. The swap is now worthless; if the underlying credit defaults, the counterparty will default as well (since it is the same). Example 22-3: FRM Exam 2000----Question 39/Credit Risk c) The only state of the world with a loss is a default on the asset jointly with a default of the guarantor. This has probability of 3%. The expected loss is $100, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.03 ⫻ (1⫺ 40%) ⳱ $1.8 million. Example 22-4: FRM Exam 2000----Question 33/Credit Risk b) Answer (a) is not correct because payment is simply a function of market variables (this is not a credit default swap). Answer (c) is incorrect because the default event in this case is the ﬁrst default. Answer (d) is incorrect because a credit event is more general than simply bankruptcy. Answer (b) says that a risky bond is the sum of a risk-free bond plus a short position in a credit default swap.

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Example 22-5: FRM Exam 1999----Question 113/Credit Risk c) Payment from the protection seller is contingent upon a credit event for a credit swap and a combination of payment tied to a reference rate and the asset depreciation for a TRS. Example 22-6: FRM Exam 1999----Question 114/Credit Risk a) The default event is triggered when there is a ﬁrst default on necessarily any of the assets in the basket. Example 22-7: FRM Exam 1999----Question 144/Credit Risk a) Part I, II, and III are correct. An option on a T-bond has no credit component. Example 22-8: FRM Exam 1998----Question 26/Credit Risk d) The ﬁrst three instruments have a major credit component. Callable FRN are not considered credit derivatives. The call option is primarily an interest-rate option. Example 22-9: FRM Exam 1998----Question 46/Credit Risk a) The payments are linked to the total return on bond X. Example 22-10: FRM Exam 2000----Question 61/Credit Risk c) We need to value the bond with remaining semiannual payments for 9 years using two yields, y Ⳮ S ⳱ 6.30 Ⳮ 1.50 ⳱ 7.80% and y Ⳮ K ⳱ 6.30 Ⳮ 1.30 ⳱ 7.60%. This gives $948.95 and $961.40, respectively. The total payout is then $50, 000, 000 ⫻ [$961.40 ⫺ $948.95]冫 $1000 ⳱ $622, 424. Example 22-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 62/Credit Risk a) The net payment is an outﬂow of 12% ⫺ 3% minus inﬂow of 11% Ⳮ 0.4%, which is a net receipt of ⫺2.4%. Applied to the notional of $200 million, this gives a receipt of $4.8 million. Example 22-12: FRM Exam 1999----Question 147/Credit Risk d) As a ﬁrst approximation, the reference credit spread curve may be enough. To be complete, however, we also need information about the credit risk of the swap counterparty, the treasury curve (for discounting), and correlations. The correlation structure enters the pricing through the expectation of the product of the default and loss given default.

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Example 22-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 135/Credit Risk a) Because all bonds rank equally, all default occur at the same time and have the same loss given default. Therefore the cash ﬂow on the 1-year credit swap can be replicated (including any risk premium) by going long the 1-year Widget bond and short the 1-year T-Bond. Example 22-14: FRM Exam 2000----Question 30/Credit Risk d) Credit derivatives are used to reduce regulatory capital usage and counterparty concentrations and to manage the risk proﬁle of the loan portfolio. Private banking deposits are bank liabilities, not assets.

Financial Risk Manager Handbook, Second Edition

Chapter 23 Managing Credit Risk The previous chapters have explained how to estimate default probabilities, credit exposures, and recovery rates for individual credits. We now turn to the measurement and management of credit risk for the overall portfolio. In the past, credit risk was measured on a stand-alone basis, in terms of a “yes” or “no” decision by a credit ofﬁcer. Some consideration was given to portfolio effect through very crude credit limits at the overall level. Portfolio theory, however, teaches us that risk should be viewed in the context of the contribution to the total risk of a portfolio, not in isolation. Diversiﬁcation creates what is perhaps the only “free lunch” in ﬁnance: The pricing of risk is markedly lower when considering portfolio effects. The revolution in risk management is now spreading from the portfolio measurement of market risk to credit risk. This is a result of a number of developments. At the top of the list are technological advances that now enable us to aggregate ﬁnancial risk in close to real time. Second, the market has witnessed an exponential growth in new products, such as credit derivatives, which allow better management of credit risk. Finally, developments in government policies and ﬁnancial markets are leading to greater emphasis on credit risk. With the European Monetary Union (EMU), exchange rate risk has disappeared within the Eurozone. This has transformed currency risk into credit risk for European government bonds.1 Thus, French government debt now carries credit risk, like debt issued by the state of California. Correspondingly, the increasing depth and liquidity of EMU corporate bond markets is leading to a rapid expansion of this market.

1

In the past there was very little credit risk on European government debt. Although governments could have defaulted on their national-currency denominated debt, it was easier to create inﬂation to expropriate bondholders. Some have done so with a vengeance, like Italy. Governments do not have this option any more, as the value of the new currency, the euro, is now in the hands of the European Central Bank. Indeed, Chapter 19 has shown that the credit rating of countries is lower when the debt is denominated in foreign currency rather than in the local currency.

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Section 23.1 introduces the distribution of credit losses. This contains two major components. The ﬁrst is the expected credit loss, which is essential information for pricing and reserving purposes, as explained in Section 23.2. The second component is the unexpected credit loss, or worst deviation from the expected loss at some conﬁdence level. Section 23.3 shows how this credit value at risk (VAR), like market VAR, can be used to determine the amount of capital necessary to support a position. The pricing of loans should not only cover expected losses, but also the remuneration of the economic capital set aside to cover the unexpected loss. Finally, Section 23.4 provides an overview of recently developed credit risk models, including CreditMetrics, CreditRiskⳭ, the KMV model, and Credit Portfolio View.

23.1

Measuring the Distribution of Credit Losses

We can now pool together the information on default probabilities, credit exposures, and recovery rates to measure the distribution of losses due to credit risk. For simplicity, we only consider losses in default mode (DM), that is, due to defaults instead of changes in market values. For one instrument, the current or potential credit loss is Credit Loss ⳱ b ⫻ Credit Exposure ⫻ LGD

(23.1)

which involves the random variable b that takes on the value of 1, with probability p, when the discrete state of default occurs, the credit exposure, and the loss given default (LGD). For a portfolio of N counterparties, the loss is N

Credit Loss ⳱

冱 bi ⫻ CEi ⫻ LGDi

(23.2)

i ⳱1

where CEi is now the total credit exposure to counterparty i , across all contracts and taking into account netting agreements. The distribution of credit loss is quite complex. Typically, information about credit is described by the net replacement value (NRV), which is also N

NRV ⳱

冱 CEi

(23.3)

i ⳱1

evaluated at the current time. This is the worst that could be lost if all parties defaulted at the same time and if there was no recovery. This is not very informative,

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however. The NRV, which is often disclosed in annual reports, is equivalent to using notionals to describe the risks of derivatives portfolios. It does not take into account the probability of default nor correlations across defaults and exposures. Chapter 18 gave an example of a loss distribution for a simple portfolio with three counterparties. This example was tractable as we could enumerate all possible states. In general, we need to consider many more credit events. We also need to account for movements and comovements in risk factors, which drive exposures, uncertain recovery rates, and correlations among defaults. This can only be done with the help of Monte Carlo simulations. Once this is performed for the whole portfolio, we obtain a distribution of credit losses on a target date. Figure 23-1 describes a typical distribution.

FIGURE 23-1 Distribution of Credit Losses Frequency distribution Unexpected credit loss at 99% level

Expected credit loss

Credit loss

This leads to a number of fundamental observations. Distribution The distribution of credit losses is highly skewed to the left, in contrast to that of market risk factors, which is in general roughly symmetrical. This distribution is actually similar to a short position in an option. This analogy is formalized in the Merton model, which equates a risky bond to a risk-free bond plus a short position in an option.

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Expected credit loss (ECL) The expected credit loss represents the average credit loss. The pricing of the portfolio should be such that it covers the expected loss. In other words, the price should be advantageous enough to offset average credit losses. In the case of a bond, the price should be low enough, or yield high enough, to compensate against expected losses. In the case of a derivative, the bank that takes on the credit risk should factor this expected loss into the pricing of its product. Loan loss reserves should also be accumulated as a credit provision against expected losses. Worst Credit Loss (WCL) The worst credit loss represents the loss that will not be exceeded at some level of conﬁdence. Like a VAR ﬁgure, the unexpected credit loss (UCL) is the deviation from the expected loss. The institution should have enough capital to cover the unexpected loss. As we have seen before, the UCL depends on the distribution of joint default rates, among other factors. Notably, the dispersion in the distribution narrows as the number of credits increases and when correlations among defaults decrease. Marginal Contribution to Risk The distribution of credit losses can also be used to analyze the incremental effect of a proposed trade on the total portfolio risk. As in the case of market risk, individual credits should be evaluated not only on the basis of their stand-alone risk, but also of their contribution to the portfolio risk. For the same expected return, a trade that lowers risk should be preferable over one that adds to the portfolio risk. Such trade-offs can only be made with a formal measurement of portfolio credit risk. Remuneration of Capital The measure of worst credit loss is also important for the pricing of creditsensitive instrument. Say that the distribution has an ECL of $1 billion and UCL of $5 billion. The bank then needs to set aside $5 billion just to cover deviations from expected credit losses. This equity capital, however, will require remuneration. So, the pricing of loans should not only cover expected losses, but also the remuneration of this economic capital. This is what we call a risk premium and explains why observed credit spreads are larger than simply to cover actuarial losses.

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Example 23-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 41/Credit Risk 23-1. Credit provisions should be taken to cover all of the following except a) Nonperforming loans b) The expected loss of a loan portfolio c) An amount equal to the VAR of the credit portfolio d) Excess credit proﬁts earned during below average loss years

23.2

Measuring Expected Credit Loss

23.2.1

Expected Loss over a Target Horizon

For pricing purposes, we need to measure the expected credit loss, which is E [CL] ⳱

冮 f (b, CE, LGD)(b ⫻ CE ⫻ LGD) db dCE dLGD

(23.4)

If the random variables are independent, the joint density reduces to the product of densities. We have E [CL] ⳱

冋冮

f (b)(b) db

册冋冮

册冋冮

f (CE)(CE) d CE

册

f (LGD)(LGD) d LGD

(23.5)

which is the product of the expected values. In other words, Expected Credit Loss ⳱ Prob[default] ⫻ E [Credit Exposure] ⫻ E [LGD]

(23.6)

As an example, the expected credit loss on a BBB-rated $100 million 5-year bond with 47% recovery rate is 2.28% ⫻ $100, 000, 000 ⫻ (1 ⫺ 47%) ⳱ $1.2 million. Note that this expected loss is the same whether the bank has one $100 million exposure or one hundred exposures worth $1 million each. The distributions, however, will be quite different. Example 23-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 39/Credit Risk 23-2. Calculate the 1-year expected loss of a $100 million portfolio comprising 10 B-rated issuers. Assume that the 1-year probability of default for each issuer is 6% and the average recovery value for each issuer in the event of default is 40%. a) $2.4 million b) $3.6 million c) $24 million d) $36 million

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Example 23-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 120/Credit Risk 23-3. Which loan is more risky? Assume that the obligors are rated the same, are from the same industry, and have more or less same sized idiosyncratic risk. A loan of a) $1,000,000 with 50% recovery rate b) $1,000,000 with no collateral c) $4,000,000 with 40% recovery rate d) $4,000,000 with 60% recovery rate Example 23-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 112/Credit Risk 23-4. Which of the following conditions results in a higher probability of default? a) The maturity of the transaction is longer. b) The counterparty is more creditworthy. c) The price of the bond, or underlying price in the case of a derivative, is less volatile. d) Both (a) and (c) result in a higher probability of default.

23.2.2

The Time Proﬁle of Expected Loss

So far, we have focused on a ﬁxed horizon, say a year. For pricing purposes, however, we need to consider the total credit loss over the life of the asset. This should involve the time proﬁle of the exposure, of the probability of default, and the discounting factor. Deﬁne PVt as the present value of a dollar paid at t . The present value of expected credit losses (PVECL) is obtained as the sum of the discounted expected credit losses, PVECL ⳱

冱 E [CLt] ⫻ PVt ⳱ 冱[kt ⫻ ECEt ⫻ (1 ⫺ f )] ⫻ PVt t

(23.7)

t

where the probability of default is kt ⳱ St ⫺1 dt , or the probability of defaulting at time t , conditional on not having defaulted before. Alternatively, we could simplify by using the average default probability and average exposure over the life of the asset PVECL2 ⳱ Ave[kt ] ⫻ Ave[ECEt ] ⫻ (1 ⫺ f ) ⫻

冤冱 冥 PVt

(23.8)

t

This approach, however, is only an approximation if default risk and exposure proﬁle change over time in a related fashion. As an example, currency swaps with highly-rated counterparties have an exposure and default probability that both increase with time. Due to this correlation, taking the product of the averages understates credit risk.

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Table 23-1 shows how to compute the PVECL. We consider a 5-year interest rate swap with a counterparty initially rated BBB and a notional of $100 million. The discount factor is 6 percent and the recovery rate 45 percent. We also assume default can only occur at the end of each year. TABLE 23-1 Computation of Expected Credit Loss for a Swap Year t 1 2 3 4 5 Total Average

P(default) ct dt 0.22 0.220 0.54 0.321 0.88 0.342 1.55 0.676 2.28 0.741

(%) kt 0.220 0.320 0.340 0.670 0.730 2.280 0.456

Exposure ECEt $1,660,000 $1,497,000 $1,069,000 $554,000 $0

LGD (1 ⫺ f ) 0.55 0.55 0.55 0.55 0.55

$956,000

0.55

Discount PVt 0.9434 0.8900 0.8396 0.7921 0.7473 4.2124 4.2124

Total $1,895 $2,345 $1,678 $1,617 $0 $7,535 $10,100

In the ﬁrst column, we have the cumulative default probability ct for a BBB-rated credit from year 1 to 5, expressed in percent. The second column shows the marginal probability of defaulting during that year dt and the third the probability of defaulting in each year, conditional on not having defaulted before, kt ⳱ St ⫺1 dt . The end-of-year expected credit exposure is reported in the fourth column ECEt . The sixth column displays the present value factor PVt . The ﬁnal column gives the product [kt ECEt (1 ⫺ f )PVt ]. Summing across years gives $7,535 on a swap with notional of $100 million. This is very small, less than 1 basis point. Basically, the expected credit loss is very low due to the small exposure proﬁle. For a regular bond or currency swap, the expected loss is much greater. The last line shows a shortcut to the measurement of expected credit losses based on averages, from Equation (23.8). The average annual default probability is 0.456. Multiplied by the average exposure, $956,000, the LGD, and the sum of the discount rates gives $10,100. This is on the same order of magnitude as the exact calculation. Table 23-2 details the computation for a bond assuming a constant exposure of $100 million. The expected credit loss is $1.02 million, about a hundred times larger than for the swap. This is because the exposure is also about a hundred times larger. As in the previous table, the last line shows results based on averages. Here, the expected credit loss is $1.06 million, very close to the exact number as there is no variation in credit exposures over time.

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We could also take the usual shortcut and simply compute an expected credit loss given by the cumulative 5-year default rate times $100 times the loss given default, which is $1.254 million. Discounting into the present, we get $0.937 million, close to the previous result. TABLE 23-2 Computation of Expected Credit Loss for a Bond

23.3

P(default) ct dt 0.22 0.220 0.54 0.321 0.88 0.342 1.55 0.676 2.28 0.741

(%) kt 0.220 0.320 0.340 0.670 0.730 2.280 0.456

Exposure ECEt $100,000,000 $100,000,000 $100,000,000 $100,000,000 $100,000,000

LGD (1 ⫺ f ) 0.55 0.55 0.55 0.55 0.55

AM FL Y

Year t 1 2 3 4 5 Total Average

$100,000,000

0.55

Discount PVt 0.9434 0.8900 0.8396 0.7921 0.7473 4.2124 4.2124

Total $114,151 $156,639 $157,009 $291,887 $300,024 $1,019,710 $1,056,461

Measuring Credit VAR

TE

The other component of the credit loss distribution is the Credit VAR, deﬁned as the unexpected credit loss at some conﬁdence level. Using the measure of credit loss in Equation (23.1), we construct a distribution of the credit loss f (CL) over a target horizon. At a given conﬁdence c , the worst credit loss (WCL) is deﬁned such that 1⫺c ⳱

冮

⬁

f (x)dx

(23.9)

WCL

The credit VAR is then measured as the deviation away from ECL CVAR ⳱ WCL ⫺ ECL

(23.10)

This CVAR number should be viewed as the economic capital to be held as a buffer against unexpected losses. Its application is fundamentally different from the expected credit loss, which aggregates expected losses over time and takes their present values. Instead, the CVAR is measured over a target horizon, say one year, which is deemed sufﬁcient for the bank to take corrective actions should credit problems start to develop. Corrective action can take the form of exposure reduction or adjustment of economic capital, all of which take considerably longer than the typical horizon for market risk.

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Once credit VAR is measured, it can be managed. The portfolio manager can examine the trades that contribute most to CVAR. If these trades are not particularly proﬁtable, they should be eliminated. The portfolio approach can also reveal correlations between different types of risk. For example, wrong-way trades are positions where the exposure is negatively correlated with the probability of default. Before the Asian crisis, for instance, many U.S. banks had lent to Asian companies in dollars, or entered equivalent swaps. Many of these Asian companies did not have dollar revenues but instead were speculating, reinvesting the funds in the local currency. When currencies devalued, the positions were in-the-money for the U.S. banks, but could not be collected because the counterparties had defaulted. Conversely, right-way trades are those where increasing exposure is associated with lower probability of counterparty default. This occurs when the transaction is a hedge for the counterparty, for instance when a loss on its side of the trade offsets an operating gain. Example 23-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 13/Credit Risk 23-5. A risk analyst is trying to estimate the credit VAR for a risky bond. The credit VAR is deﬁned as the maximum unexpected loss at a conﬁdence level of 99.9% over a one-month horizon. Assume that the bond is valued at $1,000,000 one month forward, and the one-year cumulative default probability is 2% for this bond, what is your best estimate of the credit VAR for this bond assuming no recovery? a) $20,000 b) $1,682 c) $998,318 d) $0 Example 23-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 10/Credit Risk 23-6. A risk analyst is trying to estimate the credit VAR for a portfolio of two risky bonds. The credit VAR is deﬁned as the maximum unexpected loss at a conﬁdence level of 99.9% over a one-month horizon. Assume that each bond is valued at $500,000 one month forward, and the one-year cumulative default probability is 2% for each of these bonds. What is your best estimate of the credit VAR for this portfolio, assuming no default correlation and no recovery? a) $841 b) $1,682 c) $998,318 d) $498,318

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23.4

Portfolio Credit Risk Models

23.4.1

Approaches to Portfolio Credit Risk Models

Portfolio credit risk models can be classiﬁed according to their approaches. Top-Down vs. Bottom-Up Models Top-down models group credit risks using single statistics. They aggregate many sources of risk viewed as homogeneous into an overall portfolio risk, without going into the detail of individual transactions. This approach is appropriate for retail portfolios with large numbers of credits, but less so for corporate or sovereign loans. Even within retail portfolios, top-down models may hide speciﬁc risks, by industry or geographic location. Bottom-up models account for features of each asset/credit. This approach is most similar to the structural decomposition of positions that characterizes market VAR systems. It is appropriate for corporate and capital market portfolios. Bottom-up models are also most useful to take corrective action, because the risk structure can be reverse-engineered to modify the risk proﬁle. Risk Deﬁnitions Default-mode models consider only outright default as a credit event. Hence any movement in the market value of the bond or in the credit rating is irrelevant. Mark-to-market models consider changes in market values and ratings changes, including defaults. These fair market value models provide a better assessment of risk, which is consistent with the holding period deﬁned in terms of liquidation period. Conditional vs. Unconditional Models of Default Probability Conditional models incorporate changing macroeconomic factors into the default probability. Notably, the rate of default increases in a recession. Unconditional models have ﬁxed default probabilities and instead tend to focus on borrower or factors-speciﬁc information. Some changes in the environment, however, can be allowed by changing parameters. Structural vs. Reduced-Form Models of Default Correlations Structural models explain correlations by the joint movements of assets, for example stock prices. For each obligor, this price is the random variable that represents movements in default probabilities. Reduced-form models explain correlations by assuming a particular functional relationship between default and “background factors”. For example, the correlation

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between defaults across obligors can be modeled by the loadings on common risk factors, say, industrial and country. Table 23-3 summarizes the essential features of portfolio credit risk models in the industry. TABLE 23-3 Comparison of Credit Risk Models Originator Model type Risk deﬁnition Risk drivers Credit events ⫺Probability ⫺Volatility ⫺Correlation

Recovery rates Solution

23.4.2

CreditMetrics JP Morgan Bottom-up Market value (MTM) Asset values Rating change/ default Unconditional Constant From equities (structural) (structural) Random Simulation/ analytic

CreditRiskⳭ Credit Suisse Bottom-up Default losses (DM) Default rates Default Unconditional Variable Default process (reduced-form) (reduced-form) Constant within band Analytic

KMV KMV Bottom-up Default losses (MTM/DM) Asset values Continuous default prob. Conditional Variable From equities (structural) (structural) Random

CreditPf.View McKinsey Top-down Market value (MTM) Macro factors Rating change/ default Conditional Variable From macro factors (reduced-form) Random

Analytic

Simulation

CreditMetrics

CreditMetrics, published in April 1997 by J.P. Morgan, was the ﬁrst model to measure portfolio credit risk. The system is a “bottom-up” approach where credit risk is driven by movements in bond ratings. The components of the system are described in Figure 23-2. (1) Measurement of exposure by instrument This starts from the user’s portfolio, decomposing all instruments by their exposure and assessing the effect of market volatility on expected exposures on the target date. The range of covered instruments includes bonds and loans, swaps, receivables, commitments, and letters of credit. (2) Distribution of individual default risk This step starts with assigning each instrument to a particular credit rating. Credit events are then deﬁned by rating migrations, which include default, through a matrix

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FIGURE 23-2 Structure of CreditMetrics Exposures

Credit VAR

User portfolio

Credit spreads

Credit rating

Rating Bond migration valuation

Market volatilities

Expected exposure

Correlations Equities correlations

Seniority

Debtor Recovery correlations rate

Joint rating changes

Distribution of values for a single credit

Portfolio Value at Risk due to credit Source: CreditMetrics

of migration probabilities. Thus movements in default probabilities are discrete. After the credit event, the instrument is valued using credit spreads for each rating class. In the case of default, the distributions of recovery rates are used from historical data for various seniority. This is illustrated in Figure 23-3. We start from a bond or credit instrument with an initial rating of BBB. Over the horizon, the rating can jump to 8 new values, including default. For each rating, the value of the instrument is recomputed, for example $109.37 if the rating goes to AAA, or to the recovery value of $51.13 in case of default. Given the state probabilities and associate values, we can compute an expected bond value, which is $107.09, and standard deviation of $2.99. FIGURE 23-3 Building the Distribution of Bond Values Probability (pi)

BBB

Value (Vi)

Exp. Var. 2 Σ piVi Σ pi(Vi-m)

AAA

0.02%

$109.37

0.02

0.00

AAA

0.33%

$109.19

0.36

0.01

AAA

5.95%

$108.66

6.47

0.15

BBB

86.93%

$107.55

93.49

0.19

BB

5.30%

$102.02

5.41

1.36

B

1.17%

$98.10

1.15

0.95

CCC

0.12%

$83.64

0.10

0.66

Default

0.18%

$51.13

0.09

5.64

Sum=

100.00%

m= $107.09

V= 8.95 SD=

$2.99

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(3) Correlations among defaults Correlations among defaults are inferred from correlations between asset prices. Each obligor is assigned to an industry and geographical sector, using a factor decomposition. Correlations are inferred from the comovements of the common risk factors, using a database with some 152 country-industry indices, 28 country indices, and 19 worldwide industry indices. As an example, company 1 may be such that 90% of its volatility comes from the U.S. chemical industry. Using standardized returns, we can write r1 ⳱ 0.90rUS,Ch Ⳮ k1 1 where the residual is uncorrelated with other variables. Next, company 2 has a 74% weight on the German insurance index and 15% on the German banking index r2 ⳱ 0.74rGE,In Ⳮ 0.15rGE,Ba Ⳮ k2 2 The correlation between asset values for the two companies is ρ (r1 , r2 ) ⳱ (0.90 ⫻ 0.74)ρ (rUS,Ch , rGE,In ) Ⳮ (0.90 ⫻ 0.15)ρ (rUS,Ch , rGE,Ba ) ⳱ 0.11 CreditMetrics then uses simulations of the joint asset values, assuming a multivariate normal distribution. Each asset value has a standard normal distribution with cutoff points selected to represent the probabilities of changes in credit ratings. Table 23-4 illustrates the computations for our BBB credit. From Figure 23-3, there is a 0.18% probability of going from BBB into the state of default. We choose z1 such that the area to its left is N (z1 ) ⳱ 0.18%. This gives z1 ⳱ ⫺2.91, and so on.. Next, we need to choose z2 so that the probability of falling between z1 and z2 is 0.12%, or that the total left-tail probability is N (z2 ) ⳱ 0.18%Ⳮ0.12% ⳱ 0.30%. This gives z2 ⳱ ⫺2.75. And so on. The cutoff points must be selected for each rating class. TABLE 23-4 Cutoff Values for Simulations Rating i AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC Default

Prob. pi 0.02% 0.33% 5.95% 86.93% 5.30% 1.17% 0.12% 0.18%

Cum.Prob. N (zi ) 100.00% 99.98% 99.65% 93.70% 6.77% 1.47% 0.30% 0.18%

Cutoff zi 3.54 2.70 1.53 ⫺1.49 ⫺2.18 ⫺2.75 ⫺2.91

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The simulation generates joint assets values that have a multivariate standard normal distribution with the prespeciﬁed correlations. Each realization is mapped into a credit rating and a bond value for each obligor. This gives a total value for the portfolio and a distribution of credit losses over an annual horizon. These simulations can also be used to compute a correlation among default eventss. Because defaults are much less frequent than rating changes, the correlation is typically much less than the correlation between asset values. CreditMetrics asset correlations in the range of 40% to 60% will typically translate into default correlations of 2% to 4%. This result, however, is driven by the joint normality assumption, which is not totally realistic. Other distributions can generate greater likelihood of simultaneous defaults. Another drawback of this approach is that it does not integrate credit and market risk. Losses are only generated by changes in credit states, not by market movements. There is no uncertainty over market exposures. For swaps, for instance, the exposure on the target date is taken from the expected exposure. Bonds are revalued using today’s forward rate and current credit spreads, applied to the credit rating on the horizon. So, there is no interest rate risk.

23.4.3

CreditRisk+

CreditRiskⳭ was made public by Credit Suisse in October 1997. The approach is drastically different from CreditMetrics. It is based on a purely actuarial approach found in the property insurance literature. CreditRiskⳭ is a default mode (DM) model rather than a mark-to-market (MTM) model. Only two states of the world are considered—default and no-default. Another difference is that the default intensity is time-varying, as it can be modeled as a function of factors that change over time. When defaults are independent, the distribution of default probabilities resembles a Poisson distribution. The system also allows for some correlation by dividing the portfolio into homogeneous sectors within which obligors share the same systematic risk factors. The other component of the approach is the severity of losses. This is roughly modeled by sorting assets by severity bands, say loans around $20,000 for the ﬁrst band, $40,000 for the second band, and so on. A distribution of losses is then obtained

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for each band. These distributions are then combined across bands to generate an overall distribution of default losses. Overall, the method provides a quick analytical solution to the distribution of credit losses with minimal data inputs. As with CreditMetrics, however, there is no uncertainty over market exposures.

23.4.4

Moody’s KMV

Moody’s KMV provides forecasts of estimated default frequencies (EDFs) for approximately 30,000 public ﬁrms globally.2 Much of its technology is considered proprietary and unpublished. The basic idea, however, is an application of the Merton approach to credit risk. The value of equity is viewed as a call option on the value of the ﬁrm’s assets S ⳱ c (A, K, r , σA , τ )

(23.11)

where K is the value of liabilities, taken as the value of all short-term liabilities (one year and under) plus half the book value of all long-term debt. This has to be iteratively estimated from observable variables, in particular the stock market value S and its volatility σS . This model generates an estimated default frequency based on the distance between the current value of assets and the boundary point. Suppose for instance that A ⳱ $100 million, K ⳱ $80 million, and σA ⳱ $10 million. The normalized distance from default is then z⳱

$100 ⫺ $80 A⫺K ⳱ ⳱2 $10 σA

(23.12)

If we assume normally distributed returns, the probability of a standard normal variate z falling below ⫺2 is about 2.3 percent. Hence the default frequency is EDF ⳱ 0.023. The strength of this approach is that it relies on what is perhaps the best market data for a company—namely, its stock price. KMV claims that this model predicts defaults much better than credit ratings. The recovery rate and correlations across default are also automatically generated by the model.

2

KMV was founded by S. Kealhofer, J. McQuown, and O. Vasicek (hence the abbreviation KMV) to provide credit risk services. KMV started as a private ﬁrm based in San Francisco in 1989 and was acquired by Moody’s in April 2002.

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23.4.5

PART IV: CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT

Credit Portfolio View

The last model we consider is Credit Portfolio View (CPV), published by the consulting ﬁrm McKinsey in 1997. The focus of this top-down model is on the effect of macroeconomic factors on portfolio credit risk. This approach models loss distributions from the number and size of credits in subportfolios, typically consisting of customer segments. Instead of considering ﬁxed transition probabilities, this model conditions the default rate on the state of the economy, the assumption being that default rates increase during recessions. The default rate pt at time t is driven by a set of macroeconomic variables xk for various countries and industries through a linear combination called yt . It functional relationship to yt , called logit model, ensures that the probability is always between zero and one pt ⳱ 1冫 [1 Ⳮ exp(yt )],

yt ⳱ α Ⳮ

冱 βkxkt

(23.13)

Using a multifactor model, each debtor is assigned to a country, industry, and rating segment. Uncertainty in recovery rates is also factored in. The model uses numerical simulations to construct the distribution of default losses for the portfolio. While useful for modeling default probabilities conditioned on the state of the economy, this approach is mainly top-down and does not generate sufﬁcient detail of credit risk for corporate portfolios.

23.4.6

Comparison

The International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) recently conducted a comparative survey of credit risk models. The empirical study consisted of three portfolios of 1-year loans with a total exposure of $66.3 billion for each portfolio. A. High credit quality, diversiﬁed portfolio (500 names) B. High credit quality, concentrated portfolio (100 names) C. Low credit quality, diversiﬁed portfolio (500 names) The models are listed in Table 23-5 and include CreditMetrics, CreditRiskⳭ, two internal models, all with a 1-year horizon and 99% conﬁdence level. Also reported are the charges from the Basel I “standard” rules, which will be detailed in a later chapter. Sufﬁce to say that these rules make no allowance for variation in credit quality or diversiﬁcation effects. Instead, the capital charge is based on 8% of the loan notional.

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TABLE 23-5 Capital Charges from Various Credit Risk Models

CreditMetrics CreditRiskⳭ Internal Model 1 Internal Model 2 Basel I Rules

CreditMetrics CreditRiskⳭ Internal Model 1 Basel I Rules

Assuming Zero Correlation Portfolio A Portfolio B Portfolio C 777 2,093 1,989 789 2,020 2,074 767 1,967 1,907 724 1,906 1,756 5,304 5,304 5,304 Assessing Correlations Portfolio A Portfolio B Portfolio C 2,264 2,941 11,436 1,638 2,574 10,000 1,373 2,366 9,654 5,304 5,304 5,304

The top of the table ﬁrst examines the case of zero correlations. The Basel rules yield the same capital charge, irrespective of quality or diversiﬁcation effects. The charge is also uniformly higher than most others, at $5,304 million, which is approximately 8% of the notional. Generally, the four credit portfolio models show remarkable consistency in capital charges. Portfolios A and B have the same credit quality but B is more concentrated. A has indeed lower CVAR, $800 million against $2,000 million for B. This reﬂects the beneﬁt from greater diversiﬁcation. Portfolios A and C have the same number of names but C has lower credit quality. This increases CVAR from around $800 million to $2,000 million. The bottom panel assesses empirical correlations. The Basel charges are unchanged, as expected because they do not account for correlations anyway. Internal models show capital charges systematically higher than in the previous case. There is also more dispersion in results across models, however. It is interesting to see, in particular, that the economic capital charge for Portfolio C, with low credit quality, is typically twice the Basel charge. Such results demonstrate that the Basel rules can lead to inappropriate credit risk charges. As a result, banks subject to these capital requirements may shift the risk proﬁle to lower-rated credits until their economic capital is in line with regulatory capital. This shift to lower credit quality was certainly not an objective of the Basel rules.

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Example 23-7: FRM Exam 2001----Question 27 23-7. What can be said about default correlations in CreditMetrics? a) Default correlations can be estimated by ratings changes. b) Firm-speciﬁc aspects are more important than correlation. c) Past history is insufﬁcient to judge default correlations. d) Default correlations can be estimated by equity valuation.

AM FL Y

Example 23-8: FRM Exam 2001----Question 23 23-8. What is the central assumption made by CreditMetrics? a) An asset or portfolio should be thought of in terms of its diversiﬁcation. b) An asset or portfolio should be thought of in terms of the likelihood of default. c) An asset or portfolio should be thought of in terms of the likelihood of default and in terms of changes in credit quality over time. d) An asset or portfolio should be thought in terms of changes in credit quality over time.

TE

Example 23-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 145/Credit Risk 23-9. J.P. Morgan’s CreditMetrics uses which of the following to estimate default correlations? a) CreditMetrics does not estimate default correlations; it assumes zero correlations between defaults. b) Correlations of equity returns are used. c) Correlations between changes in corporate bond spreads to treasury are used. d) Historical correlation of corporate bond defaults are used. Example 23-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 146/Credit Risk 23-10. Which of the following is used to estimate the probability of default for a ﬁrm in the KMV model? I) Historical probability of default based on the credit rating of the ﬁrm (KMV has a method to assign a rating to the ﬁrm if unrated) II) Stock price volatility III) The book value of the ﬁrm’s equity IV) The market value of the ﬁrm’s equity V) The book value of the ﬁrm’s debt VI) The market value of the ﬁrm’s debt a) I only b) II, IV, and V c) II, III, VI d) VI only

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Example 23-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 60/Credit Risk 23-11. The KMV credit risk model generates an estimated default frequency (EDF) based on the distance between the current value of assets and the book value of liabilities. Suppose that the current value of a ﬁrm’s assets and the book value of its liabilities are $500 million and $300 million, respectively. Assume that the standard deviation of returns on the assets is $100 million, and that the returns on the assets are normally distributed. Assuming a standard Merton Model, what is the approximate default frequency (EDF) for this ﬁrm? a) 0.010 b) 0.015 c) 0.020 d) 0.030 Example 23-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 44/Credit Risk 23-12. Which one of the following statements regarding credit risk models is most correct? a) The CreditRiskⳭ model decomposes all the instruments by their exposure and assesses the effect of movements in risk factors on the distribution of potential exposure. b) The CreditMetrics model provides a quick analytical solution to the distribution of credit losses with minimal data input. c) The KMV model requires the historical probability of default based on the credit rating of the ﬁrm. d) The Credit Portfolio View (McKinsey) model conditions the default rate on the state of the economy.

23.5

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 23-1: FRM Exam 1998----Question 41/Credit Risk c) Credit provisions should be made for actual and expected losses. Capital, however, is supposed to provide a cushion against unexpected losses based on CVAR. Example 23-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 39/Credit Risk b) The expected loss is $100, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.06 ⫻ (1 ⫺ 0.4) ⳱ $3.6 million. Note that correlations across obligors does not matter for expected credit loss. Example 23-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 120/Credit Risk c) The exposure times the loss given default is, respectively, $500,000, $1,000,000, $2,400,000, and $1,600,000. Loan (c) has the most to lose.

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Example 23-4: FRM Exam 1999----Question 112/Credit Risk a) The cumulative probability of default increases with the horizon, so answer (a) is correct. Answer (b) should be “less”, not more. Answer (c) deals with exposure, not default. Example 23-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 13/Credit Risk c) First, we have to transform the annual default probability into a monthly probability. Using (1 ⫺ 2%) ⳱ (1 ⫺ d )12 , we ﬁnd d ⳱ 0.00168, which assumes a constant probability of default during the year. Next, we compute the expected credit loss, which is d ⫻ $1, 000, 000 ⳱ $1, 682. Finally, we calculate the WCL at the 99.9% conﬁdence level, which is the lowest number CLi such that P (CL ⱕ CLi ) ⱖ 99.9%. We have P (CL ⳱ 0) ⳱ 99.83%; P (CL ⱕ 1, 000, 000) ⳱ 100.00%. Therefore, the WCL is $1,000,000, and the CVAR is $1,000,000 ⫺ $1,682 ⳱ $998,318. Example 23-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 10/Credit Risk d) As in the previous question, the monthly default probability is 0.0168. The following table shows the distribution of credit losses. Default 2 bonds 1 bond 0 bond Total

Probability (pi ) ⳱ 0.00000282 2d (1 ⫺ d ) ⳱ 0.00335862 (1 ⫺ d )2 ⳱ 0.99663854 1.00000000 d2

Loss Li $1,000,000 $500,000 $0

pi Li $2.8 $1,679.3 $0.0 $1,682.1

1 ⫺ 冱 pi 100.00000% 99.99972% 99.66385%

This gives an expected loss of $1,682, the same as before. Next, $500,000 is the WCL at a minimum 99.9% conﬁdence level because the total probability of observing a number equal to, or lower than this, is greater then 99.9%. The CVAR is then $500,000$1,682=$498,318. Example 23-7: FRM Exam 2001----Question 27 a) Correlations are important drivers of portfolio risk, so (b) is wrong. In CreditMetrics, correlations in asset values drive correlations in ratings change, which drive default correlations. Answer (d) is not correct as it refers to the Merton model, where default probabilities are inferred from equity valuation, liabilities, and volatilities. Example 23-8: FRM Exam 2001----Question 23 c) The central assumption in CreditMetrics is that asset values are driven by changes in their credit ratings, including default. So, this is more general than (b) and (d).

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Example 23-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 145/Credit Risk b) CreditMetrics infers the default correlation from equity correlations. Example 23-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 146/Credit Risk b) KMV uses information about the market value of the stock plus the book value of debt. Example 23-11: FRM Exam 2000----Question 60/Credit Risk c) The distance between the current value of assets and that of liabilities is $200 million, which corresponds to twice the standard deviation of $100 million. Hence the probability of default is N (⫺2.0) ⳱ 2.3%, or about 0.020. Example 23-12: FRM Exam 2000----Question 44/Credit Risk d) Answer (d) is most correct. Answer (a) is wrong because CreditRiskⳭ assumes ﬁxed exposures. Answer (b) is also wrong because CreditMetrics is a simulation, not analytical model. Finally, KMV uses the current stock price and not the historical default rate.

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PART

ﬁve

Operational and Integrated Risk Management

Chapter 24 Operational Risk By now, the ﬁnancial industry has developed standard methods to measure and manage market risk and credit risk. The industry is turning next to operational risk, which has proved to be an important cause of ﬁnancial losses. Indeed, most ﬁnancial disasters can be attributed to a combination of exposure to market risk or credit risk along with some failure of controls, which is a form of operational risk. As in the case of market and credit risk, the ﬁnancial industry is being pushed in the direction of better controls of operational risk by bank regulators. For the ﬁrst time, the Basel Committee is proposing to establish capital charges for operational risk, in exchange for lowering them on market and credit risk. The proposed charge would constitute approximately 12% of the total capital requirement. This charge is focusing the attention of the banking industry on operational risk. The problem is that operational risk is much harder to identify than market and credit risk. Even the very deﬁnition of operational risk is open to debate. A narrow view is that operational risk is conﬁned to transaction processing. Another, much wider deﬁnition views operational risk as any ﬁnancial risk other than market and credit risk. As we shall see, it is important for an institution to adopt a deﬁnition of operational risk. Consider the sequence of logical steps in a risk management process: (1) identiﬁcation, (2) measurement, (3) monitoring, and (4) control. Without proper risk identiﬁcation, it is very difﬁcult to manage risk effectively.1 Previously, operational risk was managed by internal control mechanisms within business lines, supplemented by the audit function. The industry is now starting to use speciﬁc structures and control processes speciﬁcally tailored to operational risk.

1

This sequence is appropriate for market or credit risks. Reﬂecting the different nature of operational risk, the Basel Committee deﬁnes this sequence in terms of: (1) identiﬁcation, (2) assessment, (3) monitoring, and (4) control/mitigation. See Basel Committee on Banking Supervision. (2003). Sound Practices for the Management and Supervision of Operational Risk, BIS.

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To introduce operational risk, Section 24.1 summarizes lessons from well-known ﬁnancial disasters. It then compares the relative importance of operational risk to its siblings, market and credit risk, across business lines. Given this information, Section 24.2 turns to deﬁnitions of operational risk. Various measurement approaches are discussed in Section 24.3. Finally, Section 24.4 shows how to use the distribution of operational losses to manage this risk better operational risk and offers some concluding comments.

24.1

The Importance of Operational Risk

The Basel Committee recently reported that “[a]n informal survey . . . highlights the growing realization of the signiﬁcance of risks other than credit and market risks, such as operational risk, which have been at the heart of some important banking problems in recent years.” These problems are described in case histories next.

24.1.1

Case Histories

February 2002–Allied Irish Bank’s ($691 million loss): A rogue trader, John Rusnack, hides 3 years of losing trades on the yen/dollar exchange rate at the U.S. subsidiary. The bank’s reputation is damaged. March 1997–NatWest ($127 million loss): A swaption trader, Kyriacos Papouis, deliberately covers up losses by mis-pricing and over-valuing option contracts. The bank’s reputation is damaged: NatWest is eventually taken over by the Royal Bank of Scotland. September 1996–Morgan Grenfell Asset Management ($720 million loss): A fund manager, Peter Young, exceeds his guidelines, leading to a large loss. Deutsche Bank, the German owner of MGAM, agrees to compensate the investors in the fund. June 1996–Sumitomo ($2.6 billion loss): A copper trader amasses unreported losses over 3 years. Yasuo Hamanaka, known as “Mr. Five Percent,” after the proportion of the copper market he controlled, is sentenced to prison for forgery and fraud. The banks’ reputation is severely damaged.

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September 1995–Daiwa ($1.1 billion loss): A bond trader, Toshihide Igushi, amasses unreported losses over 11 years at the U.S. subsidiary. The bank is declared insolvent. February 1995–Barings ($1.3 billion loss): Nick Leeson, a derivatives trader amasses unreported losses over 2 years. Barings goes bankrupt. October 1994–Bankers Trust ($150 million loss): The bank becomes embroiled in a high-proﬁle lawsuit with a customer that accuses it of improper selling practices. Bankers settles but its reputation is badly damaged. It is later bought out by Deutsche Bank. The biggest of these spectacular failures can be traced to a rogue trader, or a case of internal fraud. They involve a mix of market risk and operational risk (failure to supervise). It should be noted that the cost of these events has been quite high. They led to large direct monetary losses, often to indirect losses due to reputational damage, and sometimes even to bankruptcy.

24.1.2

Business Lines

These failures have occurred across a variety of business lines. Some are more exposed than others to market risk or credit risk. All have some exposure to operational risk. Figure 24-1 provides a typical attribution of risk by business line. This attribution can FIGURE 24-1 Breakdown of Financial Risks Commercial banking

Investment Treasury Retail Asset banking management brokerage management

Operational

Credit

Market Source: Robert Ceske

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be interpreted in terms of the amount of economic capital necessary to support each type of risk. Commercial banking is mainly exposed to credit risk, then to operational risk, then to market risk. Investment banking, trading, and treasury management have greater exposure to market risk. At the other end, business lines such as retail brokerage and asset management are primarily exposed to operational risk. Asset managers, for instance, take no market risk since they act as agents for the investors. If they act in breach of guidelines, however, they may be liable to reimburse clients for their losses, which represents operational risk. Without an appropriate measure of operational risk, institutions may decide to expand into the asset management business if revenues are not properly adjusted for risk.

AM FL Y

Similarly, Table 24-1 presents a partial list of risks for market banks that are primarily involved in trading, and credit banks that specialize in lending activities. The table shows that different lines of business are characterized by very different exposures to the listed risks. Credit banks deal with relatively standard products, such as mortgages, with little trading. Hence they have medium operations risk and low operational settlement risk. This is in contrast with trading banks, with constantly

TE

changing products and large trading volume, for which both risks are high. Trading banks also have high model risk, because of the complexity of products and high

TABLE 24-1 Examples of Operational Risks Type of Risk Operations risk Ops. settlement risk Model risk Fraud risk Misselling risk Legal risk

Deﬁnition losses due to complex systems and processes lost interest/ﬁnes due to failed settlements losses due to imperfect model or data reputational/ﬁnancial damage due to fraud losses due to unsuitable sales reputational/ﬁnancial damage due to fraud

Market Bank High risk

Credit Bank Medium risk

High risk

Low risk

High risk

Low risk

High risk

Low risk

Medium risk

Medium risk

High risk

Medium risk

Source: Financial Services Authority. (1999). “Allocating Regulatory Capital for Operational Risk,” FSA: London.

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fraud risk, because of the autonomy given to traders. In contrast, these two risks are low for credit banks. For trading banks that deal with so-called sophisticated investors, misselling risk has low probability but high value; hence it is a medium risk. (A good example is that of Merrill Lynch settling with Orange County for about $400 million following allegations that the broker had sold the county unsuitable investments.) For credit banks that deal with retail investors, this risk has higher probability but lower value, hence it is a medium risk. Legal risks are high for market banks and medium for credit banks due to the more litigious environment of corporations relative to retail investors.

24.2

Identifying Operational Risk

Operational risk has no clear-cut deﬁnition, unlike market risk and credit risk. We can distinguish three approaches, ranging from a broad to a narrow deﬁnition. The ﬁrst deﬁnition is the broadest. It deﬁnes operational risk as any ﬁnancial risk other than market and credit risk. This deﬁnition is perhaps too broad, as it also includes business risk, which the ﬁrm must assume to create shareholder value. This includes poor strategic decision making, such as entering a line of business where margins are too thin. Such risks are not directly controllable by risk managers. Also, a deﬁnition in the negative makes it difﬁcult to identify and measure all risks. This opens up the possibility of double counting or gaps in coverage. As a result, this deﬁnition is usually viewed as too broad. At the other extreme is the second deﬁnition, which is the narrowest. It deﬁnes operational risk as risk arising from operations. This includes back ofﬁce problems, failures in transaction processing and in systems, and technology failures in transaction processing and in systems, and technology breakdowns. This deﬁnition, however, just focuses on operations, which is a subset of operational risk, and does not include other signiﬁcant risks such as internal fraud, improper sales practices, or model risk. As a result, this deﬁnition is usually viewed as too narrow. The third deﬁnition is intermediate and seems to be gaining industry acceptance. It deﬁnes operational risk as the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems, or from external events

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This excludes business risk but includes external events such as external fraud, security breaches, regulatory effects, or natural disasters. Indeed it is now the ofﬁcial Basel Committee deﬁnition. It includes legal risk, which arises when a transaction proves unenforceable in law, but excludes strategic and reputational risk. The British Bankers’ Association provides further detail for this deﬁnition. Table 24-2 breaks down operational risk into categories of people risk, process risk, system risk, and external risk. Among these risks, a notable risk for complex products is model risk, which is due to using wrong models for valuing and hedging assets. This is an internal risk that combines lack of knowledge (people) with product complexity/valuation errors (process) and perhaps programming errors (technology). These classiﬁcations are still not totally rigorous, as they confuse the primary source of risks with exposures. Fundamental risks are due to people, technology, and

TABLE 24-2 Operational Risk Classiﬁcation People Employee collusion/fraud Employee error Employee misdeed Employers liability Employment law Health and safety Industrial action Lack of knowledge/skills Loss of key personnel

Internal Risks Processes Accounting error Capacity risk Contract risk Misselling/suitability Product complexity Project risk Reporting error Settlement/payment error Transaction error Valuation error

External External Legal Money laundering Outsourcing Political Regulatory Supplier risk Tax

Systems Data quality Programming errors Security breach Strategic risks (platform/suppliers) System capacity System compatibility System delivery System failure System suitability

Risks Physical Fire Natural disaster Physical security Terrorist Theft

Source: British Bankers’ Association survey.

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external factors. Exposures, for instance systems and controls, do not represent risks but rather means of mitigating risk. Controls can be of two types, preventative controls and damage limitation controls. The former attempt to decrease the probability of a loss happening; the latter try to limit the size of losses when they occur. The choice of the appropriate deﬁnition is important as the industry starts to tackle operational risk. It is impossible to measure operational risk without a deﬁnition, or identiﬁcation. Measurement, as in the case of market and credit risk, is necessary for better management of operational risk. Also, the function of operational risk manager cannot be properly deﬁned without a deﬁnition of the risks that the manager is supposed to oversee. The lack of a precise deﬁnition would most likely create conﬂicts between different categories of risk managers, who would be tempted to attribute losses to somebody else’s area of responsibility. Example 24-1: FRM Exam 2001----Question 48 24-1. Which of the following most reﬂect an operational risk faced by a bank? a) A counterparty invokes force majeure on a swap contract. b) The Federal Reserve unexpectedly cuts interest rates by 100 bps. c) A power outage shuts down the trading ﬂoor indeﬁnitely with no back-up facility. d) The rating agencies downgrade the sovereign debt of the bank’s sovereign counterparty. Example 24-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 3/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-2. Which of the following risks are not related to operational risk? a) Errors in trade entry b) Fluctuation in market prices c) Errors in preparing Master Agreement d) Late conﬁrmation Example 24-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 173/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-3. A deﬁnition of operational risk is I. All the risks that are not currently captured under market and credit risk II. The potential for losses due to a failure in the operational processes or in the systems that support them III. The risk of losses due to a failure in people, process, technology or due to external events a) I only b) II only c) II and III only d) I, II, and III

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Example 24-4: FRM Exam 1997----Question 32/Regulatory 24-4. Which of the following is not an example of model risk in the context of value at risk measurement models? a) Model assumptions are adjusted on an annual basis regardless of market and political conditions. b) The model is developed by a small group of quantitative professionals who are the only personnel who understand its strengths and limitations. c) Models are validated by an independent risk professional employed by the institution, but who works in another division. d) Risk managers who use the models are not familiar with underlying model assumptions. Example 24-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 5/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-5. Which of the following may result in an operational risk? a) Changing a spreadsheet’s calculation mode from manual to automatic (Autocalc) b) Automatic ﬁltering of outliers in historical data c) Increasing the memory of computers d) Increasing the CPU speed of computers Example 24-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-6. Which of the following steps should be done ﬁrst during risk management processes? a) Risk measurement b) Risk control c) Risk identiﬁcation d) Limit setting

24.3

Assessing Operational Risk

Once identiﬁed, operational risk should be measured, or assessed if it is less amenable to precise quantiﬁcation than market or credit risks. Various approaches can be broadly classiﬁed into top-down models and bottom-up models.

24.3.1

Comparison of Approaches

Top-down models attempt to measure operational risk at the broadest level, that is, ﬁrm-wide or industry-wide data. Results are then used to determine the amount of capital that needs to be set aside as a buffer against this risk. This capital is allocated to business units.

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Bottom-up models start at the individual business unit or process level. The results are then aggregated to determine the risk proﬁle of the institution. The main beneﬁt of such approaches is that they lead to a better understanding of the causes of operational losses. Tools used to manage operational risk can be classiﬁed into six categories: Audit oversight, which consist of reviews of business processes by an external audit department. Critical self assessment, where each business unit identiﬁes the nature and size of operational risk. These subjective evaluations include their expected frequency and severity of losses, as well as a description of how risk is controlled. The tools used for this type of process include checklists, questionnaires, and facilitated workshops. Key risk indicators, which consist of simple measures that provide an indication of whether risks are changing over time. These early warning signs can include audit scores, staff turnover, trade volumes, and so on. The assumption is that operational risk events are more likely to occur when these indicators increase. These objective measures allow the risk manager to forecast losses through the application of regression techniques, for example. Earnings volatility can be used, after stripping the effect of market and credit risk, to assess operational risk. The approach consists of taking a time-series of earnings adjusted for trends, and computing its volatility. This measure is simple to use. It has numerous problems, unfortunately. This risk measure also includes ﬂuctuations due to business and macroeconomic risks, which fall outside of operational risk. Also, such measure is backward-looking and does not account for improvement or degradation in the quality of controls. Causal networks describe how losses can occur from a cascade of different causes. Causes and effects are linked through conditional probabilities. This process is explained in the appendix. Simulations are then run on the network, generating a distribution of losses. Such bottom-up models improve the understanding of losses since they focus on drivers of risk. Actuarial models, which combine the distribution of frequency of losses with their severity distribution to produce an objective distribution of losses due to operational risk. These can be either bottom-up or top-down models.

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Actuarial Models

Actuarial models estimate the objective distribution of losses from historical data and are widely used in the insurance industry. Such models combine two distributions, loss frequencies and loss severities. The loss frequency distribution describes the number of loss events over a ﬁxed interval of time. The loss severity distribution describes the size of the loss once it occurs. Loss severities can be tabulated from historical data, for instance measures of the loss severity yk , at time k. These measures can be adjusted for inﬂation and some measure of current business activity. Deﬁne Pk as the consumer price index at time k and Vk as a business activity measure such as the number of trades. We could assume that the severity is proportional to the volume of business V and to the price level. The scaled loss is measured as of time t as xt ⳱ yk ⫻

Pt Vt ⫻ Pk Vk

(24.1)

Next, deﬁne the loss frequency distribution by the variable n, which represents the number of occurrences of losses over the period. The density function is pdf of loss frequency ⳱ f (n), n ⳱ 0, 1, 2, . . .

(24.2)

If x (or X ) is the loss severity when a loss occurs, its density is pdf of loss severity ⳱ g (x 兩 n ⳱ 1), x ⱖ 0

(24.3)

Finally, the total loss over the period is given by the sum of individual losses over a random number of occurrences: n

Sn ⳱

冱 Xi

(24.4)

i ⳱1

Table 24-3 provides a simple example of two such distributions. Our task is now to combine these two distributions into one, that of total losses over the period. Assuming that the frequency and severity of losses are independent, the two distributions can be combined into a distribution of aggregate loss through a process known as convolution. Convolution can be implemented, for instance, through tabu-

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TABLE 24-3 Sample Loss Frequency and Severity Distributions Frequency Distribution Probability Frequency 0.6 0 0.3 1 0.1 2 Expectation 0.5

Severity Distribution Probability Severity 0.5 $1,000 0.3 $10,000 0.2 $100,000 Expectation $23,500

lation. Tabulation consist of systematically recording all possible combinations with their probability and is illustrated in Table 24-4. We start with the obvious case with no loss, which has probability 0.6. Next, we go through all possible realizations of one loss only. From Table 24-3, we see that a loss of $1,000 can occur with total probability of P (n ⳱ 1) ⫻ P (x ⳱ $1,000) ⳱ 0.3 ⫻ 0.5 ⳱ 0.15. Similarly for the probability of a one time-loss of $10,000 and $100,000, the probability is 0.09 and 0.06, respectively. We then go through all occurrences of two losses, which can result from many different combinations. For instance, a loss of $1,000 can occur twice, for a total of $2,000, with a probability of 0.1 ⫻ 0.5 ⫻ 0.5 ⳱ 0.025. We can have a loss of $1,000 and $10,000, for a total of $11,000, with probability of 0.1 ⫻ 0.5 ⫻ 0.3 ⳱ 0.015. And so on until we exhaust all combinations.

TABLE 24-4 Tabulation of Loss Distribution Nb of losses 0 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 Expectation

First Loss 0 1000 10000 100000 1000 1000 1000 10000 10000 10000 100000 100000 100000

Second Loss 0 0 0 0 1000 10000 100000 1000 10000 100000 1000 10000 100000

Total Loss 0 1000 10000 100000 2000 11000 101000 11000 20000 110000 101000 110000 200000 11750

Probability 0.6 0.15 0.09 0.06 0.025 0.015 0.010 0.015 0.009 0.006 0.010 0.006 0.004

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FIGURE 24-2 Construction of the Loss Distribution

Frequency distribution1 Severity distributio

1

0.5

0

0.5

0

1

0

2

$1

Number of losses (per year)

$100

Loss distribution

1

Expected loss $11,750

0.5

0

$10

Loss size ($ 000s)

0

1

2

10

11

VAR $88,250 20

100 101 110 200

Loss per year ($ 000s)

The resulting distribution is displayed in Figure 24-2. It is interesting to note that the very simple distributions in Table 24-3, with only three realizations, create a complex distribution. We can compute the expected loss, which is simply the product of expected values for the two distributions, or E [S ] ⳱ E [N ] ⫻ E [X ] ⳱ 0.5 ⫻ $23,500 ⳱ $11,750. The risk manager can also report the lowest number such that the probability is greater than 95 percent quantile. This is $100,000 with a probability of 96.4%. Hence the unexpected loss, or operational VAR, is $100, 000 ⫺ $11, 750 ⳱ $88, 250. More generally, convolution must be implemented by numerical methods, as there are too many combinations of variables for a systematic tabulation. Example 24-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 64/Operational Risk Mgt. 24-7. Which statement about operational risk is true? a) Measuring operational risk requires both estimating the probability of an operational loss event and the potential size of the loss. b) Measurement of operational risk is well developed, given the general agreement among institutions about the deﬁnition of this risk. c) The operational risk manager has the primary responsibility for management of operational risk. d) Operational risks are clearly separate from other risks, such as credit and market.

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Example 24-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 166/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-8. When measuring operational risk, the complete distribution of potential losses for each risk type is formed using a) An insurance-based volatility distribution b) Back ofﬁce distributions of transaction size and number of transactions per day c) An operational and catastrophic distribution d) A frequency and severity distribution Example 24-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 167/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-9. A particular operational risk event is estimated to occur once in 200 years for an institution. The loss for this type of event is expected to be between HKD 25 million and HKD 100 million with equal probability of loss in that range (and zero probability outside that range). Based on this information, determine the fair price of insurance to protect the institution against a loss of over HKD 80 million for this particular operational risk. a) HKD 133,333 b) HKD 90,000 c) HKD 120,000 d) HKD 106,667 Example 24-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 169/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-10. The measurement of exposure to operational risk should be based on the assessment of I. The probability of an operational failure II. The extent of insurance coverage III. The probability distribution of losses in case of failure a) I only b) II only c) I and III only d) I, II, and III

24.4

Managing Operational Risk

24.4.1

Capital Allocation and Insurance

Like market VAR, the distribution of operational losses can be used to estimate expected losses as well as the amount of capital required to support this ﬁnancial risk. Figure 24-3 highlights important attributes of a distribution of losses, taken as positive values, due to operational risk.

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FIGURE 24-3 Distribution of Operational Losses

Frequency of loss

Unexpected loss

Stress loss

AM FL Y

Expected loss Operational loss

The expected loss represents the size of operational losses that should be expected to occur. Typically, this represents high frequency, low severity events. This

TE

type of loss is generally absorbed as an ongoing cost and managed through internal controls. Such losses are rarely disclosed. systems. The unexpected loss represents the deviation between the quantile loss at some conﬁdence level and the expected loss. Typically, this represents lower frequency, higher severity events. This type of loss is generally offset against capital reserves or transferred to an outside insurance company, when available. Such losses are sometimes disclosed publicly but often with little detail. The stress loss represents a loss in excess of the unexpected loss. By deﬁnition, such losses are very infrequent but extremely damaging to the institution. The Barings bankruptcy can be attributed, for instance, in large part to operational risk. This type of loss cannot be easily offset through capital allocation, as this would require too much capital. Ideally, it should be transferred to an insurance company. Due to their severity, such losses are disclosed publicly. Even so, purchasing insurance is no panacea. The insurance payment would have to be very quick and in full. The bank could fail while waiting for payment, or arguing over the size of compensation. because, once the insurance is acquired, the purchaser has less incentives to control losses. This problem is called moral hazard. The insurer

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will be aware of this and increase the premium accordingly. The premium may also be high because of the adverse selection problem. This describes a situation where banks vary in the quality of their controls. Banks with poor controls are more likely to purchase insurance than banks with good controls. Because the insurance company does not know what type of bank it is facing, it will increase the average premium. Example 24-11: FRM Exam 2001----Question 49 24-11. Which of the term below is used within the insurance industry to refer to the effect of a reduction in control of losses by an individual insured insured due to the protection provided by insurance? a) Control trap b) Moral hazard c) Adverse selection d) Control hazard Example 24-12: FRM Exam 2001----Question 51 24-12. Which of the terms below refers to the situation where the various buyers of insurance have different expected losses, but the insurer (or the capital market, as the seller of insurance) is unable to distinguish between the different types of hedge buyer and is therefore unable to charge differentiated premiums? a) Moral hazard b) Average insurance c) Adverse selection d) Control hazard

24.4.2

Mitigating Operational Risk

The approach so far has consisted of taking operational risk as given. Such measures are extremely useful because they highlight the size of losses due to operational risk. Armed with this information, the institution can then decide whether it is worth spending resources on decreasing operational risk. Say that a bank is wondering whether to install a straight-through processing system, which automatically captures trades in the front ofﬁce and transmits them to the back ofﬁce. Such system eliminates manual intervention and the potential for human errors, thereby decreasing losses due to operational risk. The bank should purchase the system if its cost is less than its operational risk beneﬁt. More generally, reduction of operational risk can occur in the frequency of losses and/or in the size of losses when they occur. Operational risk is also contained by a

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ﬁrm-wide risk management framework. In a later chapter, we will discuss best practices in risk management, which are designed to provide some protection against operational risk. Consider for instance a transaction in a plain-vanilla, 5-year, interest rate swap. This simple instrument generates a large number of cash ﬂows, each of which have the potential for errors. At initiation, the trade needs to be booked and conﬁrmed with the counterparty. It needs to be valued so that a P&L can be attributed to the trading unit. With biannual payments, the swap will generate ten cash ﬂows along with ten rate resets and net payment computations. These payments need to be computed with absolute accuracy, that is, to the last cent. Errors can range from minor issues, such as paying a day late, to major problems, such as failure to hedge or fraudulent valuation by the trader. The swap will also create some market risk, which may need to be hedged. The position needs to be transmitted to the market risk management system, which will monitor the total position and risk of the trader and of the institution as a whole. In addition, the current and potential credit exposure needs to be regularly measured and added up to all other trades with the same counterparty. Errors in this risk measurement process can lead to excessive exposure to market and/or credit risk. Operational risk can be minimized in a number of ways.2 Internal control methods consist of Separation of functions: Individuals responsible for committing transactions should not perform clearance and accounting functions. Dual entries: Entries (inputs) should be matched from two different sources, that is, the trade ticket and the conﬁrmation by the back ofﬁce. Reconciliations: Results (outputs) should be matched from different sources, for instance the trader’s proﬁt estimate and the computation by the middle ofﬁce. Tickler systems: Important dates for a transaction (e.g., settlement, exercise dates) should be entered into a calendar system that automatically generates a message before the due date. Controls over amendments: Any amendment to original deal tickets should be subject to the same strict controls as original trade tickets. 2

See also Brewer. (1997). Minimizing Operations Risk. In Schwartz, R. & Smith C. (Eds.). Derivatives Handbook. New York: Wiley.

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External control methods consist of Conﬁrmations: Trade tickets need to be conﬁrmed with the counterparty, which provides an independent check on the transaction. Veriﬁcation of prices: To value positions, prices should be obtained from external sources. This also implies that an institution should have the capability of valuing a transaction in-house before entering it. Authorization: The counterparty should be provided with a list of personnel authorized to trade, as well as a list of allowed transactions. Settlement: The payment process itself can indicate if some of the terms of the transaction have been incorrectly recorded, for instance, as the ﬁrst cash payments on a swap are not matched across counterparties. Internal/external audits: These examinations provide useful information on potential weakness areas in the organizational structure or business process.

24.5

Conceptual Issues

The management of operational risk, however, is still beset by conceptual problems. First, unlike market and credit risk, operational risk is largely internal to ﬁnancial institutions. This makes it difﬁcult to collect data on operational losses which ideally should cover a large number of operational failures, because institutions are understandably reluctant to advertise their mistakes. Another problem is that losses may not be directly applicable to another institution, as they were incurred under possibly different business proﬁles and internal controls. Second, market and credit risk can be conceptually separated into exposures and risk factors. Exposures can be easily measured and controlled. In contrast, the link between risk factors and the likelihood and size of operational losses is not so easy to establish. Here, the line of causation runs through internal controls. Third, very large operational losses, which can threaten the stability of an institution, are relatively rare (thankfully so). This leads to a very small number or observations in the tails. Such “thin tails” problem makes it very difﬁcult to come up with a robust “value for operational risk” (VOR) at a high conﬁdence level. As a result, there is still some skepticism as to whether operational risk can be subject to the same quantiﬁcation as market and credit risks.

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Example 24-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 170/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-13. Operational risk capital (ORC) should provide a cushion against I. Expected losses II. Unexpected losses III. Catastrophic losses a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I, II, and III Example 24-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 4/Oper.&Integr.Risk 24-14. What can be said about the impact of operational risk on both market risk and credit risk? a) Operational risk has no impact on market risk and credit risk. b) Operational risk has no impact on market risk but has impact on credit risk. c) Operational risk has impact on market risk but no impact on credit risk. d) Operational risk has impact on market risk and credit risk.

24.6

Answers to Chapter Examples

Example 24-1: FRM Exam 2001----Question 48 c) A power outage is an example of system failure, which is part of the operational risk deﬁnition. Answer (d) is a case of credit risk. Answer (b) is a case of market risk. Answer (a) is a mix of credit and legal risk. Example 24-2: FRM Exam 1998----Question 3/Oper.&Integr.Risk b) Fluctuations in market prices reﬂect market risk. Example 24-3: FRM Exam 1999----Question 173/Oper.&Integr.Risk d) All the three deﬁnitions have been used and highlight a different aspect of operational risk. Example 24-4: FRM Exam 1997----Question 32/Regulatory c) Model risk includes model assumptions that are too rigid (a), that are only understood by a small group of people (b) or not understood by risk managers (d). Having the models validated by independent reviewers decreases model risk.

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Example 24-5: FRM Exam 1998----Question 5/Oper.&Integr.Risk b) Automatic ﬁltering of outliers may weed out bad data points but also reject real observations, which may bias downward forward-looking measures of risk. Also, changing a spreadsheet’s calculation mode from automatic to manual can create operational risk. Example 24-6: FRM Exam 1998----Question 6/Oper.&Integr.Risk c) We need to identify risk, before measuring, controlling and managing them. Example 24-7: FRM Exam 2000----Question 64/Operational Risk Mgt. a) Constructing the operational loss requires the probability, or frequency, of the event as well as estimates of potential loss sizes. Answer (b) is wrong as measurement of op risk is still developing. Answer (c) is wrong as the business unit is also responsible for controlling operational risk. Answer (d) is wrong as losses can occur as a combination of operational and market or credit risks. Example 24-8: FRM Exam 1999----Question 166/Oper.&Integr.Risk d) The distribution of losses due to operational risk results from the combination of loss frequencies and loss severities. Example 24-9: FRM Exam 1999----Question 167/Oper.&Integr.Risk c) The expected loss severity is, with a uniform distribution from 80 to 100 million, 90 million. The frequency of this happening would be once every 200 years times the ratio of the [80, 100] range to the total range [25, 100], which is (20冫 75)冫 200 ⳱ 0.001333. The expected loss is 90, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.00133 ⳱ HKD120,000. Example 24-10: FRM Exam 1999----Question 169/Oper.&Integr.Risk c) The distribution of losses due to operational risk is derived from the loss frequency (I) and loss severity distributions (III). Example 24-11: FRM Exam 2001----Question 49 b) Moral hazard arises when insured individuals have no incentive to control their losses because they are insured.

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Example 24-12: FRM Exam 2001----Question 51 b) Adverse selection refers to the fact that individuals buy insurance knowing that they have greater risk than the average, but that the insurer charges the same premium to all. Example 24-13: FRM Exam 1999----Question 170/Oper.&Integr.Risk b) Capital can only provide protection against unexpected losses at a high conﬁdence level. Above that, insurance can pick up the risk. Example 24-14: FRM Exam 1998----Question 4/Oper.&Integr.Risk d) As seen in the example of the effect of a failure to record the terms of the swap correctly, operational risk can create both market and credit risk.

Appendix: Causal Networks Causal networks explain losses in terms of a sequence of random variables. Each variable itself can be due to the combination of other variables. For instance, settlement losses can be viewed as caused by a combination of (1) exposure and (2) time delay. In turn, exposure depends on (a) the value of the transaction and (b) whether it is a buy or sell. Next, the causal factor for time delay can be chosen as (a) the exchange, (b) the domicile, (c) the counterparty, (d) the product, and (e) daily volume. These links are displayed through graphical models based on process work ﬂows. One approach is the Bayesian network. Here, each node represents a random variable; each arrow represents a causal link. Causes and effects are related through conditional probabilities, an application of Bayes’ theorem. For instance, suppose we want to predict the probability of a settlement failure, or fail. Set y ⳱ 1 if there is a failure and zero otherwise. The causal factor is, say, the quality of the back-ofﬁce team, which can be either good or bad. Set x ⳱ 1 if the team is bad. Assume there is a 20 percent probability that the team is bad. If the team is good, the conditional probability of a fail is P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 0) ⳱ 0.1. If the team is bad, this probability is higher, P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 1) ⳱ 0.7. We can now construct the unconditional probability of a fail, which is P (y ⳱ 1) ⳱ P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 0)P (x ⳱ 0) Ⳮ P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 1)P (x ⳱ 1)

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which is here P (y ⳱ 1) ⳱ 0.1 ⫻ (1 ⫺ 0.20) Ⳮ 0.7 ⫻ 0.20 ⳱ 0.22. Armed with this information, we can now evaluate the beneﬁt of changing the team from bad to good through training, for example, or new hires. Or, we could assess the probability that the team is bad given that a fail has occurred. Using Bayes’ rule, this is P (x ⳱ 1 兩 y ⳱ 1) ⳱

P (y ⳱ 1, x ⳱ 1) P (y ⳱ 1 兩 x ⳱ 1)P (x ⳱ 1) ⳱ P (y ⳱ 1) P (y ⳱ 1)

which is here P (x ⳱ 1 兩 y ⳱ 1) ⳱

0.7 ⫻ 0.20 0.22

(24.6)

⳱ 0.64. In other words, the probability that

the team is bad has increased from 20 percent to 64 percent based on the observed fail. Such observation is useful for process diagnostics. Once all initial nodes have been assigned probabilities, the Bayesian network is complete. The bank can now perform Monte Carlo simulations over the network, starting from the initial variables and continuing to the operational loss to derive a distribution of losses.

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Chapter 25 Risk Capital and RAROC The methodologies described so far have covered market, credit, and operational risk. In each case, the distribution of proﬁts and losses reveals a number of essential insights. First, the expected loss is a measure of reserves necessary to guard against future losses. At the very least, the pricing of products should provide a buffer against expected losses. Second, the unexpected loss is a measure of the amount of economic capital required to support the bank’s ﬁnancial risk. This capital, also called risk capital, is basically a value-at-risk (VAR) measure. Armed with this information, institutions can now make better informed decision about business lines. Each activity should provide sufﬁcient proﬁt to compensate for the risks involved. Thus, product pricing should account not only for expected losses but also for the remuneration of risk capital. Some activities may require large amounts of risk capital, which in turn requires higher than otherwise returns. This is the essence of risk-adjusted return on capital (RAROC) measures. The central objective is to establish benchmarks to evaluate the economic return of business activities. This includes transactions, products, customer trades, business lines, as well as the entire business. RAROC is also related to concepts such as shareholder value analysis and economic value added. In the past, performance was measured by yardsticks such as return on assets (ROA), which adjusts proﬁts for the associated book value of assets, or return on equity (ROE), which adjusts proﬁts for the associated book value of equity. None of these measures is satisfactory for evaluating the performance of business lines as they ignore risks. Section 25.1 introduces RAROC measures for performance evaluation. The section also demonstrates the link between RAROC and other concepts such as shareholder value analysis and economic value added. Section 25.2 then shows how to use riskadjusted returns to evaluate products and business lines.

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25.1

RAROC

RAROC was developed by Bankers Trust in the late 1970s. The bank was faced with the problem of evaluating traders involved in activities with different risk proﬁles.

25.1.1

Risk Capital

RAROC is part of the family of risk-adjusted performance measures (RAPM). Consider, for instance, two traders that each returned a proﬁt of $10 million over the last year. The ﬁrst is a foreign currency trader, the second a bond trader. The question is, How do we compare their performance? This is important in order to provide appropriate compensation as well as to decide in which line of activity to expand.

AM FL Y

Assume the FX and bond traders have notional amount and volatility as described in Table 25-1. The bond trader deals in larger amounts, $200 million, but in a market with lower volatility, at 4 percent per annum, against $100 million and 12 percent for the FX trader. The risk capital (RC) can be computed as a VAR measure, say at the 99 percent level over a year, as Bankers Trust did. Assuming normal distributions, this

TE

translates into a risk capital of

Risk Capital (RC) ⳱ VAR ⳱ $100, 000, 000 ⫻ 0.12 ⫻ 2.33 ⳱ $28million for the FX trader and $19 million for the bond trader. More precisely, Bankers Trust computes risk capital from a weekly standard deviation σw as RC ⳱ 2.33 ⫻ σw ⫻ 冪52 ⫻ (1 ⫺ tax rate) ⫻ Notional

(25.1)

which includes a tax factor that determines the amount required on an after-tax basis. TABLE 25-1 Computing RAPM FX trader Bond trader

Proﬁt $10 $10

Notional $100 $200

Volatility 12 4

VAR $28 19%

RAPM 36% 54%

The risk-adjusted performance is then measured as the dollar proﬁt divided by the risk capital RAPM ⳱

Proﬁt RC

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and is shown in the last column. Thus the bond trader is actually performing better than the FX trader as the activity requires less risk capital. More generally, risk capital should account for credit risk, operational risk, as well as any interaction. It should be noted that this approach views risk on a stand-alone basis, i.e. using each product’s volatility. In theory, for capital allocation purposes, risk should be viewed in the context of the bank’s whole portfolio and measured in terms of marginal contribution to the bank’s overall risk. In practice, however, it is best to charge traders for risks under their control, which means the volatility of their portfolio.

25.1.2

RAROC Methodology

RAROC measures proceed in three steps. Risk measurement. This requires the measurement of portfolio exposure, of the volatility and correlations of the risk factors. Capital allocation. This requires the choice of a conﬁdence level and horizon for the VAR measure, which translates into an economic capital. The transaction may also require a regulatory capital charge if appropriate. Performance measurement. This requires the adjustment of performance for the risk capital. Performance measurement can be based on a RAPM method or one of its variants. For instance, economic value added (EVA) focuses on the creation of value during a particular period in excess of the required return on capital. EVA measures residual economic proﬁts as EVA ⳱ Proﬁt ⫺ (Capital ⫻ k)

(25.3)

where proﬁts are adjusted for the cost of economic capital deﬁning k as a discount rate. Assuming the whole worth is captured by EVA, the higher the EVA, the better the project or product. RAROC is formally deﬁned as RAROC ⳱

[Proﬁt ⫺ (Capital ⫻ k)] Capital

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This is a rate of return, obtained by dividing the dollar EVA return by the dollar amount of capital.1 Another popular performance measure is shareholder value analysis (SVA), whose purpose is to maximize the total value to shareholders. The framework is that of a net present value (NPV) analysis, where the worth of a project is computed by taking the present value of future cash ﬂows, discounted at the appropriate interest rate k, minus the up-front capital. A project that has positive NPV creates positive shareholder value. Although SVA is a prospective multiperiod measure whereas EVA is a one-period measure, EVA and SVA are consistent with each other provided the same inputs are used. Consider, for instance, a one-period model where capital is fully invested or excess capital has zero return. The next period payoff is then the proﬁt plus the initial capital; we discount this payoff at the cost of capital and subtract the initial capital. We seek to maximize the NPV, or SVA, which is NPV ⳱

[Proﬁt Ⳮ Capital] [Proﬁt ⫺ Capital ⫻ k] ⫺ Capital ⳱ (1 Ⳮ k) (1 Ⳮ k)

(25.5)

which is equivalent to maximizing the numerator, or EVA. If the risk capital can be invested at the rate r , the ﬁnal payoff must account for the return on capital. The numerator is then modiﬁed to EVA ⳱ [Proﬁt ⫺ Capital ⫻ (k ⫺ r )]

25.1.3

(25.6)

Application to Compensation

This system allows the trader’s compensation to be adjusted for the risk of the activities. The goal is not to decrease total compensation, however. This is illustrated in Table 25-2. Under the old bonus system, the bonus is 20 percent of the proﬁt, or $2 million for the FX trader. We assume that the FX trader has control over the average volatility and want to encourage him or her to lower risk.

1

This measure is sometimes called RARORAC, or risk-adjusted return on risk-adjusted capital. Some deﬁnitions of RAROC use regulatory capital in the denominator. Another measure is RORAC, or return on risk-adjusted capital, which omits the adjustment in the denominator.

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The benchmark, or target risk, is set at $20 million and described in the last row. The new bonus scheme pays a percentage of the EVA using a cost of capital of 15 percent. Thus for the FX trader, the EVA is $10 ⫺ 15% ⫻ $28 ⳱ $5.8 million. We now calibrate the multiplier so that a target RC of $20 million would result in a bonus of $2 million. Hence, the total compensation is still the same if the risk capital is equal to that of the benchmark. This yields a multiplier of 29 percent. Note that the benchmark compensation is the same under the old and new system. Table 25-2 shows that the new bonus system would result in a payment of 29% ⫻ $5.8 ⳱ $1.7 million to the FX trader. This is less than under the old system due to the fact that the risk capital was higher than the benchmark. Such a system will immediately capture the attention of the trader, who will now focus on risk as well as proﬁts. The other trader, with the same proﬁt but lower capital, has a higher bonus than under the old system, at $2.1 million instead of $2 million. TABLE 25-2 Risk-Adjusted Compensation ($ Millions) Proﬁt

FX trader Bond trader Benchmark

(1)

Capital (VAR) (2)

$10 $10 $10

$28 $19 $20

Bonus old (3) 20% ⫻ (1) $2.0 $2.0 $2.0

Capital Charge (4) 15% ⫻ (2) $4.2 $2.8 $3.0

EVA (5) (1) ⫺ (4) $5.8 $7.2 $7.0

Bonus new (6) 29% ⫻ (5) $1.7 $2.1 $2.0

Example 25-1: FRM Exam 1999----Question 159/Oper.&Integr.Risk 25-1. To calculate risk-adjusted return on capital (RAROC), what information is required? a) 1-year holding period, 99% conﬁdence interval loss for the portfolio b) Tax rate c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

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Example 25-2: FRM Exam 2000----Question 70/Operational Risk Mgt. 25-2. A bond trader deals in $100 million in a market with very high volatility of 20 percent per annum. He yields $10 million proﬁt. The risk capital (RC) is computed as a value-at-risk (VAR) measure at the 99 percent level over a year. Assuming normal distribution of return, calculate the risk-adjusted performance measure (RAPM). a) 15.35% b) 19.13% c) 21.46% d) 25.02%

25.2

Performance Evaluation and Pricing

We now give the example of the analysis of the risk-adjusted return for an interest rate swap. All revenue and cost items should be attributed to the product. Gross revenue consists of the present value of the bid and ask spread plus any fees. Hedging costs can be traced to the need to hedge out market risk, as incurred. Expected credit costs measure the statistically expected losses due to credit risk (also known as credit provision) and operational risk. Operating costs reﬂect direct, indirect, and overhead expenses. Tax costs measure tax expenses. The sum of revenues minus all costs can be called expected net income. It still does not account for the remuneration of risk capital. This is the purpose of EVA, as in Equation (25.3). EVA and RAROC allow the institution to evaluate an existing product or business line. This application is still passive. The same methodology can be inverted to make pricing decisions, i.e. to determine the minimum revenue required for a transaction to be viable. Consider the EVA formula, Equation (25.3). This can also be viewed as a minimum amount of revenues that covers costs and the cost of risk capital: Revenue ⳱ Costs Ⳮ [Capital ⫻ (k ⫺ r )]

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As an example, we illustrate the pricing of a 5-year interest rate swap for various credit counterparties, which is shown in Table 25-3.2 Assuming there is only credit risk or that the swap is hedged against market risk, we can compute various costs expressed in basis points (bp) of the notional, including the expected credit loss. This corresponds to the actuarial estimate of credit loss, from the combination of credit exposure, probability of default, and loss given default. For the Aaa credit, for example, this amounts to 0.29bp of principal, which is very low, reﬂecting the low probability of default.3 The next step is to compute the amount of risk capital required to support the transaction. This can be derived from th